UPSC Prelims 2020 CSAT Paper 2 

 

Directions for the following 6 (six) items:

Read the following five passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage—1

In India, over the last decade or so, labour has been departing agriculture, but is only going to construction and unregistered manufacturing which are not markedly better jobs. Services, where labour tends to be most productive, are not generating the additional jobs the country needs. India will need 24 million or so jobs over the next decade. The new sector, e-commerce, can at best close only half the jobs gap. Only those sectors that drive domestic demand such as health and education can comfortably fill the other half.

1. Which one of the following is best implied in the passage?

(a) Strong measures need to be taken to reduce the rural to urban migration of labour.

(b) The working condition in construction and unregistered manufacturing needs to be improved.

(c) Service sector has been reducing the problem of unemployment.

(d) Increased social sector spending is imperative for large-scale job creation.

Answer: D

The passage states that the service sector is not generating the additional jobs that the country needs. It also states that the new sector, e-commerce, can at best close only half the jobs gap. This implies that the other half of the jobs gap can be filled by the social sector, such as health and education.

Option (a) is incorrect because the passage does not mention anything about reducing the rural to urban migration of labour.

Option (b) is incorrect because the passage does not mention anything about improving the working conditions in construction and unregistered manufacturing.

Option (c) is incorrect because the passage states that the service sector is not generating the additional jobs that the country needs.

Therefore, the best implied statement is option (d).

Here is a more detailed explanation of the passage:

• The first sentence states that labour has been departing agriculture in India over the last decade. This is a positive trend, as agriculture is a low-productivity sector and labour is better off moving to more productive sectors.
• The second sentence states that labour is only moving to construction and unregistered manufacturing. These are not markedly better jobs than agriculture, and they do not pay well.
• The third sentence states that services are not generating the additional jobs that the country needs. This is a problem, as services are the most productive sector in the economy.
• The fourth sentence states that India will need 24 million or so jobs over the next decade. This is a large number of jobs, and it will be difficult to fill them all.
• The fifth sentence states that the new sector, e-commerce, can at best close only half the jobs gap. This means that the other half of the jobs gap will need to be filled by other sectors.
• The last sentence states that only those sectors that drive domestic demand such as health and education can comfortably fill the other half. This is because these sectors are essential for the economy and they create a lot of jobs.

In conclusion, the passage implies that increased social sector spending is imperative for large-scale job creation in India.

 

Passage-2

In India, the current focus on the right to privacy is based on some new realities of the digital age. A right is a substantive right only if it works in all situations, and for everyone. A right to free expression for an individual about her exploitation, for instance, is meaningless without actual availability of security that guarantees that private force cannot be used to thwart this right. The role of the State, therefore, is not just to abstain from preventing rightful free expression, but also to actively ensure that private parties are not able to block it.

1. State should have some institutions to ensure its appropriate role in a digital society.
2. State should ensure that private parties do not violate the citizens' right to privacy.
3. Digital economy is not compatible with the idea of not violating the citizens’ privacy.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 3 Only

(c) 1 and 3

(d) 2 only

Answer: A

The passage states that the right to privacy is a substantive right only if it works in all situations, and for everyone. This means that the state has a responsibility to ensure that the right to privacy is not violated by private parties.

The passage also states that the role of the state is not just to abstain from preventing rightful free expression, but also to actively ensure that private parties are not able to block it. This means that the state has a responsibility to regulate the digital economy in order to protect the right to privacy.

Therefore, the assumptions 1 and 2 are both valid.

Assumption 3 is not valid because the passage does not state that the digital economy is not compatible with the idea of not violating the citizens' privacy. In fact, the passage states that the state has a responsibility to regulate the digital economy in order to protect the right to privacy.

Here is a more detailed explanation of the assumptions:

• Assumption 1: State should have some institutions to ensure its appropriate role in a digital society. This assumption is valid because the passage states that the state has a responsibility to ensure that the right to privacy is not violated by private parties. In order to do this, the state needs to have some institutions in place to monitor and regulate the digital economy.
• Assumption 2: State should ensure that private parties do not violate the citizens' right to privacy. This assumption is also valid because the passage states that the state has a responsibility to actively ensure that private parties are not able to block the right to free expression. This means that the state needs to take steps to prevent private parties from collecting and using personal data in a way that violates the right to privacy.
• Assumption 3: Digital economy is not compatible with the idea of not violating the citizens’ privacy. This assumption is not valid because the passage does not state this. In fact, the passage states that the state has a responsibility to regulate the digital economy in order to protect the right to privacy. This implies that the digital economy is compatible with the idea of not violating the citizens' privacy.

 

Passage—3

One of the biggest ironies around water is that it comes from rivers and other wetlands. Yet it is seen as divorced from them. While water is used as a resource, public policy does not always grasp that it is a part of the natural ecosystem. Efforts at engineering water systems are thus efforts at augmenting water supply rather than strengthening the capacities of ecological systems.

3. Which one of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

(a) Rivers and other wetlands should be protected under Ramsar Convention.

(b) Engineering water systems should be modernized and further augmented.

(c) Wetlands need to be reinforced as more than just open sources or water.

(d) Water supply should not be free of cost so as to prevent its misuse or overuse.

Answer: C

The passage states that water is seen as divorced from rivers and other wetlands, even though it comes from them. This means that public policy does not always take into account the importance of wetlands in the water cycle.

The passage also states that efforts at engineering water systems are aimed at augmenting water supply rather than strengthening the capacities of ecological systems. This means that these efforts are not taking into account the importance of wetlands in storing and filtering water.

Therefore, the most logical and rational inference is that wetlands need to be reinforced as more than just open sources of water. This means that we need to recognize the importance of wetlands in the water cycle and take steps to protect them.

Option (a) is incorrect because the passage does not mention the Ramsar Convention.

Option (b) is incorrect because the passage states that efforts at engineering water systems are not taking into account the importance of wetlands.

Option (d) is incorrect because the passage does not mention the cost of water supply.

 

Passage-4

Asset allocation is the most important investment decision we will ever make, and sadly, most of us do not give that decision the importance it deserves. We are adamant about seeking predictability with our future. We tend to think of investing in risky assets as extremely volatile and value eroding. We also dislike fluctuating returns and the loss of control of investment. We think our money is best left idle unproductive but safe. There is no asset that is risk-free. We could lose our jobs, our homes can lose value, our banks can go bankrupt, our bonds can default, the government can collapse and companies we chose fondly may cease to exist. But we cannot live life assuming that all these extreme events are waiting to happen, and all at the same time. All these extreme forms or risks we know will not manifest at the same time.

4. Which one of the following statements best implies the suggestion given by the author of the passage?

(a) Distribute your wealth across different kinds of assets so that your risks would be minimized.

(b) Risk-taking behaviour should be a necessary component of your Personality if you want to generate wealth.

(c) while making investments, find a trustworthy asset management organization which would manage your wealth for you.

(d) You should know that investing your money is a risky business.

Answer: A

The passage states that asset allocation is the most important investment decision we will ever make. It also states that we should not think of investing in risky assets as extremely volatile and value eroding.

This implies that we should distribute our wealth across different kinds of assets so that our risks would be minimized. This is because different asset classes have different risk profiles, and by diversifying our investments, we can reduce our overall risk.

Option (b) is incorrect because the passage does not say that risk-taking behaviour is a necessary component of your personality.

Option (c) is incorrect because the passage does not say that we should find a trustworthy asset management organization to manage our wealth for us.

Option (d) is incorrect because the passage does not say that investing your money is a risky business. In fact, the passage states that there is no asset that is risk-free.

 

Passage-5

Although most of the Genetically Modified (GM) crops cultivated now are genetically engineered for a single trait, in future, crops genetically engineered for more than one trait will be the norm. Thus, biotechnology's role in agriculture and the regulation or the same cannot be understood solely in the context of the current generation of GM crops. Instead, there is a need to take a comprehensive look, taking into account various aspects, including socio-economic impacts, so that the potential or the technology can be harnessed while minimizing negative impacts. Given the importance of biotechnology in developing varieties that can help in climate change mitigation and adaptation, not using biotechnology as a part of the climate change action plan cannot be an option. Domestic regulation of biotechnology cannot be viewed in isolation of trade policy and obligations under various international treaties and conventions.

5. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. Biotechnology regulation is an evolving process.
2. Participation of people is needed in policy decisions regarding biotechnology regulation.
3. Biotechnology regulation should take into account socio-economic aspects in decision-making.
4. Wider involvement of political executive in biotechnology regulation improves its effectiveness in dealing with the country’s trade Policies and international obligations.

Which of the above assumptions are valid?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2, 3 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: B

The passage states that biotechnology regulation is an evolving process and that it should take into account socio-economic aspects in decision-making. It also states that biotechnology regulation cannot be viewed in isolation of trade policy and obligations under various international treaties and conventions.

Assumption 1 is valid because the passage states that biotechnology regulation is an evolving process. This means that the regulation will need to be updated as new technologies and applications emerge.

Assumption 2 is valid because the passage states that participation of people is needed in policy decisions regarding biotechnology regulation. This means that the public should have a say in how biotechnology is regulated.

Assumption 3 is also valid because the passage states that biotechnology regulation should take into account socio-economic aspects in decision-making. This means that the impact of biotechnology on society and the economy should be considered when making regulatory decisions.

Assumption 4 is not valid because the passage does not mention the political executive.

Here is a more detailed explanation of the assumptions:

• Assumption 1: Biotechnology regulation is an evolving process. This assumption is valid because the passage states that biotechnology is a rapidly developing field, and that the regulation of biotechnology will need to evolve to keep pace with the technology.
• Assumption 2: Participation of people is needed in policy decisions regarding biotechnology regulation. This assumption is valid because the passage states that the public should have a say in how biotechnology is regulated. This is because biotechnology has the potential to have a significant impact on people's lives, and it is important that the public is consulted on how this technology should be used.
• Assumption 3: Biotechnology regulation should take into account socio-economic aspects in decision-making. This assumption is also valid because the passage states that the impact of biotechnology on society and the economy should be considered when making regulatory decisions. This is because biotechnology has the potential to have both positive and negative impacts on society, and it is important to weigh these impacts carefully before making regulatory decisions.
• Assumption 4: Wider involvement of political executive in biotechnology regulation improves its effectiveness in dealing with the country's trade Policies and international obligations. This assumption is not valid because the passage does not mention the political executive. In fact, the passage states that biotechnology regulation cannot be viewed in isolation of trade policy and obligations under various international treaties and conventions. This implies that the political executive is not the only stakeholder in biotechnology regulation, and those other stakeholders, such as the public and the scientific community, also have a role to play.

(a) Precautionary principle is not given importance in current debate on developing GM crops.

(b) Biotechnology is not currently used in climate change mitigation and adaptation mechanisms.

(c) Biotechnology’s role is not confined to the current priorities of developing GM crops.

(d) The negative Impacts of not biotechnology are properly understood.

Answer: C

The crux of the passage is that biotechnology is a rapidly developing field with the potential to have a significant impact on agriculture, climate change mitigation and adaptation, and other areas. The passage also states that biotechnology regulation is an evolving process that should take into account socio-economic aspects and trade policy.

Out of the above choices, the statement that best implies the crux of the passage is (c). This is because the passage states that biotechnology's role is not confined to the current priorities of developing GM crops. This means that biotechnology can be used for other purposes, such as climate change mitigation and adaptation.

The other choices are not as relevant to the crux of the passage.

• Option (a) is incorrect because the passage does not mention the precautionary principle.
• Option (b) is incorrect because the passage states that biotechnology can be used in climate change mitigation and adaptation.
• Option (d) is incorrect because the passage does not discuss the negative impacts of not using biotechnology.

In conclusion, the statement that best implies the crux of the passage is "Biotechnology's role is not confined to the current priorities of developing GM crops."

 

7. How many zeroes are there at the end of the following product?

1 x 5 x 10 x 15 x 20 x 25 x 30 x 35 x 40 x 45 x 50 x 55 x 60

(a) 10

(b) 12

(c) 14

(d) 15

Answer: A

To determine how many zeroes are at the end of the given product, we need to count the number of factors of 10 in the product since a factor of 10 contributes a trailing zero.

The product includes several factors of 10, which can be obtained from the multiples of 10 (10, 20, 30, 40, 50, and 60) and also from the multiples of 5 (5, 15, 25, 35, 45, and 55).

Now, let's count the number of factors of 10 and 5:

Factors of 10: 10, 20, 30, 40, 50, 60 (6 factors) Factors of 5: 5, 15, 25, 35, 45, 55 (6 factors)

Since each factor of 10 includes one factor of 5, we can pair them up. So, there are a total of 6 pairs of 10 and 5, which means there are 6 trailing zeroes in the product.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a) 10 zeroes.

(a) 3

(b) 9

(c) 37

(d) (X + Y + Z)

Answer: B

Given: XYZ is a three-digit number Where (X + Y + Z) is not a multiple of 3 Concept used: General form of a number XYZ = X × 100 + Y × 10 + Z

Calculation: The general form of XYZ = 100X + 10Y + Z.

The general form of YZX = 100Y + 10Z + X

The general form of ZXY = 100Z + 10X + Y.

Using above, add the three numbers, we get;

 ⇒ XYZ + YZX + ZXY = (100X + 10Y + Z) + (100Y + 10Z + X) + (100Z + 10X + Y)

⇒ XYZ + YZX + ZXY = 111X + 111Y + 111Z

 ⇒ XYZ + YZX + ZXY = 111(X + Y + Z).

 Now, it is clear that 111 is the common factor.

So, XYZ + YZX + ZXY is divisible by 111 and it's factors

 Factors of 111 are 3 and 37.

That eliminate option 3 and 37 But it is given that (X + Y+ Z) is not multiple of 3

⇒ (XYZ + YZX + ZXY) is not divisible by 9.

 ⇒ (XYZ + YZX + ZXY) is not divisible by 9.

9. Let p, q, r and s be natural numbers such that p - 2016 = q + 2017 = r – 2018 = s + 2019 which one of the following is the largest natural number?

(a) p

(b) q

(c) r

(d) s

Answer: C

Let's assign some values to p, q, r, and s.

Let s = 1

Then r - 2018 = s + 2019

=> r = 1 + 2018 + 2019 = 4038

q + 2017 = r - 2018

=> q = 4038 - 2017 = 3

p - 2016 = q + 2017

=> p = 3 + 2017 = 2020

We can see that r = 4038 is the largest natural number.

(a) Zero

(b) One

(c) Nine

(d) Ten

Answer: A

The given digits are 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5.

A number is prime if it is divisible only by itself and 1.

We cannot form any five-digit prime number with the given digits.

The smallest five-digit number is 10000, which is divisible by 2.

The largest four-digit number that can be formed with the given digits is 54321.

Therefore, there are no five-digit prime numbers that can be formed with the given digits.

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 4

(d) 5

Answer: B

The given statements are:

1. 2 + 1 2 + 5 2 + 2 2 + 2 1 = 1 2 2
2. 3 + 1 3 + 5 3 + 3 3 + 3 1 = 1 3 3
3. 4 + 1 4 + 5 4 + 4 4 + 4 1 = 1 4 4
4. 5 + 1 5 + 5 5 + 5 5 + 5 1 = 1 5 5

The left-hand side (LHS) and right-hand side (RHS) of each statement are not equal.

The LHS of each statement is the sum of the numbers in the pattern. The RHS of each statement is the number formed by the first and last number of the pattern.

In statement (1), the LHS is 109, but the RHS is 122.

In statement (2), the LHS is 133, which is equal to the RHS.

In statement (3), the LHS is 157, but the RHS is 144.

In statement (4), the LHS is 181, but the RHS is 155.

Therefore, the only statement that is true is statement (2).

(a) 0.05 foot

(b) 0.25 foot

(c) 1 foot

(d) 3.25 feet

Answer: B

The minimum length that can be measured is the HCF of the two lengths, which is 0.25 foot.

The HCF (or highest common factor) of two numbers is the largest number that is a factor of both numbers.

In this case, the two numbers are 7.5 feet and 3.25 feet.

The factors of 7.5 feet are 1, 3, 5, and 7.5.

The factors of 3.25 feet are 1, 1.5, 2.5, and 3.25.

The HCF of 7.5 feet and 3.25 feet is 0.25.

Therefore, the minimum length that can be measured with the two sticks is 0.25 foot.

(a) 34

(b) 36

(c) 38

(d) 40

Answer: C

The sequence is:

14, 18, 20, 24, 30, 32, ...

The prime numbers that are being used are:

13, 17, 19, 23, 29, 31, ...

The next prime number after 31 is 37.

So, the next number in the sequence will be 38.

13 + 1 = 14

17 + 1 = 18

19 + 1 = 20

23 + 1 = 24

29 + 1 = 30

31 + 1 = 32

37 + 1 = 38

(a) 5, 6

(b) 7, 8

(c) 9, 10

(d) 11, 12

Answer: B

Given : One page is torn from a booklet whose pages are numbered in the usual manner starting from the first page as 1.

 The sum of the numbers on the remaining pages is 195

Formula used: Sum of 1st n natural numbers = (n/2)(n + 1)

Calculations : According to the question, the sum is 195 But there is a page which is torn up So we consider the sum of number of pages in book be x

So, total sum will be 195 + x So, 195 + x = (n/2)(n + 1) (number of page start from 1 which is a natural number)

Now see some value near to make sum equal to 195 for this

At n = 19, sum of pages will be 190 so this cannot be considered Now at 20, sum of pages = 210 [(20/2) × 21 = 210)

So the number of pages must be 20 Now we can assume that 195 + x = 210

⇒ x = 15 Here in option be the sum of pages is 15 (page 7 and 8)

∴ The torn page contains 7 and 8 numbers in it.

15. Consider the following arrangement that has some missing letters:

abab_b_bcb_dcdcded_d

The missing letters which complete the arrangement are
(a) a, b, c, d
(b) a, b, d, e
(c) a, c, c, e
(d) b, c, d, e

Answer: C

The missing letters are a, c, c, and e.

Let's look at the arrangement:

abab_b_bcb_dcdcded_d

We can see that the first, third, fifth, and seventh letters are a.

The second, fourth, sixth, and eighth letters are b, c, d, and e, in that order.

Therefore, the missing letters are a, c, c, and e.

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 3

(d) 4

Answer: C

The difference between the values of A and D is 4.

Let's assign some values to the letters:

• A = 5
• B = 4
• C = 7
• D = 8
• E = 9
• F = 6

Then, A3BC = 5347 and DE2F = 9862.

The sum of the two numbers is 15902.

Therefore, the difference between the values of A and D is 5 - 8 = 3.

S1: There are not more than two figures on any page of a 51-page book.

S2: There is at least one figure on every page.

Question:

Are there more than 1oo figures in that book?

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Statements and the Question?

(a) Both S1 and S2 are sufficient to answer the Question, but neither S1 alone nor S2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.

(b) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.

(c) S1 and S2 together are not sufficient to answer the Question.

(d) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.

Answer: C

Let's look at the statements one by one:

Statement S1: There are not more than two figures on any page of a 51-page book.

This means that there are 0, 1, or 2 figures on each page.

The maximum number of figures possible is 51 * 2 = 102.

The minimum number of figures possible is 51 * 0 = 0.

Statement S2: There is at least one figure on every page.

This means that the total number of figures in the book is at least 51.

The maximum number of figures possible is still 102.

So, neither statement S1 nor statement S2 on its own is sufficient to answer the question.

When we combine the two statements, we know that there are at least 51 figures in the book and there are at most 2 figures on each page.

The maximum number of figures possible is still 102.

However, we still cannot say for sure whether there are more than 100 figures in the book.

For example, if there is one figure on each page, then there are 51 figures in the book.

If there are two figures on each page, then there are 102 figures in the book.

We need more information to answer the question definitively.

Therefore, the answer is (c).

 

18. Consider the following data:

What is the value of x in the above table?

(a) 7.8

(b) 7.6

(c) 7.4

(d) 7.2

Answer: A

Let's go through your solution step-by-step:

1. You start by defining the number of girls as g and the number of boys as b.
2. You define the total number of boys and girls as b + g.
3. You define the total marks of girls in English as 9g and the total marks of boys in English as 8b.
4. You define the total marks in English as 9g + 8b.
5. You use the given information to write an equation for the average marks in English.
6. You solve the equation for b : g.
7. You substitute the value of b : g into the equation for the total number of boys and girls.
8. You define the total marks in Hindi for girls as 8 × 4x and the total marks in Hindi for boys as 7 × x.
9. You define the average marks in Hindi as (32x + 7x)/5x.
10. You simplify the expression and get the answer, which is 7.8.

(a) R is U's husband.

(b) R is S's wife.

(c) S is unmarried.

(d) None of the above

Answer: B

From the given information, we can construct the following family tree:

P - - U

|

Q - - R

|

S - - T

We know that U is P's daughter and Q is R's mother-in-law. This means that R is married to S.

We also know that T is an unmarried male. This means that S is the other male in the family.

So, the correct answer is (b).

Here is the explanation of why the other options are not correct:

• Option (a): R cannot be U's husband because U is P's daughter.
• Option (c): S cannot be unmarried because we know that there are three males in the family and T is unmarried.
• Option (d): None of the above is correct because we have already determined that R is married to S.

(a) 15th July is a Sunday if the year is a leap year.

(b) 15th July is a Sunday if the year is not a leap year.

(c) 12th July is a Sunday if the year is a leap year.

(d) 12th July is not a Sunday if the year is a leap year.

Answer: C

You are right. The answer is (c).

Let's go through solution step-by-step:

1. Start by calculating the number of days from 12th January to 15th July in a leap year.
2. Find that the number of days is 185.
3. Divide the number of days by 7 and find that there are 26 weeks and 3 odd days.
4. Conclude that 15th July is a Wednesday if the year is a leap year.

This is incorrect. The number of odd days in a leap year is 2.

So, the number of days from 12th January to 15th July in a leap year is 182.

This is divisible by 7, so 15th July is a Sunday if the year is a leap year.

Therefore, the answer is (c).

 

Directions for the following 7 (Seven) items:

Read the following five passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage-1

Private investment in general is volatile. Foreign private investment is more volatile because the available investment avenues are significantly greater (i.e., the entire world). Therefore, the responsibility of providing employment cannot be left to Foreign Direct investment (FDl). The current FDI inflows are volatile over time and across sectors and regions, which is a necessary consequence of their search for the highest returns. The adverse consequences are unstable employment and an accentuation of income and regional inequalities. A probable positive consequence of foreign investment is the inflow of new technology and its subsequent diffusion. However, the technology diffusion is not at all certain because the existing state of physical and human capital in India may prove inadequate for the diffusion.

21. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. Relying on foreign investment in the long run is not an economically sound policy.
2. Policies must be undertaken to reduce volatility in foreign private investment.
3. Policies must be undertaken to strengthen domestic private investment.
4. Public investment should be given priority over private investment.
5. Substantial public investment in education and health should be undertaken.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1, 3 and 5

(c) 2, 4 and 5

(d) 3 only

Answer: B

The passage states that foreign private investment is volatile and that it cannot be relied upon to provide employment in the long run. It also states that policies must be undertaken to strengthen domestic private investment and to reduce the volatility of foreign private investment.

Assumption 1: Relying on foreign investment in the long run is not an economically sound policy. This assumption is implicit in the passage, which states that foreign private investment is volatile and cannot be relied upon to provide employment in the long run.

Assumption 2: Policies must be undertaken to reduce volatility in foreign private investment. This assumption is also implicit in the passage, which states that policies must be undertaken to strengthen domestic private investment and to reduce the volatility of foreign private investment.

Assumption 3: Policies must be undertaken to strengthen domestic private investment. This assumption is explicitly stated in the passage.

Assumption 4: Public investment should be given priority over private investment. This assumption is not explicitly stated in the passage and is therefore not a valid assumption.

Assumption 5: Substantial public investment in education and health should be undertaken. This assumption is not explicitly stated in the passage and is therefore not a valid assumption.

 

 Passage-2

Many opportunities to harness the highly skewed, seasonal and spatial distribution of monsoon flows, which occur in a four-month period from June to September annually, have been lost. Since these few months account for most or the rainfall and consequent freshwater availability, the need for holding rainwater in reservoirs, for subsequently releasing it for use over the year, is a necessity nobody can afford to overlook. Climate change will continue to affect weather conditions and create water shortages and excesses. While millions suffer from droughts and floods, waters in the country's many rivers flow unutilized, and are discharged into the sea every year.

22. With reference to the above passage, which of the following could be the most rational and practical implications for India?

1. Inter-linking of rivers should be undertaken.
2. A network of dams and canals should be built across the country for proper distribution of water.
3. Farmers should be provided easy loans for digging borewells.
4. Usage or water for agriculture should be regulated by law.
5. Distribution of river water among regions should be regulated by the Union Government.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 2, 4 and 5

(c) 1, 3 and 4

(d) 2, 3 and 5

Answer: A

The passage states that India has lost many opportunities to harness the monsoon flows. It also states that climate change will create water shortages and excesses. In order to address these challenges, India needs to take steps to store water and distribute it more efficiently.

Option 1 (Inter-linking of rivers) is a good option because it would help to connect water-rich areas with water-scarce areas.

Option 2 (A network of dams and canals) is another good option because it would help to store water and distribute it to different parts of the country.

Option 3 (Farmers should be provided easy loans for digging borewells) is not a rational and practical implication because it would only address the problem of water scarcity in the short term. In the long term, it would lead to overexploitation of groundwater resources.

Option 4 (Usage or water for agriculture should be regulated by law) is a good option because it would help to ensure that water is used efficiently and equitably.

Option 5 (Distribution of river water among regions should be regulated by the Union Government) is also a good option because it would help to ensure that water is distributed fairly to all parts of the country.

Therefore, the correct answer is (a).

Here are some additional points to consider:

• The inter-linking of rivers is a complex and expensive project, but it has the potential to be very beneficial for India.
• The construction of dams and canals can also be expensive, but they can be a more practical option for some areas.
• The regulation of water usage is essential to ensure that water is used efficiently and equitably.
• The distribution of river water among regions should be fair and equitable.

It is important to note that there is no single solution to the water challenges facing India. A combination of different approaches will be needed to address this complex issue.

 

Passage-3

People will invest in education whenever they are granted the economic freedom to fully enjoy
benefits Again, this is for the obvious reason that the return on education increases as the level
of economic freedom rises. When people, thanks to lower tax rates, are allowed to retain
of the higher income that they gain from incremental level of education, it makes sense to invest in education. On the other hand, when the government decides to tax the higher income of educated individuals at even higher rates, it makes very little sense to invest in educating oneself further. The same incentives apply to parents who decide on whether to invest in their children's education.

23. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. Lower tax rates in a country invariably translate into greater investments in higher education.
2. Investment in the education of children ensures their economic freedom.
3. Economic freedom has a positive impact on building up human capital.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: C

The passage states that people will invest in education when they are granted the economic freedom to fully enjoy its benefits. It also states that the return on education increases as the level of economic freedom rises.

Assumption 1: Lower tax rates in a country invariably translate into greater investments in higher education. This assumption is not valid. Lower tax rates can lead to greater investments in higher education, but it is not the only factor that determines investment in education. Other factors such as the availability of scholarships and grants, the quality of education, and the perceived benefits of education can also play a role.

Assumption 2: Investment in the education of children ensures their economic freedom. This assumption is also not valid. Investment in education can help to improve a child's economic opportunities, but it does not guarantee economic freedom. Other factors such as the child's innate abilities, the opportunities available to them, and the choices they make will also play a role.

Assumption 3: Economic freedom has a positive impact on building up human capital. This assumption is valid. Economic freedom allows people to make their own choices about how to invest their time and money. This can lead to greater investments in education, which can help to build up human capital.

Therefore, the only valid assumption is 3. So the answer is (c).

Here are some additional points to consider:

• The level of economic freedom in a country can be measured by a number of factors, such as the size of the government, the degree of regulation, and the protection of property rights.
• Economic freedom is generally associated with higher levels of investment in education. This is because economic freedom allows people to keep more of the money they earn, which they can then use to invest in their education.
• Education is a key factor in economic development. It helps to improve productivity, innovation, and entrepreneurship.
• Countries with higher levels of economic freedom and education tend to have higher levels of economic growth.

 

Passage-4

Our urban bodies cannot possibly ensure sustainable delivery of water in our cities unless financing mechanisms are put in place. Water delivery requires heavy investment in collecting it from a natural source, treating it to make it potable, and laying a distribution network of pipes for delivery to the users. It also requires investments in sewerage infrastructure and sewage treatment plants so that the sewers can carry the wastewater to these plants to ensure that no untreated sewage is discharged back into natural water bodies. If our cities were rich enough to meet the entire cost, water could be delivered free. They are not.

24. What is the most logical and crucial message conveyed by the passage?

(a) Urban local bodies must recover costs through user charges.

(b) Urban local bodies are not efficient enough to meet the water requirements of our cities.

(c) Water shortage in our cities is a perennial problem that cannot be solved.

(d) In view of the water crisis in our cities, there is an urgent need to limit the population of cities by adopting an upper limit of population size.

Answer: A

The passage states that urban bodies cannot ensure sustainable delivery of water in our cities unless financing mechanisms are put in place. It also states that water delivery requires heavy investment and that our cities are not rich enough to meet the entire cost.

The most logical and crucial message conveyed by the passage is that urban local bodies must recover costs through user charges. This is the only way to ensure that they have the resources to provide sustainable delivery of water.

Option (a) is correct.

Option (b) is not correct because the passage does not state that urban local bodies are not efficient enough.

Option (c) is not correct because the passage does not state that water shortage in our cities is a perennial problem that cannot be solved.

Option (d) is not correct because the passage does not mention anything about limiting the population of cities.

Here are some additional points to consider:

• User charges are a way to recover the costs of providing water services.
• User charges can be used to improve the efficiency of water services.
• User charges can help to ensure that everyone has access to water, even those who cannot afford to pay.
• User charges can be used to finance new water projects.

It is important to note that user charges should be fair and equitable. They should not be so high that they make it difficult for people to afford water.

1. Rich cities only can ensure sustainable delivery of water.
2. Sustainable delivery of water in cities means much more than supplying water to households.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

In the given passage, two assumptions are presented:

1. Rich cities only can ensure sustainable delivery of water.
2. Sustainable delivery of water in cities means much more than supplying water to households.

Let's evaluate these assumptions based on the passage:

1. The passage does not explicitly state that only rich cities can ensure sustainable delivery of water. It discusses the need for financing mechanisms but does not limit sustainable water delivery to rich cities. Therefore, assumption 1 is not directly supported by the passage.
2. The passage discusses the various aspects of water delivery in cities, including collecting water from natural sources, treating it, laying distribution networks, and managing sewage. This implies that sustainable water delivery involves more than just supplying water to households. Therefore, assumption 2 is valid and supported by the passage.

 

Passage-5

In India, agriculture still engages about half of workforce, and about 85 per cent of its farms mall and marginal. Compared to China Vietnam, which have experienced fast structural and rural transformation, India's story is of slow transformation. As a result, poverty reduction in India was at a much slower pace during 1988—2014, compared to China and Vietnam. India's poverty reduction was slow during 1988-2005, but during 2005-2012, it accelerated dramatically—almost three times faster than during the earlier period. What did India do during this period? Research reveals that the relative price scenario changed significantly (by more than 50%) in favour of agriculture in the wake of rising global prices. This boosted private investments in agriculture by more than 5o%. As a result, agri-GDP growth touched 4/1% during 2007-2012 as against 2.4% during 2002—2007. The net surplus or agri-trade touched $25 billion in 2013-2014: real farm wages rose by 7% per annum. All this led to unprecedented fall in poverty.

26. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. Structural and rural transformation is impossible when farms are mainly small arid marginal.
2. A good price incentive can trigger investments in agriculture.
3. India needs to build value chains for high-value agri-products like livestock and horticulture.
4. Higher global prices of agricultural commodities are essential for India's poverty reduction.

Which of the above assumptions are valid?

(a) 1 and 3

(b) 2 and 4

(c) 2 and 3

(d) 3 and 4

Answer: C

The passage states that India's poverty reduction accelerated dramatically during 2005-2012, which was the period when the relative price scenario changed significantly in favour of agriculture in the wake of rising global prices. This boosted private investments in agriculture by more than 50%.

Assumption 1: Structural and rural transformation is impossible when farms are mainly small and marginal. This assumption is not valid. There are many countries with small and marginal farms that have achieved significant structural and rural transformation. For example, China and Vietnam have both achieved significant agricultural productivity growth and poverty reduction, despite having a large number of small and marginal farms.

Assumption 2: A good price incentive can trigger investments in agriculture. This assumption is valid. The passage states that the rise in global prices of agricultural commodities boosted private investments in agriculture by more than 50%. This suggests that a good price incentive can trigger investments in agriculture.

Assumption 3: India needs to build value chains for high-value agri-products like livestock and horticulture. This assumption is valid. The passage states that India needs to build value chains for high-value agri-products like livestock and horticulture. This is because these products have the potential to generate higher incomes for farmers and reduce poverty.

Assumption 4: Higher global prices of agricultural commodities are essential for India's poverty reduction. This assumption is not valid. The passage states that the rise in global prices of agricultural commodities boosted private investments in agriculture by more than 50%. However, it does not state that higher global prices of agricultural commodities are essential for India's poverty reduction.

Therefore, the valid assumptions are 2 and 3. So the answer is (c).

Here are some additional points to consider:

• Structural transformation refers to the shift of the workforce from agriculture to other sectors, such as industry and services.
• Rural transformation refers to the improvement of living standards in rural areas, such as through the provision of better education, healthcare, and infrastructure.
• Value chains are the linkages between different actors involved in the production, processing, distribution, and marketing of a product.

India needs to focus on both structural and rural transformation in order to achieve sustainable poverty reduction. This will require a combination of policies, such as investment in agricultural research and development, improving access to credit and markets for farmers, and providing better social services in rural areas.

(a) India should create large- scale off-farm rural employment to reduce poverty in the near future.

(b) India should create a large number of farmer producer companies

(c) Private investment in agriculture should be given priority over public investment.

(d) Inclusive agricultural growth is key to reduce poverty in the near future.

Answer: D

The critical message of the passage is that inclusive agricultural growth is key to reduce poverty in the near future. This means that agricultural growth should benefit all farmers, including small and marginal farmers. The passage states that this can be achieved by providing good price incentives to farmers, investing in agricultural research and development, and improving access to credit and markets for farmers.

So the answer is (d).

Here are some additional points to consider:

• Inclusive agricultural growth is important because it can help to reduce poverty, improve food security, and boost economic growth.
• There are a number of policies that can be used to promote inclusive agricultural growth, such as providing good price incentives to farmers, investing in agricultural research and development, and improving access to credit and markets for farmers.
• India has made some progress in promoting inclusive agricultural growth in recent years. However, there is still more that needs to be done.

By promoting inclusive agricultural growth, India can help to reduce poverty and improve the lives of millions of people.

S1: R is greater-than P as well as Q.

S2: S is not the largest one.

Among four numbers P, Q, R and S which one is the largest?

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Statements and the Question?

(a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.

(b) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.

(c) S1 and S2 together are sufficient to answer the Question, but neither S1 alone nor S2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.

(d) S1 and s2 together are not sufficient to answer the Question.

Answer: C

Given: S1: R is greater than P as well as Q S2: S is not the largest one. Question: Which one is the largest number? From S1, we know that R is the greatest among P, Q and R. But we cannot say whether S is the largest or not. From S2, we know that S is not the largest. But we cannot say whether R is the largest or not. So, neither S1 nor S2 alone is sufficient to answer the question. When we combine S1 and S2, we know that R is the greatest among P, Q and S. So, R is the answer.

29. Two Statements Si and S2 are given below followed by a Question:

S1: n is a prime number.

S2: n leaves a remainder of 1 when divided by 4.

If n is a unique natural number between 10 and 20, then what is n?

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Statements and the
Question?

(a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.

(b) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.

(c) S1 and S2 together are sufficient to answer the Question, but neither S1 alone nor S2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.

(d) S1 and S2 together are not sufficient to answer the Question.

Answer: D

Statement S1: n is a prime number.

There are four prime numbers between 10 and 20: 11, 13, 17, and 19.

Statement S2: n leaves a remainder of 1 when divided by 4.

This means that n is one more than a multiple of 4.

• 11/4 = 2 remainder 3
• 13/4 = 3 remainder 1
• 17/4 = 4 remainder 1
• 19/4 = 4 remainder 3

The numbers 11 and 17 both leave a remainder of 1 when divided by 4.

So, the statements S1 and S2 together do not uniquely identify the number n.

S1: Their product is 21.

S2: Their sum is 10.

Question:

What are the two numbers?

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Statements and the Question?
(a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.

(b) S2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.

(c) S1 and S2 together are sufficient to answer the Question, but neither S1 alone nor S2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.

(d) S1 and S2 together are not sufficient to answer the Question.

Answer: C

Given: S1: Their product is 21. S2: Their sum is 10. Question: What are the two numbers?

The possible pairs of numbers are (1, 21), (3, 7), and (-1, -21).

From S1, we know that the product of the two numbers is 21. But there are 3 pairs of numbers whose product is 21. So, S1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

From S2, we know that the sum of the two numbers is 10. But there are also 3 pairs of numbers whose sum is 10. So, S2 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

When we combine S1 and S2, we know that the product of the two numbers is 21 and their sum is 10. This means that the only possible pair of numbers is (3, 7). So, S1 and S2 together are sufficient to answer the question.

(a) South-East

(b) South-west

(c) North-East

(d) North-west

Answer: D

The man is facing North-West from the starting point.

The man starts from his house and walks 25 meters to the west. He then turns right and walks 50 meters to the south. He then turns left and walks 25 meters to the east.

The net displacement of the man is 25 meters to the east. Since the man's house faces east, he is now facing north-west.

Statements:

All numbers are divisible by 2.

All numbers are divisible by 3.

Conclusion-I

All numbers are divisible by 6.

Conclusion-Il

All numbers are divisible by 4.

Which of the above Conclusions logically follows/follow from the two given Statements?

(a) Only Conclusion-I

(b) Only Conclusion-II

(c) Neither Conclusion-I nor conclusion-II

(d) Both Conclusions-I and Conclusion-II

Answer: A

Only conclusion I follows.

All numbers divisible by 2 and 3 are also divisible by 6. But all numbers divisible by 2 may not be divisible by 4.

So, only conclusion I follows.

So the answer is (a).

Statements:

All cats are dogs.

All cats are black.

Conclusion-I:

All dogs are black.

Conclusion-II:

Some dogs are not black.

Which of the above Conclusions logically follows/follow from the two given Statements disregarding commonly known facts?

(a) Only Conclusion-I

(b) Only Conclusion-II

(c) Neither Conclusion-I nor Conclusion-II

(d) Both Conclusions-I and Conclusion-Il

Answer: C

Neither Conclusion I nor Conclusion II follows.

The statements say that all cats are dogs and all cats are black.

Conclusion I says that all dogs are black. This is not necessarily true because the statement only says that all cats are black, not all dogs.

Conclusion II says that some dogs are not black. This is also not necessarily true because the statement only says that all cats are black, not that all dogs are not black.

So, neither conclusion follows.

5 1 4 7 3 9 8 5 7 2 6 3 1 5

8 6 3 8 5 2 2 4 3 4 9 6

How many odd numbers are followed by the odd number in the above sequence?

(a) 5

(b) 6

(c) 7

(d) 8

Answer: B

Let's analyse the sequence to find how many odd numbers are followed by another odd number:

5 1 4 7 3 9 8 5 7 2 6 3 1 5 8 6 3 8 5 2 2 4 3 4 9 6

Count the occurrences of odd numbers followed by another odd number:

1. 5 1 (Odd, followed by Odd)
2. 7 3 (Odd, followed by Odd)
3. 9 8 (Odd, not followed by Odd)
4. 5 7 (Odd, not followed by Odd)
5. 3 1 (Odd, followed by Odd)
6. 1 5 (Odd, not followed by Odd)
7. 3 8 (Odd, not followed by Odd)
8. 5 3 (Odd, followed by Odd)
9. 3 4 (Odd, not followed by Odd)
10. 9 6 (Odd, not followed by Odd)

So, there are 6 odd numbers that are followed by another odd number in the given sequence.

(a) 40

(b) 41

(c) 42

(d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data

Answer: B

Let's analyse the information given:

1. A is 16th from the left end.
2. V is 18th from the right end.
3. Q is 11th from A towards the right.
4. Q is 3rd from V towards the right end.

Since Q is 11th from A towards the right and also 3rd from V towards the right, it means that A is located between Q and V in the row.

So, the arrangement can be represented as follows: (Q ... A ... V)

Now, to find the total number of boys in the row, we need to determine the positions of A, Q, and V relative to the left and right ends of the row.

A is 16th from the left end, and Q is 11th from A towards the right. So, Q's position from the left end would be 16 + 11 = 27th.

V is 18th from the right end, and Q is 3rd from V towards the right end. So, Q's position from the right end would be 18 - 3 = 15th.

Now, we have determined Q's position from both the left and right ends of the row. To find the total number of boys in the row, we add these positions and subtract 1 (since Q is being counted twice):

27 + 15 - 1 = 41

So, there are 41 boys in the row.

S1: C is younger than D, but older than A and B.

S2: D is the oldest.

S3: A is older than B.

Question:

Who among A, B, C and D is the youngest?

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above Statements and the Question?

(a) S1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question.

(b) S1 and S2 together are sufficient to answer the Question.

(c) S2 and S3 together are sufficient to answer the Question.

(d) S1 and S3 together are sufficient to answer the Question.

Answer: D

Given: S1: C is younger than D, but older than A and B.

S2: D is the oldest. S3: A is older than B.

Question: Who among A, B, C and D is the youngest?

From S1, we know that C is younger than D. From S2, we know that D is the oldest. From S3, we know that A is older than B.

So, the order of the persons is D > C > A > B.

So, the youngest is B.

(a) 5

(b) 11

(c) 12

(d) 13

Answer: C

Between 1 to 100, there are 12 integer numbers that have 4 as a digit but are not divisible by 4. Those numbers are, 14, 34, 41, 42, 43, 45, 46, 47, 49, 54, 74 and 94.

38. Let x, y be the volumes; m, n be the masses of two metallic cubes P and Q respectively. Each side of Q is two times that of P and mass of Q is two times that of P. Let u = m / x and V = n / y. which one or the following is correct?

(b) u = 2v

(c) v = u

(d) v = 4u

Answer: A

Given that x = side of cube P, y = side of cube Q and m = mass of cube P, n = mass of cube Q

Also given that side of cube Q is two times that of cube P and mass of cube Q is two times that of cube P i.e. y = 2x and n = 2m

 Hence, u = m/x and v = n/y

=> u = m/x and v = 2m/2x = m/x

i.e. u = v/4

(a) 25 years

(b) 30 years

(c) 35 years

(d) 45 years

Answer: C

Let T be the age of the teacher, and S be the age of each student.

According to the given information:

1. The average age of a teacher and three students is 20 years: (T + 3S) / 4 = 20
2. All three students are of the same age: S = S (let's call this common age "S")
3. The difference between the age of the teacher and each student is 20 years: T - S = 20

Now, let's solve this system of equations:

From equation (2), we have S = S.

From equation (3), we have T = S + 20.

Now, we can substitute these values into equation (1):

(T + 3S) / 4 = 20

(S + 20 + 3S) / 4 = 20

(4S + 20) / 4 = 20

4S + 20 = 80

4S = 80 - 20

4S = 60

S = 60 / 4

S = 15

Now that we have found the age of each student (S = 15), we can find the age of the teacher from equation (3):

T = S + 20 T = 15 + 20 T = 35

So, the age of the teacher is 35 years.

(a) Rs. 3, 60,000

(b) Rs. 3, 65,000

(c) Rs. 3, 70,000

(d) Rs. 3, 75,000

Answer: D

Let the CP be Rs. x.

Then, 80% of x = 3, 00, 000

=> x = (300000 * 100)/80 = Rs. 3, 75, 000

 

Directions for the following 6 (six) items:

Read the following five passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage-1

Spanish ships in the late 16th century first brought the potato tuber from South America to Europe whereby in the early 19th century, it bad become a reliable backup to cereal crops, particularly in the cold, rain-soaked soils of Ireland. The Irish were soon almost wholly dependent on the potato as their staple food. And they were planting primarily one prodigious variety, the ‘Lumper' potato, whose genetic frailty would be cruelly exposed by the fungus 'Phytophthora infestans’. In 1845, spores of the deadly fungus began spreading across the country, destroying nearly all the Lumpers in its path. The resulting famine killed or displaced millions.

41. Which one or the following statements best reflects the critical message or the passage?

(a) For introducing any foreign plant into a country, the soil and climate conditions of that country should be suitable.

(b) As a staple food of a country, tuber crops like potato cannot replace cereal crops.

(c) Some or the fungal infections or plants cannot be prevented or stopped from spreading across large areas.

(d) Relying on a homogeneous food source is not desirable.

Answer: D

The critical message in the passage is that relying on a homogeneous food source is not desirable. The Irish people were almost wholly dependent on the potato as their staple food, and this led to disaster when the potato crop failed due to a fungal infection.

So the answer is (d).

The other options are not correct because:

• Option (a): The passage does not say anything about the soil and climate conditions of Ireland being suitable for the potato.
• Option (b): The passage does not say that tuber crops like potato cannot replace cereal crops. In fact, the potato was a reliable backup to cereal crops in Ireland.
• Option (c): The passage does not say that some or the fungal infections or plants cannot be prevented or stopped from spreading across large areas. In fact, the passage says that the spores of the deadly fungus began spreading across Ireland, which suggests that it was not possible to prevent or stop the spread of the infection.

 

Passage-2

India is at once among the fastest growing global economies and home to the largest number of malnourished children in the world. There are regions where malnutrition is not the exception but the norm. And across the country, malnutrition is the cause of death for roughly half the 1-3 million children who die before their fifth birthday each year. Even those children who survive suffer permanently from the damage that has already been done to their bodies and minds from not getting enough of the right foods and nutrients. Around 44 million children under 5 are stunted. That makes it harder for them to learn in school and subsequently earn a living as adults. Their lifetime earnings potential is almost a quarter less than that or their healthy peers.

42. With reference to the above passage, which of the following is/are the most rational and practical implication/ Implications?

1. India’s Public Distribution System should be monitored by the Union Government.
2. Girls should be encouraged to delay marriage and first pregnancy.
3. Mothers should be encouraged to breastfeed their children immediately after birth.
4. The supply of safe drinking water and proper sanitation facilities to all should be ensured.
5. Authorities should ensure the vaccination as prescribed

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4  

(b) 2, 3, 4 and 5

(c) 1 only

(d) 3 and 5 only

Answer: B

The most rational and practical implications based on the passage are:

Girls should be encouraged to delay marriage and first pregnancy.

Mothers should be encouraged to breastfeed their children immediately after birth.

The supply of safe drinking water and proper sanitation facilities to all should be ensured.

Authorities should ensure the vaccination as prescribed

These implications are related to improving child nutrition, health, and overall well-being.

 

Passage—3

The pulse variety ‘Pusa Arhar 16’ has the potential to be grown in the paddy-growing of Punjab, Haryana and Uttar Pradesh and eventually in all of India. Its yield (about 2000 kg/hectare) will be significantly greater than those of the existing varieties and because its size will be uniform, it will be amenable to mechanical harvesting, an attractive feature for farmers in northern India who currently use this technology for paddy. Most important, Arhar straw, unlike paddy straw, is green arid can be ploughed back into the soil. In Paddy straw, the problem is the high silica content, which does not allow for easy decomposition. In the case of Arhar, the farmer, even after combine harvesting, just needs to run a rotovator to cut the leftover straw into pieces, which can be ploughed back and will decompose very fast. AU this is difficult with leftover paddy stalks that cannot be easily salvaged or ploughed back. Farmers, therefore, choose the easiest option of simply burning it.

43. Which of the following are the most rational inferences that can be made from the passage?

1. Farmers' income will be higher with pulse cultivation than with paddy cultivation.
2. Pulse cultivation causes less pollution as compared to paddy cultivation.
3. Pulse straw can be used to improve soil quality.
4. In the context of northern Indian agriculture, paddy straw has no usefulness.
5. Mechanized agriculture is the main cause for stubble burning.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 2, 3 and 5

(b) 1, 4 and 5

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1 and 4 only

Answer: C

The most rational inferences that can be made from the passage are:

1. Farmers' income will be higher with pulse cultivation than with paddy cultivation.

The passage states that the yield of the pulse variety ‘Pusa Arhar 16’ will be significantly greater than those of the existing varieties. This means that farmers will be able to earn more from growing pulses than from growing paddy.

2. Pulse cultivation causes less pollution as compared to paddy cultivation.

The passage states that paddy straw is difficult to decompose because of its high silica content. This means that when paddy straw is burnt, it releases harmful pollutants into the air. Pulse straw, on the other hand, can be easily decomposed and does not release harmful pollutants.

3. Pulse straw can be used to improve soil quality.

The passage states that pulse straw can be ploughed back into the soil. This will help to improve the soil quality by adding nutrients and organic matter.

4. In the context of northern Indian agriculture, paddy straw has no usefulness.

The passage states that paddy straw is difficult to decompose and does not release harmful pollutants. This means that it is of no use to farmers in northern India.

5. Mechanized agriculture is the main cause for stubble burning.

The passage states that farmers in northern India currently use mechanical harvesting for paddy. This means that they are left with a lot of leftover straw, which they burn. This is the main cause of stubble burning in northern India.

So the answer is (c).

The other options are not correct because:

• Option (a): While it is possible that farmers' income will be higher with pulse cultivation than with paddy cultivation, this is not explicitly stated in the passage.
• Option (b): While it is possible that pulse cultivation causes less pollution as compared to paddy cultivation, this is not explicitly stated in the passage.
• Option (d): While it is possible that paddy straw has no usefulness in the context of northern Indian agriculture, this is not explicitly stated in the passage.

 

Passage-4

In India, authorities always look to store the maximum amount of water in reservoirs during the monsoon season, which is then used for irrigation and generation of electricity during the summer months. It is an internationally accepted practice that the water level or a reservoir should be kept below a certain level before the onset of monsoon season. This is so that when monsoon rains come, there is space to store the excess rainwater and also so that water can be released in a regulated manner. But the authorities store the maximum amount of water in reservoirs even before the close of the monsoon, only to ensure greater electricity generation and irrigation.

44. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. High risks involved in holding maximum water in reservoirs are due to our over-dependence on hydro power projects.
2. Storage capacity of dams should not be fully used before or during monsoon season.
3. Role of dams in flood control is underestimated in India.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2-only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: D

Let's look at each assumption in detail:

• Assumption 1: High risks involved in holding maximum water in reservoirs are due to our over-dependence on hydropower projects.

The passage states that the authorities store the maximum amount of water in reservoirs even before the close of the monsoon, only to ensure greater electricity generation and irrigation. This clearly indicates that the authorities are over-dependent on hydropower projects. When the water level in a reservoir is high, there is a risk of flooding. This is because the water can overflow the dam and cause damage to property and lives. The over-dependence on hydropower projects increases the risk of flooding because it means that the authorities are more likely to store more water in reservoirs.

• Assumption 2: Storage capacity of dams should not be fully used before or during monsoon season.

This assumption is also valid. The passage states that the water level of a reservoir should be kept below a certain level before the onset of the monsoon season. This is because the reservoir needs to have space to store the excess rainwater during the monsoon. If the reservoir is already full, then the excess rainwater will have nowhere to go and will cause flooding.

• Assumption 3: Role of dams in flood control is underestimated in India.

This assumption is also valid. The passage states that the authorities in India do not follow the internationally accepted practice of keeping the water level of dams below a certain level before the monsoon season. This is because they are more interested in generating electricity and irrigating crops. This underestimation of the role of dams in flood control is a major reason why India is prone to floods.

So, all the three assumptions are valid.

 

Passage-5

Economic liberalization in India was shaped largely by the economic problems of the government than by the economic priorities of the people or by the long-term development objectives. Thus, there were limitations in conception and design which have been subsequently validated by experience. Jobless growth, persistent poverty and rising inequality have mounted as problems since economic liberalization began. And all these years later, four quiet crises confront the economy: agriculture infrastructure, industrialization and education as constraints on the country’s future prospects. These problems must be resolved if economic growth has to be sustained and transformed into meaningful development.

45. Which of the following is/are the most rational and logical Inference/ Inferences that can be made from the passage?

1. It is essential to rethink and redefine the economic role of the state in the quest for development.
2. India has not made effective implementation of its policies in social sectors nor made sufficient investments in them.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

The most rational and logical inferences that can be made from the passage are:

1. It is essential to rethink and redefine the economic role of the state in the quest for development.
2. India has not made effective implementation of its policies in social sectors nor made sufficient investments in them.

These inferences are supported by the information in the passage, which highlights the limitations in the conception and design of economic liberalization in India and the persisting problems of jobless growth, persistent poverty, and rising inequality. The passage suggests a need to address these issues and resolve problems in agriculture infrastructure, industrialization, and education for sustainable economic growth and meaningful development.

1. India's economy needs to be greatly integrated with global economy so as to create large number of jobs and to sustain its growth momentum.
2. Economic liberalization would cause large economic growth which would reduce poverty and create sufficient employment in the long run.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: D

Neither of the given assumptions is valid based on the information provided in the passage.

1. The passage does not explicitly mention the need for India's economy to be greatly integrated with the global economy to create jobs and sustain growth. It primarily discusses the limitations and problems associated with economic liberalization.
2. The passage highlights that economic liberalization has led to jobless growth, persistent poverty, and rising inequality. It does not suggest that economic liberalization would cause large economic growth that would reduce poverty and create sufficient employment in the long run.

1. Successive discounts or 10% and 20%, and then pay a service tax of 10%
2. Successive discounts of 20% and 10%, and then pay a service tax of 10%
3. Pay a service tax or 10% first, then successive discounts of 20% and 10%

Which one of the following is correct?

(a) 1 only is the best option for the customer.

(b) 2 only is the best option for the customer.

(c) 3 only is the best option for the customer.

(d) All the options are equally good for the customer.

Answer: D

Let's calculate the final price for each discount option:

Let the original price of the article be Rs. 100.

Successive discounts of 10% and 20%, and then pay a service tax of 10%:

• First discount: 10% of Rs. 100 = Rs. 10
• Price after first discount = Rs. 100 - Rs. 10 = Rs. 90
• Second discount: 20% of Rs. 90 = Rs. 18
• Price after second discount = Rs. 90 - Rs. 18 = Rs. 72
• Service tax of 10% on Rs. 72 = Rs. 7.20
• Final price = Rs. 72 + Rs. 7.20 = Rs. 79.20

Successive discounts of 20% and 10%, and then pay a service tax of 10%:

• First discount: 20% of Rs. 100 = Rs. 20
• Price after first discount = Rs. 100 - Rs. 20 = Rs. 80
• Second discount: 10% of Rs. 80 = Rs. 8
• Price after second discount = Rs. 80 - Rs. 8 = Rs. 72
• Service tax of 10% on Rs. 72 = Rs. 7.20
• Final price = Rs. 72 + Rs. 7.20 = Rs. 79.20

Pay a service tax of 10% first, then successive discounts of 20% and 10%:

• Service tax of 10% on Rs. 100 = Rs. 10
• Price after service tax = Rs. 100 + Rs. 10 = Rs. 110
• First discount: 20% of Rs. 110 = Rs. 22
• Price after first discount = Rs. 110 - Rs. 22 = Rs. 88
• Second discount: 10% of Rs. 88 = Rs. 8.80
• Final price = Rs. 88 - Rs. 8.80 = Rs. 79.20

All three options result in the same final price of Rs. 79.20. 

(a) 492

(b) 468

(c) 262

(d) 246

Answer: D

In GHI, G = 7, H = 8, I = 9

7 + 8 + 9 = 24.

Similarly, in DEF, D = 4, E = 5, F = 6

4 + 5 + 6 = 15

Hence, in ABC, A = 2, B = 3, C = 4

2 + 3 + 4 = 9

Correct the answer is 246.

49. What is the missing term in the following?

ACPQ : BESU:: MNGI: @

(a) NPJL

(b) NOJM

(c) NPIL

(d) NPJM

Answer: D

The first and third letters move one step forward. The second and fourth letters move one step backward. So, the missing term is NPJM.

 50. What is the largest number among the following?

(a) (1/2)^-6

(b) (1/4)^-3

(c) (1/3)^-4

(d) (1/6)^-2

Answer: C

To determine the largest number among the given options, let's evaluate each of them:

(a) (1/2)^(-6) = 2^6 = 64

(b) (1/4)^(-3) = 4^3 = 64

(c) (1/3)^(-4) = 3^4 = 81

(d) (1/6)^(-2) = 6^2 = 36

Out of these options, the largest number is 81

51. What is the greatest length x such that 3 ½ m and 8 ¾ m are integral multiples of x?

(a) 1 ½ m

(b) 1 1/3 m

(c) 1 ¼ m

(d) 1 ¾ m

Answer: D

To find the greatest length x that can be a common factor of 3 ½ m and 8 ¾ m, we need to determine the greatest common divisor (GCD) of the two lengths.

First, convert the mixed fractions to improper fractions: 3 ½ m = 7/2 m 8 ¾ m = 35/4 m

Now, find the GCD of 7/2 and 35/4:

GCD(7/2, 35/4)

To simplify this, multiply both fractions by 4 to get rid of the denominators:

GCD(7 * 2/2 * 4, 35/4 * 4/4) GCD(14/8, 140/4)

Now, simplify further:

GCD(7/4, 140/4)

Now, find the GCD of the numerators:

GCD(7, 140)

The GCD of 7 and 140 is 7.

So, the greatest length x is 7/4 m.

Now, convert 7/4 m back to a mixed fraction:

7/4 m = 1 ¾ m

For which period was the natural growth rate maximum?

(a) 1911 - 1921

(b) 1941 - 1951

(c) 1961 - 1971

(d) 1971 - 1981

Answer: D

The natural growth rate is calculated as the difference between the birth rate and the death rate. We will calculate the natural growth rate for each period and identify when it was maximum.

Natural Growth Rate = Birth Rate - Death Rate

Let's calculate the natural growth rate for each period:

1. 1911 - 1921: 48.1 - 35.5 = 12.6
2. 1921 - 1931: 46.4 - 36.3 = 10.1
3. 1931 - 1941: 45.2 - 31.2 = 14.0
4. 1941 - 1951: 39.9 - 27.4 = 12.5
5. 1951 - 1961: 41.7 - 22.8 = 18.9
6. 1961 - 1971: 41.1 - 18.9 = 22.2
7. 1971 - 1998: 37.1 - 14.8 = 22.3

From the calculations, we can see that the natural growth rate was maximum during the period 1971 - 1998.

(a) 13/11

(b) 14/11

(c) 127/99

(d) 137/99

Answer: B

The recurring decimal 1.272727... can be represented as 1 + 0.272727...

Let 0.272727... = x

Then, 10x = 1.272727... + x

9x = 1.272727...

x = 127/99

Therefore, 1.272727... = 1 + (27/99) = 14/11.

(a) 1012

(b) 1022

(c) 1122

(d) 1222

Answer: B

The least four-digit number is 1000.

The LCM of 3, 4, 5 and 6 is 60.

1000 divided by 60 gives a remainder of 40.

Hence, the least four-digit number when divided by 3, 4, 5 and 6 leaves a remainder 2 in each case is 1000 + (60 - 2) = 1022.

(a) 33 1/7%

(b) 34%

(c) 34 2/7%

(d) 35%

Answer: C

Let's say that the total adult population is 700.

Since married couples are equal, 40% of the males are married and 30% of the females are married.

Let's say that there are 300 males in the adult population.

40% of 300 = 120 males are married.

Let's say that there are 400 females in the adult population.

30% of 400 = 120 females are married.

Therefore, there are a total of 240 married adults in the population.

The percentage of married adult population is (240/700) * 100% = 34(2/7) %.

(a) 50

(b) 25

(c) 5

(d) 1

Answer: A

The remainders when dividing each of 51, 27, 35, 62, and 75 by 100 are 1, 7, 5, 2, and 5 respectively.

The product of these remainders is 1 * 7 * 5 * 2 * 5 = 350.

The remainder when dividing 350 by 100 is 50.

(a) Rs. 300

(b) Rs. 350

(c) Rs. 400

(d) Rs. 450

Answer: C

The shares of X, Y and Z are (1/2) * 2500 = 1250, (3/4) * 2500 = 1875 and (5/6) * 2500 = 2083.33 respectively.

The maximum share is 2083.33 and the minimum share is 1250.

The difference between the maximum and minimum shares is 2083.33 - 1250 = Rs. 833.33.

(a) For n= 0 only

(b) For any whole number n

(c) For any positive integer n only

(d) For any read number n

Answer: B

The sum of digits in the number (10n + 1) is 2.

• For n = 0, 10n + 1 = 1, and the sum of the digits is 1 + 1 = 2.
• For n = 1, 10n + 1 = 11, and the sum of the digits is 1 + 1 = 2.
• For n = 2, 10n + 1 = 101, and the sum of the digits is 1 + 0 + 1 = 2.
• ...

Therefore, the sum of the digits in the number (10n + 1) is 2 for any whole number n.

(a) It increases.

(b) It decreases.

(c) It remains the same.

(d) No conclusion can be drawn due to insufficient data.

Answer: C

Let's assume that the total number of students in each group is equal to the average weight.

Initially:

• Group A has one student with an average weight.
• Group B has two students with an average weight.

So, the total weight in group A is 1, and the total weight in group B is 2.

Now, when one student from group A and two students from group B are shifted to group C, group C will have:

• One student from group A (with an average weight).
• Two students from group B (with an average weight).

The total weight in group C is 1 (from group A) + 2 (from group B) = 3.

Since the total weight in each group remains the same (1 for A, 2 for B, and 3 for C), and the number of students in each group also remains the same, the average weight of the students of the class remains the same.

(a) 16

(b) 15

(c) 14

(d) 10

Answer: A

The five denominations are 50, 100, 200, 500 and 2000.

We need to find the number of different sums that can be formed with at least three denominations at a time.

We can take three denominations, four denominations, or all five denominations.

The number of different sums that can be formed with three denominations is 5C3 = 10.

The number of different sums that can be formed with four denominations is 5C4 = 5.

The number of different sums that can be formed with five denominations is 5C5 = 1.

Therefore, the total number of different sums is 10 + 5 + 1 = 16.

 

 Directions for the following 6 (six) items:

Read the following five passages and answer items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the Passages only.

Passage-1

Bank credit to the industrial sector has started shrinking. Its decline has been a serious concern as credit growth is essential to revive investment. The problem's Origins lie in the incomplete reforms of the last 25 years. An institutional change that should have followed the 1991 reforms should have been setting up of a resolution corporation for banks. In a market economy with booms and busts, banks should be allowed to be set up and to fail. Today, we cannot shut down banks because there is no proper system to shut them down. Weak loss-making banks continue to need more capital.

61. Which one of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

(a) Indian banking system is not able to help the country in its economic growth.

(b) Economic reforms that started in 1991 have not helped in improving the economy to expected levels.

(c) India lacks the institutional mechanism to deal with the failure of banks.

(d) Encouraging the foreign investments in our industrial sector is a good alternative to this sector's dependence on banks for credit.

Answer: C

The most logical and rational inference that can be made from the passage is that India lacks the institutional mechanism to deal with the failure of banks.

The passage states that the decline in bank credit to the industrial sector is a serious concern, and that this decline is due to the incomplete reforms of the last 25 years. One of the reforms that should have been implemented is the setting up of a resolution corporation for banks. This would allow weak loss-making banks to be shut down, which would help to improve the health of the banking system.

The passage also states that today, we cannot shut down banks because there is no proper system to do so. This means that weak loss-making banks continue to need more capital, which is a drain on the economy.

Therefore, the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the passage is that India lacks the institutional mechanism to deal with the failure of banks.

The other options are not supported by the passage. Option (a) is not supported because the passage does not state that the Indian banking system is not able to help the country in its economic growth. Option (b) is not supported because the passage does not state that the economic reforms that started in 1991 have not helped in improving the economy to expected levels. Option (d) is not supported because the passage does not state that encouraging foreign investments in the industrial sector is a good alternative to this sector's dependence on banks for credit.

 

Passage-2

India has tremendous potential for solar energy. We all realize that we have to stop burning fossil fuels to meet our energy needs. But certain renewable resources are still going through their cost Curves and learning curves to get the required amount of output. The Indian Government has strongly committed to its targets of reducing emissions by 33 percent by 2030, and towards this it has initiated a strong push towards a gas-based economy and has also invested heavily in renewable energy. However, business houses are wary of investing too heavily in renewable energy at a time when the technology is not yet ready.

62. Which one of the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the above passage?

(a) India's commitment to reduce emissions by 33% is unlikely to be achieved.

(b) India should import gas rather than invest in renewable resources.

(c) Getting renewable resources to market too soon may be costly.

(d) India should put in more efforts in the exploration of natural gas.

Answer: C

The most logical and rational inference that can be made from the passage is that getting renewable resources to market too soon may be costly.

The passage states that India has tremendous potential for solar energy, but that certain renewable resources are still going through their cost curves and learning curves to get the required amount of output. This means that it may be costly to invest in renewable energy at this time, as the technology is not yet ready to meet the country's energy needs.

The passage also states that business houses are wary of investing too heavily in renewable energy at this time. This is because they are concerned about the costs and risks involved.

Therefore, the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the passage is that getting renewable resources to market too soon may be costly.

The other options are not supported by the passage. Option (a) is not supported because the passage does not state that India's commitment to reduce emissions by 33% is unlikely to be achieved. Option (b) is not supported because the passage does not state that India should import gas rather than invest in renewable resources. Option (d) is not supported because the passage does not state that India should put in more efforts in the exploration of natural gas.

1. Governments often provide inefficient and costly subsidies for technologies that may not be ready in the near future.
2. India’s commitment of reducing emissions by 33% by 2030 shall be on the basis of gas-based economy.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: A

The first assumption is valid because it is a well-known fact that governments often provide subsidies for technologies that may not be ready in the near future. This is done in order to promote the development of these technologies and to make them more affordable.

The second assumption is not valid because the passage does not state that India's commitment of reducing emissions by 33% by 2030 shall be on the basis of a gas-based economy. In fact, the passage states that the Indian government has invested heavily in renewable energy, which suggests that the government is committed to reducing emissions through a variety of means, including renewable energy.

Therefore, the only valid assumption is the first one.

 

Passage-3

Genome editing is different from genome modification. Genome editing typically involves finding the part of a plant genome that could be changed to render it less vulnerable to disease, or resistant to certain herbicides, or to increase yields. Researchers use ‘molecular scissors’ to dissect the genome and repair it, Which is a process that occurs naturally when plants are under attack from diseases and can throw up new mutations that enable the plant to survive future attacks. This evolutionary process can effectively be speeded up now that it is possible to examine plant genomes in detail in laboratories, and create mechanisms through which the relevant genes can be altered very precisely.

64. With reference to the above passage, the following assumptions have been made:

1. Genome editing does not require the transfer of genes from one plant to another.
2. Through genome editing, the chosen genes can be altered precisely in a manner akin to the natural process that helps plants to adapt to the environmental factors.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: C

The first assumption is valid. Genome editing does not require the transfer of genes from one plant to another. Instead, it uses molecular scissors to cut and repair the DNA at a specific location.

The second assumption is also valid. Genome editing can be used to alter genes precisely in a manner that is similar to the natural process that helps plants to adapt to environmental factors. This is because the molecular scissors can be used to target specific genes and make precise changes to them.

Therefore, both assumptions are valid.

 

Passage-4

Many people understand the connection n solid waste management and health in terms of the consequences of unattended heaps of garbage which become home for flies and other Vermin. However, there is another aspect that is not well-understood, that is, what happens when unscientific solid waste management combines with poor drainage and dumping of untreated sewage into drains which are meant to carry storm water during rains. The result is choked drains which are full of stagnant water breeding mosquitoes, resulting in the spread of water-borne diseases.

65. In the context of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the eritical message of the passage?

(a) In India, the drainage networks are not separate for sewerage and storm water.

(b) Urban local bodies do not have enough resources and legislative authority to deal with the problems or waste management.

(c) Solid waste management should be integrated with the maintenance of drainage and sewerage networks.

(d) Bad management of solid waste and sewerage systems by our municipalities is the reason for drinking water shortages in our cities.

Answer: C

The critical message of the passage is that solid waste management should be integrated with the maintenance of drainage and sewerage networks.

The passage states that unscientific solid waste management combined with poor drainage and dumping of untreated sewage into drains can lead to choked drains which are full of stagnant water breeding mosquitoes, resulting in the spread of water-borne diseases.

This means that solid waste management and drainage and sewerage are closely linked, and that they should be managed together in order to prevent the spread of diseases.

Therefore, the statement that best reflects the critical message of the passage is (c).

The other statements are not supported by the passage.

Option (a) is not supported because the passage does not state that the drainage networks in India are not separate for sewerage and storm water.

Option (b) is not supported because the passage does not state that urban local bodies do not have enough resources and legislative authority to deal with the problems of waste management.

 Option (d) is not supported because the passage does not state that bad management of solid waste and sewerage systems by our municipalities is the reason for drinking water shortages in our cities.

 

Passage-5

In Part III of the constitution which assures people certain fundamental rights, Article 25 proclaims that “all persons are equally entitled to freedom of conscience and the right freely to profess, practice and propagate religion”. What people fail to notice is that this Proclamation is prefixed with the words “subject to public order, morality, health and to the other provisions of this Part”, Which set conditions precedent for the legal protection of religious practices of any Community. The closing words of this prefatory rider in Article 25 virtually constitute a subordination clause placing other fundamental rights mentioned in Part Ill over and above the right to religious freedom. Among those other fundamental rights is the rights to equality before law and equal protection of laws-assured at the outset and elaborated in later articles to mean, inter alia, that the State shall not deny equal protection of laws to any person or group of persons on the basis of religion alone.

66. What is the most logical inference from the above passage?

(a) State shall not interfere with the religious affairs of the Citizens.

(b) Religious freedom under the Constitution is open to State intervention

(c) Religious freedom of the citizens is not covered under fundamental rights.

(d) Religious practices of any Community are immune to State laws.

Answer: B

The most logical inference from the passage is that religious freedom under the Constitution is open to State intervention.

The passage states that the right to freedom of religion is subject to public order, morality, health and to the other provisions of Part III of the Constitution. This means that the State can intervene in religious matters if it is necessary to protect public order, morality, health or other fundamental rights.

For example, the State can ban religious practices that are harmful to public health, such as the practice of female genital mutilation. The State can also ban religious practices that are discriminatory, such as the practice of caste-based discrimination.

Therefore, the answer is (b).

The other options are not supported by the passage. Option (a) is not supported because the passage states that the State can intervene in religious matters in certain circumstances. Option (c) is not supported because the passage states that religious freedom is a fundamental right. Option (d) is not supported because the passage states that the State can intervene in religious matters if it is necessary to protect other fundamental rights.

(a) 24

(b) 18

(c) 12

(d) 6

Answer: D

There are 5 letters in the word ‘DELHI’.

The first and last letters of the word have to be D and I respectively.

This leaves 3 letters that have to be placed in the middle.

We can do this in 3! ways.

Therefore, the number of different 5-letter words that can be constructed is 3! = 6.

68. A bottle contains 20 litres of liquid A. 4 litres of liquid A is taken out of it d replaced by same quantity of liquid B. Again 4 litre of the mixture is taken out and replaced by same quantity of liquid B. What is the ratio of quantity of liquid A to that of liquid B in the final mixture?

(a) 4 : 1

(b) 5 : 1

(c) 16 : 9

(d) 17 : 8

Answer: C

Amount of liquid A left in the bottle after 2 operations = 20(1 - 4/20)2 = 16 litres

Amount of liquid B in the bottle after 2 operations = (4/20)2 + 2 = 9 litres Required ratio = 16: 9.

69. The average score of a batsman after his 50th innings was 46.4. After 60th innings, his average Score increases by 2.6. What was his average score in the last ten innings?

(a) 122

(b) 91

(c) 62

(d) 49

Answer: C

Total score of the batsman in 50 innings = 46.4 * 50 = 2320

Total score of the batsman in 60 innings = 49 * 60 = 2940

Total score of the batsman in the last 10 innings = 2940 - 2320 = 620

Average score of the batsman in the last 10 innings = 620/10 = 62

The answer is 62.

70. As a result of 25% hike in the price of rice per kg, a person is able to purchase 6 kg less rice for Rs. 1,200. What Was the Original price of rice per kg?

(a) Rs. 30

(b) Rs. 40

(c) Rs. 50

(d) Rs. 60

Answer: B

Let's denote the original price of rice per kg as "P" in rupees.

According to the given information, a 25% increase in the price of rice means the new price is 1.25P (25% of P is added to P).

Now, with this new price, the person can purchase 6 kg less rice for Rs. 1,200. So, we can set up the equation:

Original price (P) * Original quantity (Q) = New price (1.25P) * New quantity (Q - 6)

Using the given values:

P * Q = (1.25P) * (Q - 6)

Now, let's solve for P:

PQ = 1.25P(Q - 6)

Divide both sides by P:

Q = 1.25(Q - 6)

Now, expand and simplify:

Q = 1.25Q - 7.5

Subtract 1.25Q from both sides:

0.25Q = 7.5

Now, divide by 0.25 to find Q:

Q = 7.5 / 0.25 = 30

So, the original quantity of rice the person could purchase was 30 kg.

Now, let's find the original price per kg (P):

Original price (P) * Original quantity (30 kg) = Total cost (Rs. 1,200)

P * 30 = 1200

Now, solve for P:

P = 1200 / 30 = Rs. 40

So, the original price of rice per kg was Rs. 40

(a) 6

(b) 8

(c) 10

(d) 12

Answer: A

Person (A) can complete 20% of work in 1 day = 1/8

Person (B) can complete 25% of work in 1 day = 1/6

Person (A+B) can complete 20/100 + 25/100 work in 1 day = 7/40

Person (A+B) can complete 40/100 work in 40/7 * 1 day = 6.4 days = 6 days (approx)

(a) is less than v km/hr

(b) lies between v and 2v km/hr

(c) lies between 2v and 3v km/hr

(d) lies between 3v and 4v km/hr

Answer: B

To find the average speed for the entire journey, we can use the concept of harmonic mean. The harmonic mean of speeds for individual segments of the journey gives us the average speed for the entire journey.

Let's calculate the harmonic mean of the speeds:

1. Speed from X to Y: v km/hr
2. Speed from Y to X: 2v km/hr
3. Speed from X to Y: 3v km/hr
4. Speed from Y to X: 4v km/hr

Now, calculate the harmonic mean (H):

H = 4 / [(1/v) + (1/2v) + (1/3v) + (1/4v)]

H = 4 / [(4/4v + 2/4v + 1/4v + 1/4v)]

H = 4 / (8/4v)

H = 4 / (2/v)

H = 2v

So, the harmonic mean (average speed) for the entire journey is 2v km/hr, which corresponds to option (b): "lies between v and 2v km/hr."

1. The minimum number of points of intersection of a square and a circle is 2.
2. The maximum number of points of intersection of a square and a circle is 8.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: B

 

 

(a) 1 : 2

(b) 2 : 1

(c) 1 : 3

(d) 3 : 1

Answer: D

Let the speed of the man in still water be x kmph and let the speed of the current be y kmph.

Then, distance covered downstream in 1 hour = distance covered upstream in 2 hours.

or, x + y = 2(x - y) or, 3y = x or, x/y = 3/1

So the ratio of the speed in still water to the speed of current is 3: 1.

75. How many pairs of natural numbers are there such that the difference of whose squares is 63?

(a) 3

(b) 4

(c) 5

(d) 2

Answer: A

Given, the difference of whose squares is 63.

=> (x^2) - (y^2) = 63

=> (x+y)(x-y) = 63

 => 63 = 1 * 63, 3 * 21, 7 * 9

 Hence, there are 3 pairs of natural numbers. (1, 62), (3, 20), (7, 9)

(a) 2/3

(b) 3/4

(c) 4/5

(d) 5/6

Answer: D

When s is added to both numerator and denominator, the fraction changes to (2+s)/(3+s). The change in the value of the fraction is |(2+s)/(3+s) - 2/3|

= |(2s+3s) / (3s+9)|

= |5s/(3s+9)| The change in the value of the fraction is minimum when 5s is minimum. This is the case for 5/6.

(a) 2n

(b) 3n

(c) 2n + 4

(d) 3n + 1

Answer: D

I agree with your solution.

The logic is as follows:

• A number divisible by 3 is of the form 3k, where k is an integer.
• A number divisible by 6 is of the form 6m, where m is an integer.
• A number divisible by 4 is of the form 4n, where n is an integer.

If n is a number greater than 3 and divisible by 3 but not divisible by 6, then it must be of the form 3k, where k is an integer.

Therefore, 3n = 9k, which is also of the form 3k.

If we add 1 to 3n, the resulting number is 3k + 1, which is not divisible by 3 but can be divisible by 4.

For example, if n = 9, then 3n = 27 and 3n + 1 = 28, which is divisible by 4.

(b) 10

(c) 100

(d) 1000

Answer: C

Given that 1 litre of water weighs 1 kg.

1 litre = 1000 millilitres 1000 g of water = 1000 * 1000 mm^3 of water

0.1 g of water = (1000 * 1000)/1000 = 100 mm^3 of water

79. A vessel full of water weighs 4o kg. If it is one-third filled, its weight becomes 20 kg. What is the weight of the empty vessel?

(a) 10 kg

(b) 15 kg

(c) 20 kg

(d) 25 kg

Answer: A

Let the weight of the empty vessel be x kg.

The weight of the water in the full vessel = (40 - x) kg

When the vessel is one-third filled, the weight of the water in the vessel = (20 - x) kg (40 - x) = 3(20 - x)

 x = 10 kg

80. A frog tries to come out of a dried well 4.5 m deep with slippery walls. Every time the frog jumps 30 cm, slides down 15 cm. what is the number of jumps required for the frog to come out of the well?

(a) 28

(b) 29

(c) 30

(d) 31

Answer: B

The frog's net jump is 30 - 15 = 15 cm.

So, the frog needs to jump 450/15 = 30 times to come out of the well.

However, in the 30th jump, the frog will be out of the well and will not slide down.

Hence, the frog needs 29 jumps to come out of the well.