Directions for the following 4 (four) items:

Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage - 1

Researchers simulated street lighting on artificial grassland plots containing pea-aphids, sap-sucking insects, at night. These were exposed to two different types of light — a white light similar to newer commercial LED lights and an amber light similar to sodium street lamps. The low intensity amber light was shown to inhibit, rather than induce, flowering in a wild plant of the pea family which is a source of food for the pea-aphids in grasslands. The number of aphids was also significantly suppressed under the light treatment due to the limited amount of food available.

(a) Low intensity light has more adverse effect on the plants as compared to high intensity light

(b) Light pollution can have a permanent adverse impact on an ecosystem.

(c) White light is better for the flowering of plants as compared to the light of other colours.

(d) Proper intensity of light in an ecosystem is important not only for plants but for animals too.

Answer: b

Statement 2 is correct: Various adverse effects and their chain reaction which has permanent impact on ecosystem can be deduced from the passage.

 

Passage - 2

Approximately 80 percent of all flowering plant species are pollinated by animals, including birds and mammals, but the main pollinators are insects. Pollination is responsible for providing us with a wide variety of food, as well as many plant-derived medicines. At least one-third of the world’s agricultural crops depend upon pollination. Bees are the most dominant taxa when it comes to pollination and they are crucial to more than four hundred crops. Pollination is an essential service that is the result of intricate relationships between plants and animals, and the reduction or loss of either affects the survival of both. Effective pollination requires resources, such as refuges of pristine natural vegetation.

1.Sustainable production of India’s cereal food grains is impossible without the diversity of pollinating animals.

2. Monoculture of horticultural crops hampers the survival of insects.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid ?

(a) 1only

(b) 2,3 and 4 only

(c) 1and2only

(d) 3 and 4 only

Answer: d

Statement 4 is correct: From the following lines of the passage " Pollination is an essential service that is the result of an intricate relationship between plants and animals, and the reduction or loss of either affects the survival of both", it can be assumed that diversity in insects induces diversity of plants.

Hence Option (d) is correct.

 

Passage - 3

A study conducted on the impacts of climate change over the Cauvery basin of Tamil Nadu using regional climate models showed an increasing trend for maximum and minimum temperatures, and a decrease in the number of rainy days. These climatic shifts will have an impact on the hydrological

cycles in the region, lead to more run-off and less recharge, and affect the groundwater tables. Further, there has been an increase in the frequency of droughts in the State. This has driven farmers to increase dependency on groundwater resources to secure their Crops.

3.Which one of the following statements best reflects the crux of the passage given above ?

(a) Development of regional climate models helps in choosing  climate-smart agricultural practices.

(b) Heavy dependence on groundwater resources can be reduced by adopting dry-land cropping systems.

(c) Climate changes increase the criticality of water resources while simultaneously threatening it.

(d) Climate changes cause the farmers to adopt unsustainable livelihoods and risky coping strategies.

Answer: c

Statement 3 is correct: This is the main crux of the passage. Premise is based on climate change phenomenon while conclusion mentions droughts and increased groundwater abuse.

 

Passage - 4

Researchers were able to use stem cells to gauge the neurotoxic effects of the environmental pollutant Bisphenol A (BPA). They used a combination of biochemical and cell-based assays to examine the gene expression profile during the differentiation of mouse embryonic stem cells upon treatment with BPA, a compound known to cause heart diseases, diabetes, and developmental abnormalities in humans. They were able to detect and measure BPA toxicity towards the proper specification of primary germ layers, such as endoderm and ectoderm, and the establishment of neural progenitor cells.

4. On the basis of the passage given above, the following assumptions have been made :

1.BPA may alter embryonic development in vivo.

2. Biochemical and cell-based assays are useful in finding out treatments for pollution-induced diseases.

Which of the above assumptions are valid ?

(a) 1and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1and3 only

(d) 1,2 and 3

Answer: c

Statement 3 is correct: It can be assumed from the passage that Embryonic stem cells could serve as a model to evaluate the physiological effects of environmental pollutants.

Hence Option (c) is correct.

(a) 1

(b) 3

(c) 7

(d) 9

Answer: c

It’s given that: 32019 is divided by 10.

Now, 31 = 3

3² = 9

3³ = 27

3⁴ = 81

3⁵ = 243

3⁶ = 729

Since, the unit place of the power of 3 repeats after every 4 steps (i.e. it has a cyclicity of 4).

Now, on dividing 2019 by 4 we get a remainder of 3.

Hence, 32019 will have the same last digit as that of 33, i.e. 7.

(33)/10 = 27/10

Hence, the remainder will be 7.

 

(a) 1

(b) 6

(c) 7

(d) 9

Answer: b

Given: 3798125P369 is divisible by 7

Let’s express the given number in terms of triplets of digits, starting from the right, as follows.

(37) (981) (25P) (369)

Now, 369 – 25P + 981 – 37 = 1350 – 25P – 37 = 1313 – 25P

By dividing 1313 by 7 we get 4 as remainder.

25P in the above equation should be in between 250 to 259. Now, 252 and 259 are divisible by 7. So, the number must be 252 + 4 = 256. Hence, value of P = 6

Let’s double check it:

1313 – 256 = 1057

It is divisible by 7.

Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

 

(a) 21% May

(b) 20% May

(c) 19% May

(d) 18% May

Answer: b

Price of the diesel on nth day of the year = 69 + 0.15n

Price of the petrol on mth day of the year = 80 + 0.1m

Where m = 1 to 100. After which it remains constant.

∴ Price of the petrol on and after 100th day = 80 + 0.1 × 100 = 80 + 10 = Rs. 90

Now, total number of days till 30th April = 31 + 28 + 31 + 30 = 120 days

Let’s consider the options.

Option (a):

21st May means 120 + 21 = 141 days

∴ Price of the diesel = 69 + 0.15 × 141 = 90.15

Therefore, we can say that on 21st May 2021 price of these two fuels is not equal.

Option (b):

20th May means 120 + 20 = 140 days

∴ Price of the diesel = 69 + 0.15 × 140 = 90

Therefore, we can say that on 20th May 2021, price of these two fuels will be equal.

Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

 

(a) P=12+50n

(b) P=50+12n

(c) P=50(2)¹²ⁿ

(d) P=50(2) ^n/12

Answer: d

Population is getting doubled every 12 years, and population in the year 2021 is 50 animals.

So, after 12 years it will get doubled to 100 animals.

Now, let’s check the options, where n stands for the number of years.

Option (d):

P = 50 × 2n/12 = 50 × 212/12 = 50 × 2 = 100 animals.

For all other options, this value comes out to be way above 100.

Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

(a) 45%

(b) 40%

(c) 30%

(d) 20%

Answer: d

Let total number of students in the class be 100.

Indian students = 60% of 100 = 60

So, foreign students = 100 – 60 = 40 students

Total number of girls students = 50% of 100 = 50

According to the question,

Total number of Indian girl students = 30% of 60 = 18 students

So, foreign girl students = 50 – 18 = 32

As total foreign students = 40

So, foreign boy students = 40 – 32 = 8

So, percentage of boys among foreign students = (8/40) × 100 = 20%

Hence, option (d) is the correct answer.

 

Read all Conclusions and then decide which of the given Conclusion(s) logically follows/follow from the Statement, disregarding the commonly known facts.

Statement: Some radios are mobiles. All mobiles are computers. Some computers are watches.

Conclusion-I: Certainly some radios are watches.

Conclusion-II: Certainly some mobiles are watches.

Which one of the following is correct?

(a) Only Conclusion-I

(b) Only Conclusion-II

(c) Both Conclusions-I and Conclusion-II

(d) Neither Conclusion-I nor Conclusion-II

Answer: d

 

Directions for the following 4 (four) items:

Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Fig trees (genus Ficus) are considered sacred in India, East Asia and Africa and are common in agricultural and urban landscapes where other large trees are absent. In natural forests, fig trees provide food for wildlife when other resources are scarce and support a high density and diversity of frugivores (fruit-eating animals). If frugivorous birds and bats continue to visit fig trees located in sites with high human disturbance, sacred fig trees may promote frugivore Under microclimate, plenty of seedlings of other tree abundance. favourable species would grow around fig trees.

1. Fig trees can often be keystone species in natural forests.
2. Fig trees can grow where other large woody species cannot grow.
3. Sacred trees can have a role in biodiversity conservation.
4. Fig trees have a role in the seed dispersal of other tree species.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid ?

(a) 1and?2 only

(b) 3only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer: d

Statement 1 is valid assumption - The passage mentions fig trees providing food for wildlife species and supporting a density and diversity of frugivores where resources are scarce and absent in natural forests. Hence, negating this statement will render this above line false. so, it is valid assumption. 

Statement 2 is not a valid assumption - It can be an inference drawn from the passage that fig trees can grow where others are absent. However, negating this statement, also doesn't invalidate any statement made in the passage by the author. Hence, statement 2 is not a valid assumption.

Statement 3 is a valid assumption - The passage mentions biodiversity prevailing around fig trees in the form of frugivores, bats, animals, and humans living in co-existence. Hence, the third statement holds as a valid assumption.

Statement 4 is a valid assumption - The line provides a link between the lines "frugivorous birds and bats continue to visit..." and  "plenty of seedlings of other tree species". Hence, it is a valid assumption. 

 

At the heart of agroecology is the idea that agroecosystems should mimic the biodiversity levels and functioning of natural ecosystems. Such agricultural mimics, like their natural models, can be productive, pest-resistant, nutrient conserving, and resilient to shocks and stresses. In ecosystems there is no ‘waste’, nutrients are recycled indefinitely. Agroecology aims at closing nutrient loops, i.e., returning all nutrients that come out of the soil back to the soil such as through application of farmyard manure. It also harnesses natural processes to control pests and build soil fertility i.e., through intercropping. Agroecological practices include integrating trees with livestock and crops.

1. Cover crops
2. Fertigation
3. Hydroponics
4. Mixed farming
5. Polyculture
6. Vertical farming

Which of the above farming practices can be compatible with agroecology, as implied by the passage ?

(a) 1,4 and 5 only

(b) 2,3,4and5 only

(c) 1,2,3and6 only

(d) 4 and 6 only

Answer: a

implied by the passage" is same as "inferred". Agroecology focuses on natural solutions and mimicking nature. We know the following broad definitions of these words - 

Fertigation is a method of fertilizer application in which fertilizer is incorporated within the irrigation water by the drip system. This is not seen in nature.

Hydroponics is the technique of growing plants using a water-based nutrient solution rather than soil. Again, not mimicking nature.

Vertical farming is the agricultural process in which crops are grown on top of each other, rather than in traditional, horizontal rows

We can remove these artificial methods and remaining options are answer ie 1, 4 and 5

 

Passage - 3

Computers increasingly deal not just with abstract data like credit card details and databases, but also with the real world of physical obits and vulnerable human bodies. A modern car is a computer on wheels; an aeroplane is a computer on wings. The arrival of the “Internet of Things” will see computers baked into everything from

road signs and MRI scanners to prosthetics and insulin pumps. There is little evidence that these gadgets will be any more trustworthy than their desktop counterparts.

Hackers have already proved that they can take remote control of internet connected cars and pacemakers.

(a) Computers are not completely safe.

(b) Companies producing the software do not take cyber security seriously.

(c) Stringent data security laws are needed.

(d) The present trend of communication technologies will affect our lives in future

Answer: a

Option (a) is correct: Computers are not completely safe ie there is some vulnerability in them, can be deduced from the last two lines or the conclusion within the passage.

 

Passage - 4

A social and physical environment riddled with poverty, inequities, unhygienic and insanitary conditions generates the risk of infectious diseases. Hygiene has different levels: personal, domestic and community hygiene. There is no doubt that personal cleanliness brings down the rate of infectious diseases. But the entry of the market into this domain has created a false sense of security that gets conditioned and reinforced by the onslaught of advertisements. Experience in Western Europe shows that along with personal hygiene, general improvements in environmental conditions and components like clean water, sanitation and food security have brought infant/child death/infection rates considerably. The obsession with hand hygiene also brings in the persisting influence of the market on personal health, overriding or marginalizing the negative impact on ecology and the emergence of resistant germs

1. People who are obsessed with personal hygiene tend to ignore the community hygiene.
2. Emergence of multi-drug resistant germs can be prevented by personal cleanliness.
3. Entry of the market in the domain of hygiene increases the risk of infectious diseases.
4. Scientific and micro-level interventions are not sufficient to bring down the burden of infectious diseases.
5. It is community hygiene implemented through public health measures that is really effective in the battle against infectious diseases.

Which of the above assumptions are valid?

(a) l and 2 only

(b) 3 and 4 only

(c) 4, 5 only

(d) 1, 2 and 4 only

Answer: c

Passage's theme of unhygienic & insanitary physical environment leading to infectious diseases despite focus on personal hygiene gets validated or strengthened by statements 4 and 5 which can effectively serve as missing link between community hygiene/physical environment and reducing infectious diseases. 

 

Read all Conclusions and then decide which of the given Conclusion(s) logically follows/follow from the Statement, disregarding the commonly known facts.

Some cats are almirahs. Somealmirahs are chairs.

All chairs are tables.

Statement :

Conclusion-I: Certainly some almirahs are tables.

Conclusion-II : Some cats may not be chairs.

Which one of the following is correct?

(a) Only Conclusion-I

(b) Only Conclusion-II

(c) Both Conclusions-I and Conclusion-IT

(d) Neither Conclusion-I nor Conclusion-II

Answer: c

Conclusion-I : Since all chairs are tables, we can replace chairs in second statement with tables, now we have "some almirahs are tables". Hence, “Some almirahs are tables” is true.

Conclusion-II : using statement 1 & 2, we can ascertain that Some cats may not be chairs.

Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.

 

(a) 4

(b) 5

(c) 6

(d) 7

Answer: b

Given Height = 1.5 m = 1.5 × 100 cm = 150 cm

When ball hits the ground for the 1st time, its height = (4/5) × 150 = 120 cm

When ball hits the ground for the 2nd time, its height = (4/5) × 120 = 96 cm

When ball hits the ground for the 3rd time, its height = (4/5) × 96 = 76.8 cm

When ball hist the ground for the 4th time, its height = (4/5) × 76.8 = 61.44 cm

When ball hits the ground for the 5th time, its height = (4/5) × 61.44 = 49.15 cm

Since, it is given that if the previous height is less than 50 cm, the ball does not bounce further. So we can say that after the ball hits the ground for the 5th time, it doesn’t bounce back.

Hence, option (b) is the correct answer.

 

(a) 13

(b) 14

(c) 15

(d) 16

Answer: b

All the consonants of the english alphabet are:

B, C, D, F, G, H, J, K , L, M, N, P, Q, R, S, T, V, W, X, Y, Z

The consonants whose mirror images look like them are:

H, M, T, V, W, X and Y

Therefore, there are a total of 7 such consonants.

Hence, the number of consonants whose images do not look like them = 21 – 7 = 14.

 

(a) 20km

(b) 25km

(c) 30km

(d) 35km

Answer: b

(a) 6

(b) 7

(c) 8

(d) 9

Answer: d

Here we have to find out all the integers between 700 to 1000, in which sum of the digits is 10, e.g. 703 ⟶ 7 + 0 + 3 = 10.

Starting digits can be 7, 8 or 9 and require other digit sums to be 3, 2 and 1 respectively.

These numbers have been listed below:

703, 712, 721, 730, 802, 811, 820, 901 and 910.

Hence, there are 9 such integers in which the sum of the digits is 10.

 

(a) An angle less than 45° South of East

(b) An angle less than 45° North of East

(c) An angle more than 45° South of East

(d) An angle more than 45° North of East

Answer: b

Net distance travelled, 6 km towards North and 8 towards East. Since, Eastwards travel is more, angle will be less than 45 degrees (if distance is same on North and east, the angle of 45 degree is obtained).

Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage - 1

India faces a challenging immediate future in energy and climate policy-making. The sputtering fossil fuel to electricity and modern cooking fuel for the problems are multiple:

production capabilities; limited access poorest; rising fuel imports in an unstable global energy context; continued electricity pricing and governance challenges leading to its costly deficits or surplus supply; and not least, growing environmental contestation around land, water and air. But all is not bleak: growing energy efficiency programmes; integrated urbanization and transport policy discussions; inroads to enhancing energy access and security; and bold renewable energy initiatives, even if not fully conceptualized, suggest the promise of transformation.

(a)India’s energy decision-making process is more complex and interconnected

(b) India’s energy and climate policy is heavily tuned to sustainable development goals.

(c) India’s energy and climate actions are not compatible with its broader social, economic and environmental goals.

(d) India’s energy decision-making process is straightforward supply-oriented and ignores the demand side.

Answer: a

Option (a) is correct because the passage talks about the multiple problems and integrated urbanization and transport policy discussions with energy initiatives indicating clearly that decision-making process is ever more complex and interconnected.

 

Passage - 2

There are reports that some of the antibiotics sold in the market are fed to poultry and other livestock as growth promoters. Overusing these substances can create superbugs, pathogens that are resistant to multiple drugs and could be passed along humans. Mindful of that, some farming companies have stopped using the drugs to make chickens gain weight faster. Since Denmark banned antibiotic growth promoters in the 1990s, the major pork exporter says it is producing more pigs  and the animals get fewer diseases.

(a) People should avoid consuming the products of animal farming.

(b) Foods of animal origin should be replaced with foods of plant origin.

(c) Using antibiotics on animals should be banned.

(d) Antibiotics should only be used to treat diseases.

Answer: d

Option (d) is correct as author mentions antibiotics used as growth promoters and how some farming companies stopped using it to make chickens gain weight faster i.e. by corollary only use as a drug to treat diseases.

 

Passage - 3

Policy makers and media have placed the blame for skyrocketing food prices on a variety of factors, including high fuel prices, bad weather in key food producing countries, and the diversion of land to non-food production. Increased emphasis, however, has been placed on a surge in demand for food from the most populous emerging economies. It seems highly probable that mass consumption in these countries could be well poised to create a food crisis.

1. Oil producing countries are one of the reasons for high food prices.
2.  If there is a food crisis in the world in the near future, it will be in the emerging economies.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid ?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: d

Statement 1 is incorrect. The passage only mentions that high fuel prices as the reason. It fails the negation test also as Oil prices can rise despite involvement of Oil producing countries. Moreover, there are other fuels besides oil. So, it is not a valid assumption. 

Statement 2 is incorrect as the passage premise is about general food price hike and we can't have a specific assumption about emerging economies which weakens the conclusion rather than support it.  

 

Passage - 4

A central - message of modern development economics is the importance of income growth, by which is meant growth in Gross Domestic Product (GDP). In theory, rising GDP creates employment and investment opportunities. As incomes grow in a country where the level of GDP was once low, households, communities, and governments are increasingly able to set aside some funds for the production of things that make for a good life. Today GDP has assumed such a significant place in the development lexicon, that if someone mentions “economic growth”, we know they mean growth in GDP.

1. Rising GDP is essential for a country to be a developed country.
2. Rising GDP guarantees a reasonable distribution of income to all households.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both1and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: d

Both the statements have included speculative elements and do not support the premise of "Dominance of GDP in development economics" and reasons explaining this premise. Hence, can be ruled out as valid assumptions. 

Using negation test also, we can test both statements. Hence, option (d) is correct.

 

(a) Q and R

(b) Q and U

(c) Q and T

(d) T and U

Answer: c

 

(a) 0

(b) 1

(c) 3

(d) 6

Answer: a

On separating the Odd and the Even Series, we observe the following pattern:

ODD SERIES - 3, 7, 13, 21, 31, 43 - Gaps of 4,6,8,10,12 - series is proper

EVEN SERIES - 2, 4, 10, 18, 28, 40 - Gaps of 2,6,8,10,12 - replacement of first term by 0 will make it consistent, therefore option (a) is the correct answer.

 

7B	10A	3C
3C	9B	6A
10A	13C	?

 

(a) 9B

(b) 3A

(c) 3B

(d) 3C

Answer: c

From one row to another, the letters shift in a cyclic manner, i.e. BAC to CBA to ACB.

As far as the numbers are concerned, the pattern has been depicted below:

So, the required alpha-numeric term is 3B.

 

Sequence-I	8	4	6	15	52.5	236.25
Sequence-II:	5	A	B	C	D	E

What is the entry in the place of C for the Sequence-II?

(a)  2.5

(b) 5

(c) 9.375

(d) 32.8125

Answer: c

Sequence 1

8 × 0.5 = 4 

4 × 1.5 = 6 

6 × 2.5 = 15

15 × 3.5 = 52.5

52.5 × 4.5 = 236.25

Sequence 2

5 × 0.5 = 2.5 (A)

2.5 × 1.5 = 3.75 (B)

3.75 × 2.5 = 9.375 (C)

 

Which of the following is/are correct?

1. They take 5 hours to meet.
2. They meet midway between A and B. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1only

(b) 2only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: c

Distance covered by X in 5 hours = 7.5 km

Speed of Y in 1st hour = 1 km/hr

So, Distance covered by Y in 1st hour = 1 km

Similarly, Distance covered by Y in 2nd hour = 1.25 km

Distance covered by Y in 3rd hour = 1.5 km

Distance covered by Y in 4th hour = 1.75 km

Distance covered by Y in 5th hour = 2 km

So, the total distance covered by Y in 5 hours = 1 + 1.25 + 1.5 + 1.75 + 2 = 7.5 km

Hence, both the given statements are true.

 

(a) 2

(b) 3

(c) 4

(d) 5

Answer: b

Let total marks in each subject be 100. Total marks for all 6 subjects = 600

Overall marks scored = 60% of 600 = 360

Assuming the marks as per proportion and adding we get

5x + 6x + 7x + 8x + 9x + 10x = 360

=> 45x = 360 => x = 8

So, marks in the given 6 subjects -

5 × 8 = 40

6 × 8 = 48

7 × 8 = 56

8 × 8 = 64

9 × 8 = 72

10 × 8 = 80

Hence, in 3 subjects the student has scored less than 60% marks.

 

Directions for the following 4 (four) items : Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage - 1

With respect to what are called denominations of religion, if everyone is left to be a judge of his own religion, there is no such thing as religion that is wrong; but if they are to be a judge of each other’s religion, there is no such thing as a religion that is right, and therefore all the world is right or all the world is wrong in the matter of religion.

(a) No man can live without adhering to some religious denomination.

(b) It is the duty of everyone to propagate one’s religious denomination.

(c) Religious denominations tend to ignore the unity of man.

(d) Men do not understand their own religious denomination.

Answer: c

Option (c) is correct as this statement is a general statement (and not specific) & supports the conclusion. The idea that "Religious denominations tend to ignore the unity of man" links the premise and conclusion in a meaningful way.

 

Passage - 2

It is certain, that seditions, wars, and contempt or breach of the laws are not so much to be imputed to the wickedness of the subjects, as to the bad state of a dominion. For men are not born fit for citizenship, but must be made so. Besides, men’s natural passions are everywhere the same; and if wickedness more prevails, and more offences are committed in one commonwealth than in another, it is certain that the former has neither enough pursued the end of unity, nor framed its laws with sufficient forethought; and that, therefore, it has failed in making quite good its right as a commonwealth.

32. Which among the following is the most logical and rational inference that can be made from the passage given above?

(a) Seditions, wars and breach of the laws are inevitable in every dominion.

(b) It is not the people, but the sovereign who is responsible for all the problems of any dominion.

(c) That dominion is the best which pursues the aim of unity and has laws for good citizenship. (d) It is impossible for men to establish a good dominion.

Answer: c

Option (c) is correct. It is a valid inference. Validity means that we can derive an idea from the available evidence without speculation or exaggeration and it has been mentioned in the passage that if there are more crimes in dominion, it is due to laws which lack foresight in framing its laws, and the sovereign has not pursued unity. So, if the State has good laws & pursues aim of unity, it becomes the best State.

 

Passage -3

Inequality violates a basic democratic norm : the equal standing of citizens. Equality is a relation that obtains between persons in respect of some fundamental characteristic that they share in common. Equality is, morally speaking, a default principle. Therefore, persons should not be discriminated on grounds such as race, caste, gender, ethnicity, disability, or class. These features of human condition are morally irrelevant. The idea that one should treat persons with respect not only because some of these persons possess some special features or talent, for example skilled cricketers, gifted musicians, or literary giants, but because persons are human beings, is by now part of commonsense morality.

1. Equality is a prerequisite for people to participate in the multiple transactions of society from a position of confidence.
2. Occurrence of inequality is detrimental to the survival of democracy.
3. Equal standing of all citizens is an idea that cannot actually be realized even in a democracy. 4. Right to equality should be incorporated into our values and day-to-day political vocabulary.

Which of the above assumptions are valid?

 (a) 1and2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1and4only

(d) 3 and 4only

Answer: c

Broadly, the Premise is "Inequality violates equal standing of people" and Conclusion is "idea that one should treat persons with respect simply because they are humans is part of common morality". Therefore, Statement 1 is correct as it links the premise and conclusion as equality is prerequisite for people to participate in social transactions and interactions with confidence.

Statement 4 is correct: This statement can be a valid assumption as negating this suggestion doesn't invalidate our conclusion on morality.

Hence, Option (c) is correct. 

 

Passage - 4

Aristocratic government ruins itself by limiting too narrowly the circle within which power is confined; oligarchic government ruins itself by the incautious scramble for immediate wealth. But even democracy ruins itself by excess of democracy. Its basic principle is the equal right of all to hold office and determine public policy. This is, at first glance, a delightful arrangement; it becomes disastrous because the people are not properly equipped by education to select the best rulers and the wisest courses. The people have no understanding and only repeat what their rulers are pleased to tell them. Such a democracy is tyranny or autocracy. — Plato

(a) Human societies experiment with different forms of governments.

(b) Any form of government tends to deteriorate by excess of its basic principle.

(c) Education of all citizens ensures a perfect, functional and sustainable democracy.

(d) Having a government is a necessary evil because tyranny is inherent in any form of government.

Answer: b

Option (b) is correct because author explicitly mentions "even democracy ruins itself by excess of democracy" and previously described other forms of government through their excesses.  

The number of Indians who can speak English is

(a) 20

(b) 30

(c) 30orless

(d) 30 or more

Answer: d

Out of 120 persons, 80 are Indians and 40 are foreigners. - (i)

Out of 120 persons, 70 can speak English, and 50 cannot speak English. - (ii)

To maximise Indians who can speak English, we can assume all can speak English but the maximum possible number of Indians who can speak English is 70 because (ii) clearly states that only 70 can speak English. Hence, all the 70 English-speaking people are Indians.

To minimise number of Indians who can speak English, we assume all 40 Foreigners can speak English. Now, only 30 Indians (total 70 - 40 Foreigners) can speak English.

So, English-speaking Indians will be between 30 to 70.

 

Which of the following is/are correct? :

1. S is always divisible by 74.
2. Sis always divisible by 9.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

 (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both1and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: c

There are only three non-zero digits which are multiples of 3: 3, 6, and 9.

Since repetition of digits is not allowed, Using these 3 digits, we can make 3P2 or 3!, i.e. 6 three-digit numbers. 

369  396  639  693  936  963

So their sum, S = 369 + 396 + 639 + 693 + 936 + 963 = 3996

We can check that, S is divisible by both 74 and 9 using any division technique.

Consider the following statements:

1. The average score of Class-B will definitely decrease.
2. The average score of Class-A will definitely increase.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both l and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: a

In case of averages, addition of items below average decreases it and adding items above average increases it. Lowest score of Class-B Student is higher than highest score of Class-A student. Therefore, any movement of student from A to B will lead to decrease in average. Hence,  Statement 1 is correct.

However, we don't know if marks of the 4 students that have been moved from class A are above or below the average. If above average, will lead to decrease in the average marks of Class A. If they have marks close to 17 ie below average, it will lead to increase in the average marks of Class A. Therefore, we cannot determine whether "definite" or confirmed increase happens. Hence, Statement 2 is incorrect.

 

Statement-1: Priya is 4 ranks below Seema and is 31% from the bottom.

Statement-2 : Ena is 2 ranks above Seema and is 37" from the bottom.

Question: What is Seema’s rank from the top in the class of 40 students?

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Statements and the Question ?

 (a) Statement-1 alone is not sufficient to answer the Question

(b) Statement-2 alone is not sufficient to answer the Question

(c) Either Statement-1 Statement-2 alone is answer the Question

(d) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are required to answer the Question

Answer: c

Since, total number of students is given, From Statement 1, we get that Priya is 10th from Top (Rank from Top + Rank from Bottom = Total Positions + 1)

From Statement 2, we get that Ena is 4th from Top

Similarly, Seema’s rank from the top can be calculated using either of the statements. Hence, option (c) is correct.

 

Statement-1: Each of A and D is heavier than each of B, E and F, but none of them is the heaviest.

Statement-2: A is heavier than D, but is lighter than C.

Question: Who is the heaviest among A, B, C, D and E?

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Statements and the Question?

(a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question

(b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question

(c)Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are required to answer the Question

(d) Neither Statement-1 alone nor Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question

Answer: c (or) d

Statement 1 mentions A & D are not the heaviest (in the entire set). But among a smaller set, any of the two could be heavier than other and all others.

A > B, E & F               D > B, E & F

But relationship between A & D is unknown, ie anyone can be heavier. so, using statement 1 alone we cannot determine the heaviest item

Statement 2 gives C > A > D

So, using statement 2 alone also we cannot determine the heaviest item.

But, using both statements we can solve easily as the unknown relationship between A & D gets defined along with the missing letter C, so we have C > A > D > B, E & F. So, C is heaviest. 

So, both options (c) and (d) are correct.

 

(a) N

(b) T

(c) H

(d) I

Answer: b

The English alphabet is: ABCD EFGH IJKL MNOP QRST UVWX YZ

As per the question, the letters are arranged as follows:

DCBA HGFE LKJI PONM TSRQ XWVU ZY

13th letter in this arrangement is P.

And the 4th letter to its right is T.

 

Directions for the following 4 (four) items:

Read the following four passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage - 1

Nothing can exist in a natural state which can be called good or bad by common assent, since every man who is in a natural state consults only his own advantage, and determines what is good or bad according to his own fancy and insofar as he has regard for his own advantage alone, and holds himself responsible to no one save himself by any law; and therefore sin cannot be conceived in a natural state, but only in a civil state, which is decreed by common consent what is good or bad, and each one holds himself responsible to the state.

(a) The conceptions of what is right or wrong exist due to the formation of a state.

(b) Unless a ruling authority decides as to what is right or wrong, no man would be morally right.

(c) Man is inherently immoral and selfish in a natural state.

(d) The idea of what is right or wrong is necessary for the survival of human species.

Answer: a

Option (a) is correct: That the conceptions of what is right or wrong exist due to the formation of a state. is justified from the lines, "sin cannot be conceived in a natural state, but only a civil state, which is decreed by common consent what is good or bad, and each one holds himself responsible to the state."

 

Passage – 2

 In the immediate future, we will see the increasing of technologies — artificial intelligence and robotics, commodification many new 3D manufacturing, custom made biological and lethal weapons and driverless cars. This will pose The moral question of how a pharmaceutical products, autonomous conundrums. driverless car will decide between hitting a jaywalker and swerving and damaging the car has often been debated. The answer is both simple — save the human life — and complex. At which angle should the car swerve — just enough to save the jaywalker or more than enough? If the driverless car is in Dublin, who would take the decision? The Irish Government, or the car's original code writer in California, or a software programmer in Hyderabad to whom maintenance is outsourced? If different national jurisdictions have different fine print on prioritizing a human life, how will it affect insurance and investment decisions, including transnational ones?

1. Too much globalization is not in the best interests of any country.
2. Modern technologies are increasingly blurring the economic borders.
3. Innovation and capital have impinged on the domain of the State.
4. Public policy of every country should focus on developing its own supply chains.
5. Geopolitics will have to reconcile to many ambiguities and uncertainties.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1, 4 and 5 only

(b) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2, 3 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer: c

Statement 2 is correct: This is validated through the lines, "If the driverless car is in Dublin, who would make the decision? The Irish Government, or the car's original code writer in California, or a software programmer in Hyderabad to whom maintenance is outsourced? If different national jurisdictions have different fine print on prioritizing human life, how will it affect insurance and investment decisions, including transnational ones?"

Statement 3 is correct- The lines, "If the driverless car is in Dublin, who would make the decision? The Irish Government, or the car's original code writer in California, or a software programmer in Hyderabad to whom maintenance is outsourced? If different national jurisdictions have different fine print on prioritizing human life, how will it affect insurance and investment decisions, including transnational ones? ", point to the same.

Statement 5 is correct: The entire passages refers to and discusses these ambiguities and uncertainties, such as, "If different national jurisdictions have different fine print on prioritizing a human life, how will it affect insurance and investment decisions, including transnational ones? “moral questions like "how a driverless car will decide between hitting a jaywalker and swerving and damaging the car", at which angle should the car swerve- just enough to save the jaywalker or more than enough? Etc.

 

Passage - 3

The resolution of bankruptcy cases of Indian banks under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code should help bring non-performing assets (NPA) situation under some control. Despite the slow pace of resolutions by the National Company Law Tribunal, the Code can be helpful in cleaning up bank books in future credit cycles. The recapitalisation of public sector banks too can help increase the capital cushion of banks and induce them to lend more and boost economic activity. But bad debt resolution and recapitalisation are only a part of the solution as they, by themselves, can do very little to rein in reckless lending that has pushed the Indian banking system to its current sorry state. Unless there are systemic reforms that address the problem of unsustainable lending, future credit cycles will continue to stress the banking system.

(a) Lending by the banks should be closely monitored and regulated by the Central Government.

(b) Interest rates should be kept low so as to induce banks to lend more, promote credit growth and thereby boost economic activity.

(c) Merger of many banks into a few large banks alone is the long-term solution to make them viable and prevent their bad performance.

(d) Indian banking system requires structural reforms as a long-term solution for bad loans problem.

Answer: d

Option (d) is correct: The author clearly states the need for the same in the lines, "Unless there are systemic reforms that address the problem of unsustainable lending, future credit cycles will continue to stress the banking system."

 

Passage - 4

In India, the objective of macroeconomic policy is to enhance the economic welfare of the people, and any one wing of such macro policy, monetary or fiscal, cannot independently work without active support of another.

(a) The central bank cannot work independently of the Government.

(b) Government should regulate financial markets and institutions closely.

(c) Market economy is not compatible with the socialist policies of the Government.

(d) Financial sector reforms are required for enhancing the economic welfare of the people

Answer: a

Option (a) is correct: The passage states (read concludes) that "anyone wing of such macro policy, monetary or fiscal, cannot independently work without the active support of another." Now, the Central Bank deals with the monetary policy, while the government looks after the fiscal policy of the country. Therefore, the statement in option (a) flows as a natural corollary to the conclusion provided in the passage.

 

Player	Runs scored in the First Innings	Balls faced in the First Innings	Runs scored in the Second Innings	Balls faced in the Second Innings
A	61	99	14	76
B	05	12	50	85
C	15	75	20	50
D	13	55	12	50

Who is the fastest run scorer in the Test Match?

(a) A

(b) B

(c) C

(d) D

Answer: b

Fastest run scorer means the batsman that has the best runs scored : balls faced ratio.

For batsman A:

Runs scored: Balls faced = 75/175 = 0.43

For batsman B:

Runs scored: Balls faced = 55/97 = 0.57

For batsman C:

Runs scored: Balls faced = 35/125 = 0.28

For batsman D:

Runs scored: Balls faced = 25/105 = 0.24

The best ratio is that of batsman B.

 

Which one of the following statements is certainly correct ?

(a) All the villagers who have their own houses are literate.

(b) Some villagers under 25 years of age are literate.

(c) Only half of the villagers who cultivate paddy are literate.

(d) No villager under 25 years of age has his own house.

Answer: b

50% of the villagers have their own house.

20% of the villagers cultivate paddy.

33.33% of the villagers are literate.

80% of the villagers are under 25 years of age.

Now, as 80% of the villagers are under 25 years of age, and 33.33% of the villagers are literate, so at least some of the villagers under 25 years of age must be literate.

 

Statement-1: The last day of the month is a Wednesday.

Statement-2: The third Saturday of the month was the seventeenth day.

Question: What day is the fourteenth of the given month?

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the Statements and the Question?

(a) Statement-1 alone is sufficient to answer the Question

(b) Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question

(c) Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are required to answer the Question

(d) Neither Statement-1 alone nor Statement-2 alone is sufficient to answer the Question

Answer: b

Considering statement 1:

The last day of the month is a Wednesday. However, we do not know the number of days in the month, so we cannot find the day on the 14th of that month.

Hence, statement 1 alone is not sufficient to answer the question.

Considering statement 2:

17th of that month is the third Saturday. So, 14th of that month must be a Wednesday.

Hence, statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question.

(a) Sunday

(b) Monday

(c) Tuesday

(d) Saturday

Answer: a

We know that, 10th October 2021 is a Sunday.

So, 10th October 2022 will be Sunday + 1, i.e. Monday.

10th October 2023 will be Monday + 1, i.e. Tuesday.

10th October 2024 will be Tuesday + 2, i.e. Thursday. We added 2, as 2024 is a leap year.

10th October 2025 will be Thursday + 1, i.e. Friday.

10th October 2026 will be Friday + 1, i.e. Saturday.

10th October 2027 will be Saturday + 1, i.e. Sunday.

 

Statement-1: Some greens are blues.

Statement-2: Some blues are blacks.

Conclusion-1: Some greens are blacks.

Conclusion-2: No green is black.

Conclusion-3: All greens are blacks.

Conclusion-4: All blacks are greens.

Which one of the following is correct?

(a) Conclusion-1 and Conclusion-2 only

(b) Conclusion-2 and Conclusion-3 only

(c) Conclusion-3 and Conclusion-4 only

(d) Neither Conclusion 1 nor 2 nor 3 nor 4

Answer: d

The statements can be represented in the form of Venn diagrams, as follows:

Conclusion 1: Some greens are blacks - Not necessary. So, this conclusion is incorrect.

Conclusion 2: No green is black - Not necessary. So, this conclusion is incorrect.

Conclusion 3: All greens are blacks - Not necessary. So, this conclusion is incorrect.

Conclusion 4: All blacks are greens - Not necessary. So, this conclusion is incorrect.

So, none of the conclusions is correct.

2, 7, 22, 67, 202, X, 1822?

(a) 603

(b) 605

(c) 607

(d) 608

Answer: c

The given sequence is 2, 7, 22, 67, 202, X, 1822

The pattern being followed here is given below:

2 × 3 + 1 = 7

7 × 3 + 1 = 22

22 × 3 + 1 = 67

67 × 3 + 1 = 202

202 × 3 + 1 = 607

607 × 3 + 1 = 1822

 

Directions for the following 2 (two) items:

Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage - 1

The best universities like Harvard and MIT, despite having the luxury of having some truly excellent teachers on their payroll, are increasingly embracing the “flipped classroom” format, where students listen to video lectures at home, and spend class time applying their knowledge, solving problems, discussing examples, etc. Professors guide that discussion and fill in wherever necessary, explaining those bits that seem to be eluding the students and throwing in advanced ideas that happen to be topical. These universities have made their video lectures available free for anyone in the world. They are also encouraging colleges and universities all over the world to integrate these online courses into their own pedagogy, picking the pieces that are appropriate for their needs and building a package around them.

(a) Efficacy of universities would be better in online mode of conducting classroom tuition as compared to conventional method.

(b)Availability of higher education can be made easier and cheaper without diluting the content.

(c)We need invest much in infrastructure related to higher education and yet develop better human and social capital

(d) Private sector institutions in higher education as well as coaching institutes can take advantage of this opportunity and thrive well.

Answer: c

Option (c) is correct - The passage does emphasize restricting much expenditure on infrastructure. It focuses on supplementing the existing education infrastructure and creating a pool of knowledge along with other universities. Hence Option (c) is correct.

 

Passage - 2

Our cities are extremely vulnerable to climate change because of large concentrations of populations and poor infrastructure. Moreover, population densities are increasing in them but we have not yet developed the systems to address climate change impacts. Our cities contribute to 65 per cent of the GDP, but there are not enough facilities to cater to the needs of the people. It is important to address the issues of air quality, transport, etc., that are vital to identifying sustainable solutions. We need to involve citizens in city planning and create an ecosystem that meets the needs of the people.

(a) Our cities need to have well-defined administrative set-up with sufficient autonomy.

(b) Ever increasing population densities is a hindrance in our efforts to achieve sustainable development.

(c) To maintain and develop our cities we need to adopt sustainability related interventions.

(d) Public-Private Partnership mode of development is the viable long-term solution for the infrastructure and sustainability problems of India.

Answer: c

Option (c) is correct - The passage talks about the different problems for climate change caused due to increasing population density and infrastructure. Hence to solve the problem we need to adopt sustainable intervention. hence the option (c) is correct.

 

(a) A pencil costs more than a pen

(b) The price of a pencil is equal to that of a pen

(c) The price of a pen is two times the price of a pencil

(d) The price of a pen is three times the price of a pencil

Answer: c

Let the price of a pen and a pencil be Rs. a, and Rs. b respectively.

As per the question,

3a + 5b = 2a + 7b

Or a = 2b

So, price of a pen is twice as that of a pencil.

 

(a) 360

(b) 380

(c) 400

(d) 420

Answer: a

P scored 40 marks more than Q. So, marks of Q are q, then the marks of P will be q + 40.

Q scored 10% less marks than P. That is, marks of Q are 90% of the marks of P.

So, q = 90% of (q + 40)

Or 10q = 9q + 360

Or q = 360

So, Q scored 360 marks.

 

What is the total amount of money that X, Y and Z have?

(a) Rs. 420

(b) Rs. 360

(c) Rs. 300

(d) Rs. 270

Answer: b

Let the amount of money with X, Y and Z be x, y and z.

As per the question,

If Y gives me Rs. 40, then Y will have half of as much as Z.

That is, y – 40 = z/2

Or z = 2y - 80 …… (i)

If Z gives me Rs. 40, then three of us will have equal amount.

That is, x + 40 = y = z – 40

So, x = y – 40

And z = y + 40 …… (ii)

Using statements (i) and (ii), we get:

2y – 80 = y + 40

Or y = 120

So, x = y – 40 = 120 – 40 = 80

And z = y + 40 = 120 + 40 = 160

So, money with X, Y and Z will be Rs. 80, Rs. 120, and Rs. 160.

Total amount of money with X, Y and Z = x + y + z = 80 + 120 + 160 = Rs. 360

 

How is ‘CHEMISTRY’ written in that code language?

(a) DIDLHRSSX

(b) BIDNHTSSX

(c) BIDLHTSSX

(d) DGFLIRUQZ

Answer: b

In a code language 'MATHEMATICS' is written as 'LBSIDNZUHDR'.

The pattern used in the above coding is as follows:

M (13) à L (12), i.e. reduction of 1

A (1) à B (2), i.e. increase of 1

T (20) à S (19), i.e. reduction of 1

H (8) à I (9), i.e. increase of 1

And so on.

So, the code of CHEMISTRY will be: BIDNHTSSX

 

(a) At 7:00 hours

(b) Between 7:00 hours and 7:05 hours

(c) At 7:05 hours

(d) Between 7:05 hours and 7:10 hours

Answer: d

Angle of 180o means that they must be directly opposite to each other.

This will happen a little time after 7:05 hours.

 

What is the number of incorrect responses?

 (a) 9

(b) 13

(c) 27

(d) 43

Answer: a

Total number of questions are 90, and 5 marks are given for every correct answer.

So, maximum marks possible = 90 × 5 = 450

Now, 2 marks are deducted for every wrong answer. Essentially, it means that every incorrect answer will decrease the maximum score by 5 + 2 = 7 marks.

We know that, the student got 387 marks.

So, reduction from maximum marks = 450 – 387 = 63

Hence, the number of incorrect responses = 63/7 = 9

 

What is the arithmetic mean of all such possible sums ?

(a) 102

(b) 120

(c) 202

(d) 220

Answer: c

3P + 4P + PP + PP = RQ2

Or 30 + P + 40 + P + 10P + P + 10P + P = 100R + 10 Q + 2

Or 24P + 70 = 100R + 10 Q + 2

Or 20P + 70 + 4P = 100R + 10 Q + 2

The unit digit of the resultant is 2. It will be obtained when 4 is multiplied by P. So, P must be 3, or 8.

If P = 3, then:

24P + 70 = 24 × 3 + 70 = 72 + 70 = 142

If P = 8, then:

24P + 70 = 24 × 8 + 70 = 192 + 70 = 262

Arithmetic sum of 142 and 262 = (142 + 262)/2 = 202

 

(PQ) x 3=RQQ, where P, Q and R are different digits and R = 0.

What are the value of (P+ R) + Q?

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 5

(d) Can not be determined due to insufficient data

Answer: b

PQ × 3 = RQQ

Or (10P + Q) × 3 = 100R + 10Q + Q

Or 30P + 3Q = 100R + 11Q

Or 30P = 100R + 8Q

The last digit of 30P will be 0, as well as that of 100R. So, the last digit of 8Q must also be 0.

So, the value of Q must be 5.

Hence, 30P = 100R + 8Q = 100R + 40

Or 3P = 10R + 4

If R = 1, then P = 14/3 (not an integer)

If R = 2, then P = 24/3 = 8

If R = 3, then P = 34/3 (not an integer, and in double digits)

So, P = 8, Q = 5, and R = 2

That is, 85 × 3 = 255

So, (P + R)/Q = (8 + 2)/5 = 10/5 = 2.

 

Directions for the following 2 (two) items:

Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage - 1

Can a democracy avoid being a welfare state for long? Why cannot mass welfare be left entirely to the markets? There is a built-in tension between markets and democracy. Markets do not work on a one-person-one-vote principle as democracies do. What one gets out of the market place depends on one’s endowments, skills, purchasing power and the forces of demand and supply. Markets reward individual initiative and skill, and may also lift many from the bottom rungs of society, but some people never get the opportunity to develop skills that markets demand; they are simply too poor and too handicapped; or skill formation takes too long. By creating jobs, markets may be able to help even unskilled people, but capitalism has always witnessed bursts of unemployment.

1. Modern democracies rely on the market forces to enable them to be welfare states.
2. Markets ensure sufficient economic growth necessary for democracies to be effective.
3. Government programmes are needed for those left behind in economic growth.

Which of the above assumptions is/are valid?

(a) 1and 3 only

(b) 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: b

Statement 3 is correct: As the markets cannot ensure equity (as understood from the various lines of the passage), government programs are needed to complement the market outcomes, to help those who have not benefited by the "efficient distribution of resources" of the markets.

 

Passage – 2

In our schools; we teach our children all that is there to know about physics, maths and history and what-have-you. But do we teach them about the bitter caste divide that plagues the country, about the spectra of famine that stalks large parts of our land, about gender sensitivity, about the possibility of atheism as a choice, etc. ? Equally important, do we teach them to ask questions, or do we teach them only to passively receive our wisdom? From the suddenly, the adolescent finds himself/herself in the unfettered cocooned world of school, world of university. Here he/she is swept up in turmoil of ideas, influences and ideologies. For someone who has been discouraged from asking questions and forming an opinion, this transition can be painful.

(a) School curriculum is not compatible with the expectations of children and parents.

(b) Emphasis on academic achievements does give time for development of personality and skills.

(c)Preparing the children to be better citizens should be the responsibility of the education system.

(d)To be a better citizen, the present world order demands societal and life-coping skills in addition to academic content.

Answer: d

The passage explicitly mentions, both the present world order demands, as well as the societal and life-coping skills in addition to academic content. The present world order is mentioned in the lines, "But do we teach them about the bitter caste divide that plagues the country, about the specter of famine that stalks large parts of our land, about gender sensitivity, about the possibility of atheism as a choice, etc.?". Societal and life coping skills are discussed as "Equally important, do we teach them to ask questions, or do we teach them only to passively receive our wisdom?". Further, the author asserts "From the cocooned world of school", making the assertion made in the statement a valid one.

(a) 1

(b) 2

(c) 8

(d) 4

Answer: b

We have to arrange three points P, Q, and R on a straight line, such that PQ : QR = 3 : 5

Three points can be arranged in 3!, i.e. 6 ways.

However, the number of possible values of PQ : PR will be only 2, i.e. n = 2. They have been represented below.

 

 (a) 4

(b) 6

 (c) 8

(d) 12

Answer: b

Here’s a typical 8 × 8 chess board:

There are two diagonals, each having 8 squares.

On one diagonal, 6 consecutive squares can be chosen in 3 ways.

So, total number of ways of choosing 6 consecutive squares on the diagonals along a straight path = 3 + 3 = 6.

 

(a) bababa

(b) baabba

(c) bbaabb

(d) ababab

Answer: d

The given series is: _b_a_ba_b_abab_aab

The pattern being followed in the above series is: abb, then aab. Again abb, and then aab, and so on.

The blanks have been highlighted below:

a b b / a a b / a b b / a ab / ab b / aab

 

(a) 3

(b) 6

(c) 9

(d) 12

Answer: b

For the number to be greater than 30000, it must start with the digit 3. Also, as only 5 digits are given to us, all must be used.

3 _ _ _ _

The 4 blanks have to be filled by two 2’s and two 3’s.

Number of ways to do so = 4!/(2! 2!) = 6

These numbers are: 33322, 33232, 33223, 32332, 32323, and 32233.

 

1 The sum of 5 consecutive integers can be 100.

2 The product of three consecutive natural numbers can be equal to their sum.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: c

Considering statement 1:

Let the 5 consecutive numbers be x-2, x-1, x, x+1, x+2

Their sum = 5x = 100

Or x = 20

So, the numbers are 18, 19, 20, 21, and 22. Statement 1 is correct.

Considering statement 2:

We know that, 1 + 2 + 3 = 6

And 1 × 2 × 3 = 6

So, Statement 2 is correct too.

 

(a) 1000

(b) 10000

(c) 100000

(d) 1000000

Answer: d

Volume of the cube = Side × Side × Side = 1 × 1 × 1 = 1 cubic meter

Now, 1 cubic meter = 1000000 millilitres.

 

In how many distinct possible combinations can the handshakes take place?

(a) 3

(b) 4

(c) 65

(d) 6

Answer: b

Method I:

We just need to choose 3 persons out of 6, such that no two of them are together.

Number of ways to choose 3 out of 6 people, without any constraints = 6C3 = (6 × 5 × 4)/(3 × 2 × 1) = 20

Number of ways to choose 3 out of 6 people, such that all of them are together = 4

Number of ways to choose 3 out of 6 people, such that two of them are together = 3 + 2 + 2 + 2 + 3 = 12

So, required answer = 20 – (4 + 12) = 4

Method II:

Let the six individuals be numbered 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6.

So, another person can shake hands with:

1, 3, 5

1, 4, 6

1, 3, 6

2, 4, 6

Hence, he can shake hands in 4 ways.

 

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 (a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: a

Ratio of distribution of money among A, B and C is p : q : r.

Considering statement 1:

If p > (q + r), then p is definitely the largest number.

So, A must have got the maximum share. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

Considering statement 2:

If r < (p + q), then r may or may not be the smallest number.

For example, 5 < (2 + 4)

So, C may or may not have got the minimum share. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

 

Read the following two passages and answer the items that follow. Your answers to these items should be based on the passages only.

Passage - 1

Medieval merchants risked the hazards of the Silk Road to reach the markets of China; Portuguese caravels in the 15% century sailed beyond the bounds of the known world, searching less for knowledge than for gold and spices. Historically, the driver for opening frontiers has always been the search for resources. Science and curiosity are weaker drivers. The only way to open up space, whether the space of solar system or interstellar space is to create an economic engine and that engine is resource extraction.

(a) Wealth generation is the primary motive for any human endeavor.

(b) Space, whether space in solar system or interstellar space, will govern our future economy.

(c) Human beings are motivated to explore new frontiers principally by economic considerations.

(d) Wealth generation is based on the risk-taking behavior of some men

Answer: c

The passage talks about the economic consideration as principal for exploration like exploration for gold, spice, and Chinese market.

 

Passage - 2

ERS most people would agree that telling deliberate lies is wrong, except perhaps in certain special situations where more harm will be done by telling the truth. Even the most truthful people probably tell a good many more lies that might be regarded as semantic lies; their use of words contains some measure of falsehood, more or less deliberate.”

(a) agreement about telling lies.

(b) disagreement about telling lies.

(c) disagreement about telling the truth.

(d) disagreement about the harm in telling the truth.

Answer: a

The question is asking for ideas from the first part of the passage. But the first part is missing, and the given passage is a continuation of the first part. Hence, we need to imply the idea. From the passage, we can imply that the first part is discussing the idea of agreement in telling lies while in the second part they disagree in truth in every situation. Hence this option is correct.

 

 (a) Mixing up the true and false

(b) Intentional mixing up of truth with the false

(c) Falsification of facts

(d) Complete concealment of truth

Answer: b

 

 (a) 54°

(b) 96°

(c) 108°

 (d) 120°

Answer: c

Percentage of Other Dry Elements in the human body = 100 – (Percentage of Proteins + Percentage of Water) = 100 – (16 + 70) = 100 – 86 = 14%

The following pie-chart represents the scenario described in the question.

So, percentage of both Proteins and Other Dry Elements, i.e. p = 16 + 14 = 30%

In a pie diagram, 100% corresponds to 360°

So, 30% will correspond to (360/100) × 30 = 108°

That is, the central angle of the sector representing p on the pie diagram = 108°

 

(a) Monday

(b) Wednesday

 (c) Thursday

(d) Sunday

Answer: b

Joseph visits the club every 5th day.

Harsh visits the club every 24th day.

Sumit visits the club every 9th day.

The next time they will meet again will be the LCM of these time-periods.

LCM (5, 24, 9) = 360

So, all the three will meet 360 days after Sunday. Now, we need not count 360 days. Rather we will use the concept of odd days.

Odd number of days in 360 = Remainder when 360 is divided by 7 = 3

So, they will meet again on Sunday + 3 = Wednesday.

Consider the following statements:

1. The sum of the two digits of the number can be determined only if the product of the two digits is known.
2. The difference between the two digits of the number can be determined.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

 (a) 1only

(b) 2only

(c) Both1and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: b

Let the number be xy, i.e. 10x + y

The number obtained on interchanging the positions of the digits will be yx, i.e. 10y + x

Difference between these two numbers = (10x + y) – (10y + x) = 9x – 9y = 9 (x – y) = 54

So, 9 (x – y) = 54

Or x – y = 6

So, statement 2 is correct.

The possible pair of such two-digit numbers are: (17, 71), (28, 82), (39, 93)

Respective product of their digits are: 1 × 7 = 7; 2 × 8 = 16; 3 × 9 = 27

So, we can determine the exact number-pair and hence the sum of their digits, if we know another relationship between the two numbers i.e. a second equation. This can either be product of their digits or Ratio of the two digits, ie. x/y.

For example, if we know x/y is 1/7 we know that the sum would be 8

So, statement 1 is not correct.

 

1. 8 years ago, the age of X was five times the age of Y.
2. After 14 years, the age of X would be two times the age of Y.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: b

Present age of X is 42 years. Let the present age of Y be y years.

As per the question, 42 – y = 2y

Or 3y = 42

Or y = 14 years

So, at present the ages of X and Y are 42 and 14 respectively.

Statement 1:

Eight years ago, the ages of X and Y must have been 34 and 6 respectively.

We can see that the age of X was not 5 times the age of Y. Hence, this statement is incorrect.

Statement 2:

After fourteen years, the ages of X and Y will be 56 and 28 respectively.

We can see that the age of X would indeed be two times the age of Y. Hence, this statement is correct.

(a) 0%

(b) 5% increase

(c) 5% decrease

(d) Cannot be determined due to insufficient data

Answer: a

Let the initial price be Rs. 100

New price on decreasing the original price by 20% = 100 – 20% of 100 = 100 – 20 = Rs. 80.

Now, the final price on increasing the previous price by 25% = 80 + 25% of 80 = 80 + 20 = Rs. 100.

So, there is no net change in price.

 

(a) 15713

(b) 15723

(c) 15783

(d) 15873

Answer: d

Multiply the numbers given in the options by 7, and see which multiplication gives you a resultant comprising of all 1’s.

Checking option (d):

15873 × 7 = 111111

 

(a) 24

(b) 21

(c) 18

(d) 15

Answer: d

Initial units of work = 8 units

Out of which, 7 units are completed in 21 days.

So, the number of days that man takes in completing one unit of work = 21/7 = 3 days

Now, amount of new work = 8 + 50% of 8 = 8 + 4 = 12 units

Work remaining = 12 – 7 = 5 units

So, the time taken by the man to complete the rest of the work = 5 × 3 = 15 days.