Answer (c)

An alternative powertrain vehicle typically refers to a vehicle that uses a propulsion system other than the conventional internal combustion engine (ICE) running on gasoline or diesel. This includes vehicles powered by electricity, hydrogen, or hybrid systems that significantly reduce or eliminate reliance on fossil fuels.

Now, let’s evaluate each type:

Full Battery Electric Vehicles (BEVs):

These vehicles run entirely on electricity stored in batteries and use electric motors for propulsion. They do not have an internal combustion engine and produce zero tailpipe emissions.

Since they use an electric powertrain instead of a conventional ICE, BEVs are considered alternative powertrain vehicles.

Hydrogen Fuel Cell Vehicles (FCVs):

These vehicles use hydrogen gas to power a fuel cell, which generates electricity to drive an electric motor. They emit only water vapor and heat, with no tailpipe emissions of pollutants or greenhouse gases.

Hydrogen fuel cells replace the conventional ICE, making FCVs an alternative to fossil fuel-based vehicles. FCVs are considered alternative powertrain vehicles.

Fuel Cell Electric Hybrid Vehicles (FCEHVs):

These vehicles combine a fuel cell (which generates electricity from hydrogen) with a battery system, allowing the vehicle to operate using both the fuel cell and stored electrical energy. The electric motor drives the vehicle, similar to BEVs and FCVs.

Like FCVs, they do not rely on a conventional ICE and instead use a combination of fuel cell and electric power. FCEHVs are also considered alternative powertrain vehicles.

Evaluation:

All three types—Full Battery Electric Vehicles, Hydrogen Fuel Cell Vehicles, and Fuel Cell Electric Hybrid Vehicles—use powertrains that are alternatives to the conventional internal combustion engine. They rely on electricity and/or hydrogen rather than gasoline or diesel, fitting the definition of alternative powertrain vehicles

Answer (d)

Statement I: All types of UAVs can do vertical landing

Analysis: UAVs, commonly known as drones, come in various types, including fixed-wing, rotary-wing (e.g., quadcopters), and hybrid designs (e.g., VTOL—Vertical Take-Off and Landing).

Rotary-wing UAVs (like quadcopters) and VTOL hybrids can perform vertical landing due to their design, which allows them to hover and descend straight down.

Fixed-wing UAVs, however, resemble airplanes and typically require a runway or a similar mechanism (e.g., net recovery, catapult launch) for takeoff and landing. They cannot perform a vertical landing unless specifically designed with VTOL capabilities, which not all fixed-wing UAVs have.

Conclusion: Since not all UAVs (e.g., most fixed-wing UAVs) can perform vertical landing, this statement is incorrect.

Statement II: All types of UAVs can do automated hovering

Analysis: Automated hovering refers to a UAV’s ability to maintain a stable position in the air without manual control, typically using sensors and onboard systems like GPS, accelerometers, and gyroscopes.

Rotary-wing UAVs (e.g., quadcopters, hexacopters) are designed for hovering and can do so automatically with the right software and sensors.

Hybrid VTOL UAVs can also hover when operating in their rotary-wing mode.

Fixed-wing UAVs, however, are designed for forward flight and cannot hover. They need to maintain forward motion to generate lift, similar to an airplane. While some advanced fixed-wing UAVs might have limited hovering capabilities if they are hybrids, this is not a universal feature of all fixed-wing UAVs.

Conclusion: Since fixed-wing UAVs generally cannot hover, this statement is incorrect

Statement III: All types of UAVs can use battery only as a source of power supply

Analysis: UAVs can be powered by various sources, including batteries, internal combustion engines (e.g., gasoline or jet fuel), hydrogen fuel cells, or hybrid systems.

Small consumer drones (e.g., DJI Mavic series) and many rotary-wing UAVs typically use batteries as their sole power source due to their simplicity and lightweight design.

Fixed-wing UAVs and larger military drones (e.g., MQ-9 Reaper) often use internal combustion engines or jet engines for longer endurance and range, as batteries alone may not provide sufficient energy for extended missions. For example, the General Atomics MQ-9 Reaper uses a turboprop engine, not a battery.

Hydrogen fuel cell UAVs (e.g., some experimental models by HES Energy Systems) use hydrogen as a power source, not batteries alone, to achieve longer flight times.

While many UAVs can use batteries, the statement claims that all types can use only batteries, which is not true given the diversity of power sources (fuel cells, gasoline engines, etc.).

Conclusion: Since not all UAVs rely solely on batteries (e.g., fuel-powered military drones or hydrogen fuel cell UAVs), this statement is incorrect

  Statement I: Incorrect (not all UAVs can do vertical landing).

  Statement II: Incorrect (not all UAVs can do automated hovering).

  Statement III: Incorrect (not all UAVs use battery only as a power source).

  Number of correct statements: None

Answer (c)

EV batteries, particularly those used in electric vehicles, are predominantly lithium-ion batteries due to their high energy density and efficiency. A lithium-ion battery consists of several key components: the cathode, anode, electrolyte, and separator. The cathode and anode are the electrodes where the electrochemical reactions occur, and their materials are critical to the battery's performance.

Let’s evaluate each element in the context of the cathode:

Cobalt:

Cobalt is a common material in lithium-ion battery cathodes, especially in chemistries like Lithium Nickel Manganese Cobalt Oxide (NMC) and Lithium Cobalt Oxide (LCO). Cobalt improves the stability and energy density of the cathode, though its use is being reduced in newer chemistries (e.g., high-nickel NMC or cobalt-free options like LFP—Lithium Iron Phosphate) due to cost, ethical concerns (e.g., mining issues in the Democratic Republic of Congo), and supply chain constraints.

Despite these trends, cobalt is still commonly used in EV battery cathodes, particularly in high-performance vehicles as of 2025.

Conclusion: Cobalt is usually part of the cathode.

Graphite:

Graphite is the standard material for the anode in lithium-ion batteries, not the cathode. It stores lithium ions during charging and releases them during discharge.

The cathode, however, typically uses lithium-based compounds (e.g., NMC, LCO, LFP) that do not include graphite. There are experimental cathode materials, but graphite is not a standard component of EV battery cathodes.

Conclusion: Graphite is not usually part of the cathode; it’s an anode material.

Lithium:

Lithium is a critical element in lithium-ion battery cathodes. It forms the basis of cathode chemistries like Lithium Nickel Manganese Cobalt Oxide (NMC), Lithium Iron Phosphate (LFP), and Lithium Cobalt Oxide (LCO). Lithium ions move between the cathode and anode during charge and discharge cycles, making lithium an essential component of the cathode material.

Conclusion: Lithium is always part of the cathode in lithium-ion EV batteries.

Nickel:

Nickel is widely used in EV battery cathodes, particularly in NMC (Nickel Manganese Cobalt) and NCA (Nickel Cobalt Aluminum) chemistries, which are common in high-performance EVs (e.g., Tesla vehicles). Nickel increases the energy density of the cathode, allowing for longer driving ranges.

While some cathode chemistries, like LFP (Lithium Iron Phosphate), do not use nickel, NMC and NCA are dominant in many EV applications as of 2025, especially for passenger vehicles requiring high energy density.

Conclusion: Nickel is usually part of the cathode in many EV batteries, though not in all chemistries.

Evaluation of “Usually”

The question asks how many of these elements usually make up battery cathodes. In the context of EV batteries (lithium-ion), the cathode typically includes:

Lithium: Always present in lithium-ion battery cathodes.

Cobalt: Present in many common chemistries (e.g., NMC, LCO), though its use is decreasing in some newer batteries. Still, as of 2025, it’s common enough to be considered “usual.”

Nickel: Present in dominant chemistries like NMC and NCA, which are widely used in EVs for their high energy density. While LFP (nickel-free) is growing in popularity (e.g., in cost-sensitive markets like China or for entry-level EVs), NMC/NCA remains prevalent in many EV models globally. Nickel can be considered “usual.”

Graphite: Not part of the cathode; it’s typically used in the anode.

Thus, the elements that usually make up the cathode are Cobalt, Lithium, and Nickel.

Answer (c)

I. Cigarette butts - Yes, contain plastic. The filters in cigarettes are made of cellulose acetate, which is a type of plastic polymer.

II. Eyeglass lenses - Yes, most modern eyeglass lenses contain plastic. While some are still made of glass, the majority today are made from plastic polymers like polycarbonate, CR-39 (a plastic resin), or high-index plastics.

III. Car tyres - Yes, contain plastic. Modern car tires are made from synthetic rubber (which is a type of plastic polymer) along with natural rubber, steel belts, and other materials.

The answer is (c) All the three

Answer (c)

Coal gasification is a process that converts coal into syngas (a mixture of hydrogen, carbon monoxide, and other gases), which can then be used to produce various chemicals, including:

Ethanol (I): Syngas can be converted into ethanol through catalytic processes like the Fischer-Tropsch synthesis or fermentation using microorganisms.

Nitroglycerine (II): Glycerol (a key precursor to nitroglycerine) can be synthesized from syngas-derived methanol or other intermediates.

Urea (III): Syngas-derived ammonia (via the Haber process) reacts with carbon dioxide to produce urea.

Answer (b)

CL-20, HMX, and LLM-105 are all high-performance explosives used in military applications:

CL-20 (Hexanitrohexaazaisowurtzitane): One of the most powerful non-nuclear explosives, used in advanced munitions.

HMX (High Melting Explosive): A powerful explosive used in nuclear weapons, plastic explosives, and rocket propellants.

LLM-105 (2,6-Diamino-3,5-dinitropyrazine-1-oxide): A heat-resistant explosive used in specialized warheads and detonators.

These substances are not refrigerants (a), not high-energy fuels for cruise missiles (c), and not primarily rocket propulsion fuels (d)—though HMX is sometimes used in solid rocket propellants. Their main role is as explosives in military weapons

Answer (c)

Statement I: Correct

The Majorana 1 chip is a quantum computing project by Microsoft (not AWS) in collaboration with researchers. It aims to enable topological quantum computing using Majorana zero modes, which are expected to provide more stable qubits.

Statement II: Incorrect

The Majorana 1 chip is not introduced by AWS (Amazon Web Services). It is a Microsoft initiative under their Azure Quantum program.

Statement III: Correct

Deep learning is indeed a subset of machine learning, specifically involving neural networks with multiple layers (deep neural networks).

Answer (d)

Statement I: "They are man-made proteins."

This is correct. Monoclonal antibodies are artificially produced in laboratories using hybridoma technology or other biotechnological methods. They are synthetic versions of natural antibodies.

Statement II: "They stimulate immunological function due to their ability to bind to specific antigens."

This is correct. Monoclonal antibodies work by binding to specific antigens (target molecules) with high specificity. This binding can neutralize pathogens, block harmful processes, or mark cells for destruction by the immune system, thereby enhancing or directing immune responses.

Statement III: "They are used in treating viral infections like that of Nipah virus."

This is correct. Monoclonal antibodies have been developed and used for treating various viral infections. For Nipah virus specifically, monoclonal antibody treatments have been researched and developed, including experimental therapies that have shown promise in treating Nipah virus infections.

All three statements are accurate descriptions of monoclonal antibodies and their applications.

Answer (d)

Statement I: "No virus can survive in ocean waters."

This is incorrect. Many viruses can and do survive in ocean waters. Marine viruses are actually extremely abundant in seawater and play crucial roles in marine ecosystems. They can infect marine bacteria, phytoplankton, and other marine organisms.

Statement II: "No virus can infect bacteria."

This is incorrect. Bacteriophages (or simply "phages") are viruses that specifically infect bacteria. They are among the most abundant biological entities on Earth and are found everywhere bacteria exist.

Statement III: "No virus can change the cellular transcriptional activity in host cells."

This is incorrect. Viruses routinely alter the transcriptional activity of their host cells. This is actually a fundamental part of how many viruses replicate - they hijack the host cell's transcriptional machinery to produce viral proteins and genetic material.

All three statements are incorrect. Viruses are highly diverse and capable of surviving in various environments (including oceans), infecting different types of cells (including bacteria), and manipulating host cell functions (including transcription)

Answer (a)

Statement I (Activated carbon is a good and attractive tool for pollutant removal and remediation)

This is a correct and widely accepted fact. Activated carbon is extensively used in water treatment, air purification, and industrial waste remediation due to its excellent adsorption properties.

Statement II (Activated carbon has a large surface area and strong potential for adsorbing heavy metals)

Correct. The high surface area (500–1500 m²/g) and porous structure of activated carbon enable it to effectively adsorb heavy metals (e.g., lead, mercury) and other contaminants. This property directly explains why it is useful for pollution control (Statement I).

Statement III (Activated carbon can be easily synthesized from environmental wastes with high carbon content)

Correct. Activated carbon can be produced from waste materials like coconut shells, wood, agricultural residues, and even plastic waste through pyrolysis and activation. This cost-effective synthesis supports its widespread use in pollution remediation (Statement I)

Answer (b)

Statement I: Studies indicate that carbon dioxide emissions from cement industry account for more than 5% of global carbon emissions.

This is correct. The cement industry is responsible for approximately 8% of global CO2 emissions, which is indeed more than 5%.

Statement II: Silica-bearing clay is mixed with limestone while manufacturing cement.

This is correct. Clay (containing silica, alumina, and iron oxide) is mixed with limestone as raw materials in cement production to provide the necessary chemical components for clinker formation.

Statement III: Limestone is converted into lime during clinker production for cement manufacturing.

This is correct. During clinker production in the kiln, limestone (CaCO3) undergoes calcination at high temperatures (~900°C) and decomposes into lime (CaO) and carbon dioxide: CaCO3 → CaO + CO2

Now, analyzing the relationship to Statement I:

Statement II describes a raw material mixing process but doesn't directly explain why the cement industry produces high CO2 emissions.

Statement III directly explains Statement I because the conversion of limestone to lime releases CO2 as a byproduct. This calcination process is responsible for about 60% of cement industry's CO2 emissions (the remaining comes from fuel combustion). This chemical reaction is the primary reason why cement manufacturing contributes significantly to global carbon emissions.

Both Statement II and Statement III are factually correct, but only Statement III explains the high carbon emissions mentioned in Statement I

Answer (c)

Statement I: At the 28th United Nations Climate Change Conference (COP28), India refrained from signing the "Declaration on Climate and Health". This statement is correct. Numerous reports confirm that India, along with the United States, did not sign the COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health. India's stated reason was concerns about the practicality of curbing greenhouse gas emissions for cooling in the health sector, given its vast healthcare infrastructure and the need for cold storage for vaccines and medicines.

Statement II: The COP28 Declaration on Climate and Health is a binding declaration, and if signed, it becomes mandatory to decarbonize health sector. This statement is incorrect. Declarations made at COP conferences are generally non-binding political statements of intent and commitment. They are meant to mobilize action and provide a framework for voluntary efforts, not to create legally binding obligations. Signing this declaration would express a commitment to work towards a climate-resilient and low-carbon health system, but it would not impose a mandatory legal requirement for immediate and complete decarbonization.

Statement III: If India's health sector is decarbonized, the resilience of its health-care system may be compromised. This statement is correct in the context of India's expressed concerns. India's reluctance to sign the declaration stemmed from the perception that aggressive decarbonization targets, particularly for cooling in the healthcare sector (which is vital for vaccine and medicine storage), could potentially compromise the functionality and expansion of its healthcare infrastructure, especially in a developing country with diverse needs. While long-term decarbonization can enhance resilience, India's immediate concern was about the practical challenges and potential for short-term compromise.

Answer (b)

Statement I: Scientific studies suggest that a shift is taking place in the Earth's rotation and axis.

This is correct. Scientists have documented changes in Earth's rotational axis (polar motion) and rotational speed due to various factors including climate change, mass redistribution, and geological processes.

Statement II: Solar flares and associated coronal mass ejections bombarded the Earth's outermost atmosphere with tremendous amount of energy.

This is correct. Solar flares and coronal mass ejections (CMEs) do regularly impact Earth's magnetosphere and upper atmosphere with significant energy, affecting satellites, communications, and potentially atmospheric dynamics.

Statement III: As the Earth's polar ice melts, the water tends to move towards the equator.

This is correct. When polar ice melts, the meltwater flows toward lower latitudes and eventually redistributes toward the equatorial regions due to gravitational and rotational effects, contributing to sea level rise that is not uniform globally.

Now, analyzing the relationship to Statement I:

Statement II: While solar activity affects Earth's upper atmosphere and can influence various geophysical processes, it is not a primary driver of the documented shifts in Earth's rotation and axis. The main factors are terrestrial mass redistributions.

Statement III: This directly explains Statement I. The melting of polar ice and redistribution of water mass from poles toward the equator is one of the primary causes of changes in Earth's rotational axis and speed. This mass redistribution affects the planet's moment of inertia and causes measurable shifts in the rotation axis (polar motion).

Both Statement II and Statement III are factually correct, but only Statement III provides a direct explanation for the shifts in Earth's rotation and axis mentioned in Statement I

Answer (a)

Statement I: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change is frequently discussed in global discussions on sustainable development and climate change.

This is correct. Article 6 is indeed a major topic in climate negotiations and discussions due to its importance for international cooperation mechanisms.

Statement II: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change sets out the principles of carbon markets.

This is correct. Article 6 establishes frameworks for international carbon markets, including provisions for internationally transferred mitigation outcomes (ITMOs) and mechanisms for countries to cooperate in achieving their climate targets through market-based approaches.

Statement III: Article 6 of the Paris Agreement on climate change intends to promote inter-country non-market strategies to reach their climate targets.

This is also correct. Article 6 includes provisions for both market-based mechanisms (Article 6.2 and 6.4) AND non-market approaches (Article 6.8), which specifically addresses non-market approaches for international cooperation on climate action.

Now, analyzing the relationship to Statement I:

Statement II explains Statement I because carbon markets are a crucial and frequently debated aspect of international climate policy, making Article 6 a key discussion point.

Statement III also explains Statement I because non-market approaches for international cooperation are equally important in climate discussions and represent alternative pathways for countries to collaborate on climate targets.

Both market and non-market mechanisms under Article 6 are significant components of international climate cooperation, and both contribute to why Article 6 is frequently discussed in global climate and sustainable development forums

Answer (a)

The Nature Solutions Finance Hub for Asia and the Pacific was launched by the Asian Development Bank (ADB) in December 2023.

This initiative aims to scale up nature-based solutions (e.g., ecosystem restoration, biodiversity conservation) by mobilizing public and private investments across the region.

The hub aligns with ADB’s commitment to allocate $100 billion for climate financing by 2030, including nature-positive projects

Answer (c)

Statement I: It can be used as a way of carbon sequestration.

Correct. DAC technology captures CO2 directly from the atmosphere, and this captured CO2 can be permanently stored underground or in geological formations, making it a form of carbon sequestration.

Statement II: It can be a valuable approach for plastic production and in food processing.

Correct. The CO2 captured through DAC can be converted into various products including:

Plastics and polymers through chemical processes

Used in food processing (carbonation of beverages, food preservation, etc.)

Converted into chemicals and materials for industrial use

Statement III: In aviation, it can be a source of carbon for combining with hydrogen to create synthetic low-carbon fuel.

Correct. DAC-captured CO2 can be combined with green hydrogen (produced using renewable energy) to create synthetic aviation fuels (e-fuels or power-to-liquid fuels). This is considered a promising pathway for decarbonizing aviation since electric aircraft are not viable for long-haul flights.

All three statements accurately describe applications and benefits of Direct Air Capture technology. DAC can serve multiple purposes: permanent carbon removal (sequestration), industrial feedstock for various products, and as a source of carbon for synthetic fuel production

Answer (d)

Statement I: It is an omnivorous crustacean.

Incorrect. The Gooty tarantula is:

An arachnid (spider), not a crustacean

Carnivorous, not omnivorous - it feeds primarily on insects, small vertebrates, and other arthropods

Statement II: Its natural habitat in India is only limited to some forest areas.

Correct. The Gooty tarantula has a very restricted range:

Found only in a small area of Andhra Pradesh, India

Specifically in the Eastern Ghats around the Nandyal-Giddalur road

Limited to specific forest patches, making it critically endangered

Has one of the most restricted distributions of any tarantula species

Statement III: In its natural habitat, it is an arboreal species.

Correct. The Gooty tarantula is:

Highly arboreal, living in trees and creating tube webs in tree holes

Adapted for climbing with specialized leg structures

Rarely found on the ground, preferring the canopy level

Answer (c)

Statement I: Carbon dioxide (COâ‚‚) emissions in India are less than 0.5 t COâ‚‚/capita.

Incorrect. India's per capita COâ‚‚ emissions are higher than 0.5 tonnes. As of recent data (around 2020-2022), India's per capita COâ‚‚ emissions are approximately 1.9-2.0 tonnes COâ‚‚ per capita, which is still relatively low compared to global averages but well above 0.5 t COâ‚‚/capita.

Statement II: In terms of COâ‚‚ emissions from fuel combustion, India ranks second in Asia-Pacific region.

Correct. In the Asia-Pacific region, China ranks first in COâ‚‚ emissions from fuel combustion, and India ranks second. India is also the third-largest emitter globally after China and the United States.

Statement III: Electricity and heat producers are the largest sources of COâ‚‚ emissions in India.

Correct. The power sector (electricity and heat production) is indeed the largest source of COâ‚‚ emissions in India, primarily due to heavy reliance on coal-fired power plants. This sector accounts for the largest share of India's total COâ‚‚ emissions, followed by industries and transportation.

Answer (b)

I. Cassava : Woody shrub

Correct. Cassava (Manihot esculenta) is indeed a woody shrub that can grow 1-3 meters tall with a woody stem.

II. Ginger : Herb with pseudostem

Correct. Ginger (Zingiber officinale) is an herbaceous plant with a pseudostem (false stem) made up of leaf sheaths, similar to banana plants.

III. Malabar spinach : Herbaceous climber

Correct. Malabar spinach (Basella alba) is a herbaceous climbing vine that grows as a climber/creeper.

IV. Mint : Annual shrub

Incorrect. Mint (Mentha species) is a herbaceous perennial plant, not an annual shrub. It has soft, non-woody stems and is classified as an herb, not a shrub.

V. Papaya : Woody shrub

Incorrect. Papaya (Carica papaya) is not a woody shrub. It's technically a large herbaceous plant or tree-like herb with a soft, hollow trunk. While it can grow quite tall, it lacks true woody tissue and is not classified as a shrub.

Three pairs (I, II, and III) are correctly matched, while two pairs (IV and V) are incorrectly matched.

Answer (b)

Statement I: Rain forests produce more oxygen than that produced by oceans.

Incorrect. While rainforests are significant oxygen producers, the oceans (primarily through marine phytoplankton) produce more oxygen than terrestrial rainforests. Marine phytoplankton are responsible for approximately 50-80% of Earth's oxygen production, which is much more than what rainforests contribute.

Statement II: Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria produce about 50% of world's oxygen.

Correct. This is accurate. Marine phytoplankton and photosynthetic bacteria (including cyanobacteria) in the oceans produce approximately 50-70% of the world's oxygen through photosynthesis. Some estimates put this figure even higher, up to 80%.

Statement III: Well-oxygenated surface water contains several folds higher oxygen than that in atmospheric air.

Incorrect. This is backwards. Atmospheric air contains about 21% oxygen by volume, while even well-oxygenated water contains much lower concentrations of dissolved oxygen (typically 8-15 mg/L or parts per million). Water has a much lower oxygen-carrying capacity than air, so surface water contains significantly less oxygen than atmospheric air, not several folds higher

Answer (c)

Statement I: Correct

Raja Ram Mohan Roy had a deep respect for Indian philosophical traditions, particularly the Vedanta and Upanishads. He translated ancient Hindu scriptures and emphasized their rational aspects, blending Eastern wisdom with modern thought.

Statement II: Correct

He advocated for rationalism, scientific temper, and social reforms, including gender equality (opposing Sati) and human dignity. His efforts promoted Western education and Enlightenment ideals while reforming regressive customs.

Answer ©

I. Boycott of law-courts and foreign cloth - âœ“ Correct This was a central element. People were asked to boycott British courts and use Indian arbitration instead, and to boycott foreign-made cloth in favor of khadi (hand-spun cloth).

II. Observance of strict non-violence - âœ“ Correct Non-violence (ahimsa) was fundamental to Gandhi's approach and was explicitly emphasized as essential to the programme.

III. Retention of titles and honours without using them in public - âœ— Incorrect This is the opposite of what was advocated. The programme called for the surrender/renunciation of titles and honours awarded by the British government, not their retention.

IV. Establishment of Panchayats for settling disputes - âœ“ Correct As part of boycotting British institutions, the programme promoted setting up traditional panchayats (village councils) and arbitration courts as alternatives to British legal systems.

Three out of four components (I, II, and IV) were actually part of the Non-Cooperation Programme.

The answer is (c) Only three

Answer (b)

An Araghatta consisted of a large wheel with earthen pots (or buckets) tied to the outer ends of its spokes. The wheel was typically operated by bullocks or oxen walking in a circle, which rotated the wheel. As the wheel turned, the pots on one side would dip into the water source (well, river, or tank) and fill up, then as the wheel continued rotating, these filled pots would be lifted up and emptied into irrigation channels at the top, distributing water to the fields.

This was an efficient mechanical system that used animal power to lift water from lower sources to higher agricultural lands, making it possible to irrigate areas that couldn't be watered directly.

Answer (a)

The ruler who assumed the titles 'Mattavilasa', 'Vichitrachitra' and 'Gunabhara' was Mahendravarman I of the Pallava dynasty.

Mahendravarman I (ruled c. 600-630 CE) was known for his multifaceted personality and talents. He was not only a successful ruler but also:

●      A patron of arts and literature

●      A playwright (he wrote the Sanskrit comedy "Mattavilasa Prahasana")

●      An architect who pioneered rock-cut temple architecture

●      A musician and poet

His titles reflected his various accomplishments:

●      'Mattavilasa' - literally meaning "intoxicated with joy/pleasure," possibly referring to his literary work or his joyful nature

●      'Vichitrachitra' - meaning "wonderful picture/painting," reflecting his artistic abilities

●      'Gunabhara' - meaning "loaded with virtues/qualities," indicating his multifaceted talents

These titles demonstrate the cultural and artistic renaissance that occurred during his reign in the Pallava kingdom.

Answer (b)

Fa-hien (Faxian), the Chinese Buddhist pilgrim, travelled to India during the reign of Chandragupta II of the Gupta dynasty.

Fa-hien visited India between 399-414 CE, spending about 6 years studying at various Buddhist centers including Pataliputra, Mathura, Kannauj, and other important sites. This period corresponds with the reign of Chandragupta II (r. 375-415 CE), also known as Chandragupta Vikramaditya.

Chandragupta II's reign marked the golden age of the Gupta Empire, characterized by:

●      Peace and prosperity

●      Flourishing of arts, literature, and learning

●      Religious tolerance that allowed Buddhism to thrive alongside Hinduism

●      Safe travel conditions for pilgrims like Fa-hien

Fa-hien's accounts provide valuable insights into the social, religious, and political conditions of India during this prosperous period of Gupta rule. He described a generally peaceful and well-governed empire with thriving Buddhist monasteries and educational centers

Answer ©

The ruler who led a successful military campaign against the kingdom of Srivijaya was Rajendra I of the Chola dynasty.

Rajendra I (r. 1014-1044 CE) conducted a famous naval expedition against Srivijaya around 1025 CE. This campaign was part of the Cholas' ambitious overseas military ventures during their imperial expansion.

Key details of this campaign:

●      Srivijaya was indeed a powerful maritime empire controlling the Malay Peninsula, Sumatra, Java, and neighboring islands, dominating the lucrative spice trade routes

●      Rajendra I's naval forces successfully attacked several Srivijayan territories including Palembang (the capital), parts of the Malay Peninsula, and other strategic locations

●      The campaign was motivated by both commercial interests (control of trade routes) and the desire to project Chola power across the seas

●      This expedition demonstrated the impressive naval capabilities of the Chola empire under Rajendra I

●      The success of this campaign established Chola influence in Southeast Asian waters and trade networks

Answer (b)

I. Asmaka : Godavari

Asmaka was a Mahajanapada located in southern India, specifically in the Deccan region. Historical sources place Asmaka in the region of modern-day Maharashtra, near the Godavari River. The Godavari is indeed associated with Asmaka, as it flowed through or near its territory. This pair is correctly matched.

II. Kamboja : Vipas

Kamboja was a Mahajanapada located in the northwestern part of ancient India, in the region of modern-day Afghanistan and parts of Pakistan. The Vipas (modern Beas River) is one of the five rivers of the Punjab region. However, Kamboja was more closely associated with rivers like the Kabul or Indus, not the Vipas, which was more relevant to regions like Gandhara or Punjab-based kingdoms. This pair is incorrectly matched.

III. Avanti : Mahanadi

Avanti was a prominent Mahajanapada in central India, roughly corresponding to modern-day Malwa (Madhya Pradesh). The rivers associated with Avanti include the Narmada, Chambal, or Betwa, but not the Mahanadi, which flows through eastern India (modern-day Odisha and Chhattisgarh), far from Avanti’s territory. This pair is incorrectly matched.

IV. Kosala : Sarayu

Kosala was a Mahajanapada in northern India, corresponding to modern-day eastern Uttar Pradesh. The Sarayu River (modern Ghaghara or a river identified with it) flowed through Kosala, and the capital, Shravasti, was located near its banks. This pair is correctly matched.

Conclusion

●      I: Asmaka – Godavari: Correct

●      II: Kamboja – Vipas: Incorrect

●      III: Avanti – Mahanadi: Incorrect

●      IV: Kosala – Sarayu: Correct

Answer (d)

The first Gandharva Mahavidyalaya was established by Vishnu Digambar Paluskar in 1901 in Lahore.

Vishnu Digambar Paluskar (1872-1931) was a pioneering figure in Indian classical music education who revolutionized music pedagogy by:

●      Establishing formal institutions for music education

●      Democratizing classical music by making it accessible beyond traditional hereditary musician families

●      Developing systematic teaching methods and notation systems

●      Promoting music education for the masses

The Gandharva Mahavidyalaya in Lahore was the first such institution of its kind, marking the beginning of organized music education in India. Paluskar later established similar institutions in other cities including Bombay (Mumbai).

This initiative was significant because it broke the traditional guru-shishya parampara monopoly and made classical music education available to a broader section of society, contributing to the preservation and propagation of Indian classical music during the colonial period

Answer (b)

Based on Ashokan inscriptions, the 'Pradeshika', 'Rajuka' and 'Yukta' were important officers at the district-level administration.

Here's what each office represented in the Mauryan administrative system:

Pradeshika - District head/administrator who governed a Pradesh (district). They were responsible for overall administration of their territorial jurisdiction.

Rajuka - Judicial officers who dealt with legal matters and dispensed justice at the district level. They had both administrative and judicial functions.

Yukta - These were subordinate officers/clerks who assisted in various administrative tasks and record-keeping at the district level.

The Mauryan administrative structure was hierarchical:

●      Central level: Emperor and central ministers

●      Provincial level: Provincial governors (often princes)

●      District level: Pradeshika, Rajuka, Yukta

●      Village level: Village headmen and local functionaries

These three categories of officers formed the crucial middle tier of administration, implementing imperial policies at the district level and serving as the link between provincial governors and local village administratio

Answer(c)

Statement I: The Congress declared the attainment of 'Swaraj' by all legitimate and peaceful means to be its objective.

✓ Correct - At the Nagpur session in December 1920, the Congress formally adopted the goal of attaining 'Swaraj' (self-rule) through legitimate and peaceful means. This marked a significant shift from the earlier moderate approach of seeking constitutional reforms within the British system to demanding complete self-governance.

Statement II: It was to be implemented in stages with civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes for the next stage only if 'Swaraj' did not come within a year and if the Government resorted to repression.

✓ Correct - The Non-Cooperation Movement was indeed planned to be implemented in stages:

●      First stage: Boycott of government institutions, foreign goods, schools, courts, etc.

●      Second stage: If Swaraj was not achieved within one year or if the government resorted to repression, the movement would escalate to include civil disobedience and non-payment of taxes.

Gandhi had specifically mentioned this phased approach, with the more aggressive tactics of civil disobedience and tax resistance reserved for the later stage if the initial non-cooperation did not succeed.

Both statements accurately describe key aspects of the Non-Cooperation Movement's objectives and strategy

Answer (b)

I. Bonds - âœ— Not an AIF Bonds are traditional fixed-income securities traded in public markets. They are conventional investments, not alternative investments.

II. Hedge Funds - âœ“ AIF Hedge funds are pooled investment vehicles that use sophisticated strategies like derivatives, leverage, short selling, etc. They are classic examples of Alternative Investment Funds.

III. Stocks - âœ— Not an AIF Stocks (equities) are traditional securities traded on public exchanges. They represent conventional investment instruments, not alternative investments.

IV. Venture Capital - âœ“ AIF Venture Capital funds invest in early-stage companies and startups. They are pooled investment vehicles that fall under the category of Alternative Investment Funds, specifically as Category I AIFs under Indian regulations.

Alternative Investment Funds are typically characterized by:

●      Pooled investment vehicles

●      Limited investor base

●      Higher minimum investment requirements

●      Use of alternative strategies beyond traditional stocks/bonds

●      Less liquid than traditional investments

Only Hedge Funds and Venture Capital qualify as Alternative Investment Funds

Answer (d)

I. Buying and selling Government bonds - âœ“ Income source The RBI conducts open market operations, buying and selling government securities. It earns income from interest on government bonds it holds and can also earn from trading activities.

II. Buying and selling foreign currency - âœ“ Income source The RBI manages foreign exchange reserves and conducts forex operations. It earns income from interest on foreign currency holdings and foreign securities, and can also earn from currency trading operations.

III. Pension fund management - âœ— Not an RBI income source The RBI does not manage pension funds. Pension fund management is handled by specialized pension fund managers and institutions like EPFO, not the central bank.

IV. Lending to private companies - âœ— Not a direct RBI income source The RBI does not directly lend to private companies. It primarily lends to banks and financial institutions through repo operations, but not directly to private corporations.

V. Printing and distributing currency notes - âœ“ Income source The RBI has the exclusive right to issue currency notes (except ₹1 notes). It earns seigniorage income - the difference between the face value of currency and the cost of production and distribution.

The RBI's main income sources are from government securities, foreign exchange operations, and currency issuance

Answer (a)

Row I: Directorate of Enforcement

●      Ministry: Listed as "Internal Security Division-I, Ministry of Home Affairs" - âœ— Incorrect

●      Function: "Enforces the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018" - âœ“ Correct

The Directorate of Enforcement (ED) actually works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance, not the Ministry of Home Affairs. However, it does enforce the Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 along with PMLA.

Row II: Directorate of Revenue Intelligence

●      Ministry: "Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance" - âœ“ Correct

●      Function: "Enforces the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 under the Customs Act, 1962" - âœ— Incorrect

The DRI works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance (correct), but it does NOT enforce the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002. The DRI primarily deals with customs-related intelligence and enforcement under the Customs Act. PMLA is enforced by the Enforcement Directorate.

Row III: Directorate General of Systems and Data Management

●      Ministry: "Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance" - âœ“ Correct

●      Function: "Carrying out searches and analytics to assist tax officers for better policy and nabbing tax evaders" - âœ“ Correct

Answer (b) 

Statement I: The Reserve Bank of India mandates all the listed companies in India to submit a Business Responsibility and Sustainability Report (BRSR).

The BRSR is a reporting framework introduced by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), not the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). SEBI mandated the BRSR for the top 1,000 listed companies by market capitalization, starting from the financial year 2022–23, as part of its circular dated May 10, 2021. The RBI, as India’s central bank, primarily regulates monetary policy, banking, and financial institutions, and does not oversee corporate sustainability reporting for listed companies. Since the mandate comes from SEBI, not the RBI, this statement is incorrect.

Statement II: In India, a company submitting a BRSR makes disclosures in the report that are largely non-financial in nature.

The BRSR requires companies to disclose information on their environmental, social, and governance (ESG) performance. These disclosures include metrics and qualitative information on areas such as energy consumption, emissions, waste management, employee welfare, diversity, human rights, and corporate governance practices. While some financial aspects (e.g., investments in sustainability initiatives) may be included, the BRSR is primarily focused on non-financial disclosures related to sustainability and responsible business practices. This aligns with the framework’s objective to provide stakeholders with insights into a company’s ESG impact. Thus, this statement is correct.

Conclusion

●      Statement I: Incorrect (the mandate is by SEBI, not RBI).

●      Statement II: Correct (BRSR disclosures are largely non-financial).

Only Statement II is correct

Answer (d)

Statement I: In India, income from allied agricultural activities, like poultry farming and wool rearing in rural areas, is exempted from any tax.

Under the Income-tax Act, 1961, agricultural income is exempt from income tax under Section 10(1). The definition of agricultural income under Section 2(1A) includes income derived from specific activities related to agriculture, such as rent or revenue from agricultural land, income from cultivation, or income from the sale of produce from such land. However, allied activities like poultry farming and wool rearing (animal husbandry activities like sheep or goat rearing) are generally not considered agricultural income unless they are directly integrated with agricultural operations (e.g., using agricultural produce as feed or manure in a composite farming operation). For instance:

●      Poultry farming: Income from poultry farming is typically treated as business income, not agricultural income, and is taxable unless it is part of an integrated agricultural activity (e.g., poultry farming on agricultural land using farm produce). Courts have consistently held that poultry farming is not inherently agricultural unless directly linked to land-based agricultural operations.

●      Wool rearing: Income from rearing sheep or goats for wool is also generally considered business income under the head “Profits and Gains of Business or Profession” and is taxable. It is not classified as agricultural income unless it involves specific agricultural processes (e.g., growing fodder crops for the animals).
 The statement specifies these activities “in rural areas,” but the Income-tax Act does not provide a blanket exemption for such activities based solely on their location in rural areas. For these activities to be exempt, they must meet the strict criteria of agricultural income under Section 2(1A), which poultry farming and wool rearing typically do not. Therefore, Statement I is incorrect as it inaccurately claims a general tax exemption for these activities.

Statement II: In India, rural agricultural land is not considered a capital asset under the provisions of the Income-tax Act, 1961.

Under Section 2(14) of the Income-tax Act, 1961, a capital asset is defined as property of any kind held by an assessee, but it explicitly excludes certain items, including agricultural land in India under specific conditions. The exclusion applies to:

●      Agricultural land situated in rural areas, defined as areas outside the jurisdiction of a municipality or cantonment board with a population of less than 10,000, or land beyond a certain distance (e.g., 2 km, 6 km, or 8 km, depending on population) from the limits of such municipalities, as per Central Government notifications.
 Thus, rural agricultural land is indeed not considered a capital asset under the Income-tax Act, 1961, and any gain from its transfer is not subject to capital gains tax. Statement II is correct.

Relationship between Statements I and II:

●      Statement II deals with the classification of rural agricultural land as a non-capital asset, which pertains to capital gains tax exemptions. Statement I addresses the tax exemption of income from allied agricultural activities like poultry farming and wool rearing. The two statements cover different aspects of taxation (income tax vs. capital gains tax) and different subjects (income from activities vs. land as an asset). Therefore, Statement II does not explain Statement I, as they are unrelated in terms of their legal provisions and scope.

Answer ©

Statement I: India has joined the Minerals Security Partnership as a member.

India joined the Minerals Security Partnership (MSP), a US-led alliance of 14 countries and the European Commission, in July 2023. The MSP aims to secure critical mineral supply chains and reduce dependency on countries like China for minerals essential for economic development and national security. India’s membership was confirmed through official statements, including a post from the U.S. State Department welcoming India as a partner. This statement is correct.

Statement II: India is a resource-rich country in all the 30 critical minerals that it has identified.

In July 2023, India identified 30 critical minerals essential for its economic development and national security, including Antimony, Beryllium, Bismuth, Cobalt, Copper, Gallium, Germanium, Graphite, Hafnium, Indium, Lithium, Molybdenum, Niobium, Nickel, Platinum Group Elements (PGE), Phosphorous, Potash, Rare Earth Elements (REE), Rhenium, Silicon, Strontium, Tantalum, Tellurium, Tin, Titanium, Tungsten, Vanadium, Zirconium, Selenium, and Cadmium. However, India is not resource-rich in all these minerals. For instance, India is 100% import-dependent for minerals like lithium, cobalt, nickel, niobium, beryllium, and tantalum, and it relies heavily on imports for others, such as copper (12 lakh tonnes worth over Rs. 27,000 crores in 2022–23) and nickel (32,298.21 tonnes worth Rs. 6,549.34 crore). While India has geological potential and produces over 85 minerals, it has explored only about 10–20% of its critical mineral resources, and its mining contributes less than 2% to GDP. The statement’s claim that India is resource-rich in all 30 critical minerals is incorrect due to its heavy import dependency and limited exploration.

Statement III: The Parliament in 2023 has amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 empowering the Central Government to exclusively auction mining lease and composite license for certain critical minerals.

The Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Amendment Bill, 2023, passed by the Indian Parliament on July 28, 2023 (Lok Sabha) and August 2, 2023 (Rajya Sabha), amended the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957. A key provision empowers the Central Government to exclusively auction mining leases and composite licenses for specified critical and strategic minerals, including lithium, cobalt, nickel, phosphate, potash, tin, and others listed in Part D of the First Schedule of the Act. While state governments typically conduct auctions for mineral concessions, this amendment reserves auctions for these critical minerals for the Central Government, though concessions are still granted by state governments, and revenue accrues to the states. This statement is correct.

Answer (a)

Statement I: As regards returns from an investment in a company, generally, bondholders are considered to be relatively at lower risk than stockholders.

Bondholders receive fixed interest payments (coupon payments) and the return of principal upon maturity, which are contractual obligations of the company. These payments are relatively predictable and less volatile compared to stockholders’ returns, which depend on dividends (discretionary and not guaranteed) and stock price appreciation (subject to market fluctuations). In terms of risk, bondholders face lower risk because their returns are prioritized and more stable, while stockholders bear higher risk due to the uncertainty of dividends and capital gains. This statement is correct, as bondholders are generally at lower risk than stockholders.

Statement II: Bondholders are lenders to a company whereas stockholders are its owners.

Bondholders provide debt financing to a company by purchasing bonds, effectively acting as lenders who receive interest and expect repayment of principal. They do not have ownership rights or voting power. Stockholders, by purchasing shares, acquire equity ownership in the company, entitling them to voting rights and a share of profits (via dividends or capital gains). This distinction is accurate, as bondholders are creditors (lenders), while stockholders are owners (equity holders). This statement is correct.

Statement III: For repayment purpose, bondholders are prioritized over stockholders by a company.

In the event of a company’s liquidation or bankruptcy, the capital structure hierarchy dictates the order of repayment. Bondholders, as creditors, have a higher claim on the company’s assets compared to stockholders (equity holders). Secured bondholders are paid first, followed by unsecured bondholders, while stockholders (particularly common stockholders) are paid last, only after all debts are settled. This prioritization reduces the risk for bondholders compared to stockholders, who may receive nothing if assets are insufficient. This statement is correct.

Relationship Analysis:

●      Does Statement II explain Statement I? Statement II explains that bondholders are lenders and stockholders are owners. This distinction contributes to the lower risk for bondholders (Statement I) because lenders have a contractual claim to interest and principal, which is more secure than the residual claim of owners, whose returns depend on the company’s performance. Thus, Statement II partially explains the lower risk in Statement I.

●      Does Statement III explain Statement I? Statement III highlights that bondholders are prioritized over stockholders for repayment, directly explaining why bondholders face lower risk (Statement I). In financial distress, bondholders are more likely to recover their investment, while stockholders face higher risk of loss, reinforcing the lower risk profile of bondholders.

●      Combined explanation: Both Statement II (lenders vs. owners) and Statement III (priority in repayment) provide reasons for the lower risk of bondholders compared to stockholders in Statement I. The lender status (Statement II) ensures contractual payments, and the repayment priority (Statement III) enhances security, especially in insolvency, fully explaining the lower risk in Statement I.

Answer (a)

Statement I: India accounts for a very large portion of all equity option contracts traded globally thus exhibiting a great boom.

India has experienced a significant boom in its equity derivatives market, particularly in options trading. According to data from the Futures Industry Association (FIA), 84% of all equity options traded globally in 2024 were on Indian exchanges, a sharp rise from 15% a decade earlier. Of the 108 billion options contracts traded worldwide in 2023, 78% were on Indian exchanges. The monthly notional value of derivatives traded reached 10,923 trillion rupees ($130 trillion) in August 2024, the highest globally. This growth, driven by the introduction of weekly-expiring contracts in 2019 and increased retail participation (rising from 2% in 2018 to 41% by 2024), confirms India’s dominant position in global equity options trading. The statement is correct as India indeed accounts for a very large portion of global equity option contracts, reflecting a significant boom.

Statement II: India’s stock market has grown rapidly in the recent past even overtaking Hong Kong at some point of time.

India’s stock market has seen rapid growth, with its market capitalization reaching $4.33 trillion by January 2024, surpassing Hong Kong’s $4.29 trillion, making it the fourth-largest stock market globally. This milestone was achieved on December 5, 2023, with about half of the growth occurring in the past four years, driven by stable political conditions, a consumption-driven economy, and foreign investment inflows of over $21 billion in 2023. In contrast, Hong Kong’s market has slumped due to China’s economic challenges, including regulatory crackdowns and geopolitical tensions. The Sensex and Nifty indices gained 17–18% in 2023, compared to a 32–33% decline in Hong Kong’s Hang Seng Index. The statement is correct as India’s stock market has grown rapidly and overtook Hong Kong in 2023.

Statement III: There is no regulatory body either to warn the small investors about the risks of derivatives trading or to act on unregistered financial advisors in this regard.

This statement is incorrect. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is the regulatory body overseeing India’s securities and derivatives markets. SEBI has actively addressed the risks of derivatives trading, particularly for retail investors, who make up 35–41% of derivatives trading volume and face significant losses (90% of retail traders lose money, with average losses of Rs 1.1 lakh in FY22). SEBI has issued repeated warnings about the risks of speculative trading in futures and options (F&O), with former SEBI chief Ajay Tyagi and current officials highlighting concerns about investor protection and market stability. In July 2024, SEBI proposed measures to curb retail activity in index derivatives, such as increasing the minimum contract size to Rs 15–20 lakh, limiting weekly options to one per exchange, mandating upfront options premium collection from February 2025, and reducing the number of strike prices. These measures, effective from November 20, 2024, aim to protect retail investors and reduce speculative trading risks. Additionally, SEBI regulates financial advisors under the SEBI (Investment Advisers) Regulations, 2013, which require registration and compliance. SEBI has taken action against unregistered financial advisors, including issuing warnings and barring entities for providing unauthorized advice, as seen in cases involving unregistered advisors on social media platforms. Thus, SEBI actively warns investors and regulates unregistered advisors, making the statement false.

Answer (a)

Statement I: Circular economy reduces the emissions of greenhouse gases.

The circular economy is an economic model that emphasizes resource efficiency, reuse, recycling, and waste reduction to minimize environmental impact. By extending the lifecycle of products, promoting recycling, and reducing the need for virgin resource extraction, a circular economy reduces energy consumption and greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions associated with production, transportation, and disposal. For example, recycling materials like metals or plastics requires less energy than producing them from raw materials, lowering GHG emissions. This statement is correct.

Statement II: Circular economy reduces the use of raw materials as inputs.

A core principle of the circular economy is to minimize the extraction and use of virgin raw materials by promoting the reuse, repair, refurbishment, and recycling of existing materials and products. For instance, using recycled materials in manufacturing reduces the demand for new raw materials like ores or timber. This statement is correct.

Statement III: Circular economy reduces wastage in the production process.

The circular economy focuses on designing out waste and pollution by optimizing production processes, using sustainable materials, and ensuring that by-products are reused or recycled. Practices such as lean manufacturing, modular design, and closed-loop systems minimize waste generation during production. This statement is correct.

Relationship Analysis:

●      Does Statement II explain Statement I? Yes, reducing the use of raw materials (Statement II) contributes to lower GHG emissions (Statement I). Extracting and processing raw materials (e.g., mining, refining) are energy-intensive processes that generate significant GHG emissions. By reducing reliance on virgin materials through recycling and reuse, the circular economy lowers these emissions. Thus, Statement II explains Statement I.

●      Does Statement III explain Statement I? Yes, reducing wastage in the production process (Statement III) also contributes to lower GHG emissions (Statement I). Wasteful production processes often involve inefficient energy use or disposal methods (e.g., landfilling or incineration) that emit GHGs. By minimizing waste through efficient processes or recycling, emissions are reduced. Thus, Statement III explains Statement I.

●      Combined explanation: Both Statements II and III provide mechanisms (reduced raw material use and reduced wastage) that directly contribute to the reduction of GHG emissions in Statement I.

Conclusion for Question 1:

●      Statement I: Correct (circular economy reduces GHG emissions).

●      Statement II: Correct (reduces raw material use).

●      Statement III: Correct (reduces wastage).

●      Relationship: Both Statements II and III are correct and both explain Statement I.

Answer: (a) Both Statement II and Statement III are correct and both of them explain Statement I.

Answer (a)

Statement I: Capital receipts create a liability or cause a reduction in the assets of the Government.

Capital receipts are funds received by the government that either increase its liabilities (e.g., through borrowings) or reduce its assets (e.g., through disinvestment or sale of government assets). Examples include loans raised from domestic or international sources (increasing liabilities) and proceeds from disinvestment of public sector enterprises (reducing assets). This is a defining characteristic of capital receipts under government accounting, as opposed to revenue receipts, which neither create liabilities nor reduce assets. This statement is correct.

Statement II: Borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts.

Borrowings (e.g., government bonds, loans from multilateral agencies) create a liability, as the government must repay the principal with interest. Disinvestment, such as selling shares of public sector enterprises, reduces the government’s assets by transferring ownership to private entities. Both are classified as capital receipts in the Union Budget under the Government of India’s fiscal framework. This statement is correct.

Statement III: Interest received on loans creates a liability of the Government.

Interest received on loans extended by the government (e.g., to public sector units or other entities) is classified as a revenue receipt, not a capital receipt, under the Income-tax Act, 1961, and government accounting principles. Revenue receipts are funds that do not create liabilities or reduce assets; they are typically recurring and used for operational expenses. Interest received represents income earned by the government and does not create a liability, as it is not a repayment obligation. This statement is incorrect.

●      Statement I: Correct (capital receipts create liabilities or reduce assets).

●      Statement II: Correct (borrowings and disinvestment are capital receipts).

●      Statement III: Incorrect (interest received is a revenue receipt, not a liability).
 Only Statements I and II are correct.

Answer: (a) I and II only.

I. Austria – ❌ Not a NATO member

Austria is neutral and has never joined NATO.

II. Bulgaria – ✅ NATO member

Joined NATO in 2004.

III. Croatia – ✅ NATO member

Joined NATO in 2009.

IV. Serbia – ❌ Not a NATO member

Serbia is not a member and maintains a policy of military neutrality.

V. Slovenia – ✅ NATO member

Joined NATO in 2004.

VI. North Macedonia – ✅ NATO member

Joined NATO in 2020.

✅ NATO Members:

• Bulgaria

• Croatia

• Slovenia

• North Macedonia

❌ Non-Members:

• Austria

• Serbia

✅ Final Answer:

Only four of the six countries are NATO members.

Correct option: (b) Only four

Answer (b)

Looking at each country's NATO status:

• Austria: Not a NATO member (neutral country)
• Bulgaria: NATO member (joined 2004)
• Croatia: NATO member (joined 2009)
• Serbia: Not a NATO member
• Slovenia: NATO member (joined 2004)
• North Macedonia: NATO member (joined 2020)

Four countries are NATO members: Bulgaria, Croatia, Slovenia, and North Macedonia

Answer (c)

The Andes mountain range runs along the western coast of South America through:

• Bolivia: Yes (the Andes run through western Bolivia)
• Brazil: No (the Andes do not extend into Brazil)
• Colombia: Yes (the Andes run through Colombia)
• Ecuador: Yes (the Andes run through Ecuador)
• Paraguay: No (located in the interior, east of the Andes)
• Venezuela: Yes (the northern end of the Andes extends into Venezuela)

Answer (d)

Statement I: India is the largest producer and exporter of turmeric in the world. This is correct. India has consistently been the world's largest producer of turmeric, accounting for approximately 80% of global production. India is also the largest exporter of turmeric globally.

Statement II: More than 30 varieties of turmeric are grown in India. This is correct. India grows numerous varieties of turmeric across different regions. There are indeed more than 30 recognized varieties of turmeric cultivated in India, including popular ones like Alleppey Finger, Madras Finger, Sangli turmeric, and many regional varieties.

Statement III: Maharashtra, Telangana, Karnataka and Tamil Nadu are major turmeric producing States in India. This is correct. These are indeed among the major turmeric-producing states in India:

• Telangana (particularly Nizamabad district)
• Maharashtra (Sangli district is famous for turmeric)
• Tamil Nadu (Erode district is a major hub)
• Karnataka Other major producers include Andhra Pradesh and Odisha.

All three statements are accurate

Answer (c)

Statement I: The belt of ancient rocks from Brazil coast matches with those from Western Africa. This is correct. One of the key pieces of evidence for continental drift is the geological correlation between the eastern coast of South America and the western coast of Africa. The rock formations, including the ancient Precambrian rocks, show remarkable similarities in age, composition, and structure, suggesting these continents were once joined.

Statement II: The gold deposits of Ghana are derived from the Brazil plateau when the two continents lay side by side. This is correct. The gold-bearing formations in Ghana (West Africa) correlate with similar geological formations in Brazil. When the continents are reconstructed in their pre-drift positions, these gold deposits align, suggesting they were part of the same geological system before the continents separated.

Statement III: The Gondwana system of sediments from India is known to have its counterparts in six different landmasses of the Southern Hemisphere. This is correct. The Gondwana sedimentary sequences found in India have matching counterparts in Antarctica, Australia, South Africa, South America, and Madagascar. This distribution of similar rock formations across widely separated landmasses in the Southern Hemisphere is strong evidence that these continents were once part of the supercontinent Gondwana.

All three statements represent valid evidence supporting the theory of continental drift

Answer (c)

Statement I: The amount of dust particles in the atmosphere is more in subtropical and temperate areas than in equatorial and polar regions.

This is correct. Subtropical and temperate regions typically have higher concentrations of atmospheric dust particles due to:

• Greater human activities (industrialization, urbanization, agriculture)
• More arid and semi-arid regions in subtropical zones that generate dust storms
• Less rainfall to wash out particles compared to equatorial regions
• More varied topography and wind patterns that lift dust

Equatorial regions have heavy rainfall that washes out dust particles, while polar regions have less dust generation due to ice cover and minimal human activity.

Statement II: Subtropical and temperate areas have less fog or winds.

This is not correct. Subtropical and temperate areas actually experience:

• Significant wind systems (trade winds, westerlies, monsoons)
• Regular fog formation, especially in coastal areas and during certain seasons
• Active weather systems that generate winds

The statement incorrectly suggests these regions have less fog or winds, which is not accurate.

Since Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect, Statement II cannot explain Statement I

Answer (a)

Statement I: In January, in the Northern Hemisphere, the isotherms bend equatorward while crossing the landmasses, and poleward while crossing the oceans.

This is correct. In January (Northern Hemisphere winter):

• Landmasses are colder than expected for their latitude, so isotherms bend toward the equator (equatorward) when crossing continents
• Oceans are warmer than expected for their latitude, so isotherms bend toward the poles (poleward) when crossing oceans
• This creates the characteristic wavy pattern of isotherms rather than straight east-west lines

Statement II: In January, the air over the oceans is warmer than that over the landmasses in the Northern Hemisphere.

This is correct. In January:

• Oceans have higher heat capacity and retain heat better, making them warmer in winter
• Landmasses cool down rapidly due to lower heat capacity and snow/ice cover
• This temperature difference between oceans and landmasses is what causes the isotherm bending described in Statement I

Relationship between the statements: Statement II directly explains Statement I. The reason isotherms bend equatorward over land and poleward over oceans is precisely because oceans are warmer than landmasses in January. The temperature difference between land and sea creates the isotherm deflection pattern

Answer (c)

Statement I: In the context of effect of water on rocks, chalk is known as a very permeable rock whereas clay is known as quite an impermeable or least permeable rock.

This is correct. Chalk is indeed highly permeable (water can flow through it easily), while clay is impermeable or has very low permeability (water cannot flow through it easily).

Statement II: Chalk is porous and hence can absorb water.

This is correct. Chalk is a porous rock with many interconnected pore spaces that allow water to move through it. The porosity contributes to its high permeability.

Statement III: Clay is not at all porous.

This is incorrect. Clay is actually quite porous - it has many small pore spaces and can hold significant amounts of water. However, the key difference is that clay's pores are extremely small and poorly connected, which makes it impermeable despite being porous. Clay can absorb water but doesn't allow it to flow through easily.

Analysis of relationships:

• Statement II correctly explains why chalk is permeable (it's porous)
• Statement III is factually wrong about clay's porosity
• Only Statement II is correct and explains Statement I

Answer (c)

Statement I: Without the atmosphere, temperature would be well below freezing point everywhere on the Earth's surface. This statement is correct. The Earth's atmosphere, through the greenhouse effect, traps heat and keeps the planet's average temperature at a habitable level. Without the atmosphere, the heat absorbed from the sun would quickly radiate back into space, leading to extreme temperature fluctuations (like on the Moon) and an average temperature significantly colder than freezing. NASA states that without the greenhouse effect, the average surface temperature would be around -20°C (-4°F), which is well below freezing.

Statement II: Heat absorbed and trapped by the atmosphere maintains our planet's average temperature. This statement is correct. This is the essence of the natural greenhouse effect. The atmosphere absorbs outgoing longwave radiation (heat) emitted from the Earth's surface, preventing it from escaping directly into space. This trapped heat keeps the Earth's average temperature stable and suitable for life.

Statement III: Atmosphere's gases, like carbon dioxide, are particularly good at absorbing and trapping radiation. This statement is correct. Gases like carbon dioxide (CO2​), water vapor (H2​O), methane (CH4​), and nitrous oxide (N2​O) are known as greenhouse gases because they are highly effective at absorbing and re-emitting infrared (longwave) radiation. This absorption and re-emission process is what leads to the trapping of heat in the atmosphere. Carbon dioxide is a significant contributor to this effect

Answer (c)

Statement I: It is important for the upliftment of rural population at grassroots by producing indigenous animals to work with small and marginal farmers and landless labourers. This statement is correct. The Rashtriya Gokul Mission (RGM) aims to enhance milk production and productivity of indigenous bovines, which directly translates to increased income and improved livelihoods for rural farmers, especially small and marginal farmers, and landless laborers who often depend on livestock for their sustenance. The mission also focuses on developing indigenous breeds that are well-suited to local conditions, making them more resilient and beneficial for these farmers. It also benefits women, as over 70% of livestock farming work is done by them.

Statement II: It was initiated to promote indigenous cattle and buffalo rearing and conservation in a scientific and holistic manner. This statement is also correct. The core objective of the Rashtriya Gokul Mission, launched in 2014, is to conserve and develop indigenous bovine breeds in a scientific and holistic manner. This includes initiatives like genetic improvement programs, strengthening of breeding infrastructure (like semen stations), use of advanced reproductive technologies (AI, IVF), and establishment of Gokul Grams (integrated cattle development centers) for scientific rearing and conservation. The mission specifically focuses on promoting indigenous cattle and buffaloes, recognizing their importance in the Indian agricultural economy

Answer (d)

Statement I: Panchayats at the intermediate level exists in all States.

This is incorrect. According to Article 243C of the Constitution, Panchayats at the intermediate level need not be constituted in states with a population not exceeding twenty lakh (2 million). This means smaller states may not have intermediate level Panchayats. Therefore, intermediate level Panchayats do not exist in all states.

Statement II: To be eligible to be a Member of a Panchayat at the intermediate level, a person should attain the age of thirty years.

This is incorrect. According to Article 243F of the Constitution, the minimum age requirement for membership of Panchayats at any level (village, intermediate, or district) is 21 years, not 30 years. The age of 30 years is not specified anywhere in the constitutional provisions related to Panchayats.

Statement III: The Chief Minister of a State constitutes a commission to review the financial position of Panchayats at the intermediate levels and to make recommendations regarding the distribution of net proceeds of taxes and duties, leviable by the State, between the State and Panchayats at the intermediate level.

This is incorrect. According to Article 243I, it is the Governor of the state (not the Chief Minister) who constitutes a Finance Commission every five years to review the financial position of Panchayats and make recommendations regarding distribution of finances between the state and Panchayats.

All three statements are incorrect

Answer (d)

Let's analyze each statement regarding BIMSTEC:

I: It is a regional organization consisting of seven member States till January 2025. This statement is correct. BIMSTEC currently has seven member states: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar, Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Thailand. There's no indication of a change in this number by January 2025.

II: It came into existence with the signing of the Dhaka Declaration. This statement is incorrect. BIMSTEC (originally BIST-EC) came into existence with the signing of the Bangkok Declaration on June 6, 1997. The Dhaka Declaration was adopted in 1998, during the first ministerial meeting, but it was not the foundational document.

III: Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, Thailand and Nepal are founding member States of BIMSTEC. This statement is incorrect. The founding members, who signed the Bangkok Declaration in 1997, were Bangladesh, India, Sri Lanka, and Thailand (BIST-EC). Myanmar joined in 1997, and Nepal and Bhutan joined in 2004. So, Nepal was not a founding member.

IV: In BIMSTEC the subsector of 'tourism' is being led by India. This statement is incorrect. While India plays a significant role in BIMSTEC, the sub-sector of 'People-to-People Contact' which includes tourism, is led by Nepal. India leads the 'Security' pillar, which includes sub-sectors like Counter-Terrorism and Transnational Crime, Disaster Management, and Energy.

Based on the analysis:

• Statement I is correct.
• Statement II is incorrect.
• Statement III is incorrect.
• Statement IV is incorrect

Answer (c)

The Gandhi Peace Prize was instituted by the Government of India in 1995 to commemorate the 125th birth anniversary of Mahatma Gandhi. The selection is made by a jury comprising specific high constitutional authorities.

The jury for selecting the recipient of the Gandhi Peace Prize consists of:

I: The President of India - Incorrect. The President is not a member of the selection jury.

II: The Prime Minister of India - Correct. The Prime Minister is the Chairman of the jury.

III: The Chief Justice of India - Correct. The Chief Justice of India is a member of the jury.

IV: The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha - Correct. The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha is a member of the jury.

The complete jury consists of:

• The Prime Minister of India (Chairman)
• The Chief Justice of India
• The Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha
• Two other eminent persons

Therefore, statements II, III, and IV are correct

Answer (d)

Statement I: "It is designed to provide additional accuracy and integrity" This is correct. GAGAN is India's satellite-based augmentation system that enhances GPS signals by providing differential corrections and integrity information. It improves positioning accuracy from meters to sub-meter level and provides real-time integrity monitoring to alert users if GPS signals become unreliable.

Statement II: "It will allow more uniform and high quality air traffic management" This is correct. GAGAN enables more precise aircraft navigation, allowing for optimized flight paths, reduced separation standards, and improved approach procedures. This leads to more efficient airspace utilization and enhanced air traffic management quality across India's vast airspace.

Statement III: "It will provide benefits only in aviation but not in other modes of transportation" This is incorrect. While GAGAN was primarily developed for civil aviation to meet International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO) standards, its enhanced GPS signals benefit multiple sectors including maritime navigation, land transportation, surveying, precision agriculture, and emergency services

Answer (a)

Statement I: Co-chaired with India, the event builds on the advances made at the Bletchley Park Summit held in 2023 and the Seoul Summit held in 2024.

• Co-chaired with India: Information from multiple sources confirms that the AI Action Summit in Paris (February 10-11, 2025) was indeed co-chaired by French President Emmanuel Macron and Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
• Builds on advances made at Bletchley Park (2023) and Seoul (2024): The AI Action Summit is explicitly stated as the third in a series, following the AI Safety Summit at Bletchley Park, UK (2023), and the AI Seoul Summit, South Korea (2024). The Paris summit aimed to shift the focus from solely safety to "action" and implementation, building upon the foundations laid by the previous summits.

Therefore, Statement I is correct.

Statement II: Along with other countries, US and UK also signed the declaration on inclusive and sustainable AI.

• Sources indicate that 58 countries, including France, China, and India, signed the joint declaration, "Statement on Inclusive and Sustainable Artificial Intelligence for People and the Planet."
• However, multiple sources explicitly state that the United States and the United Kingdom did NOT sign this declaration, expressing concerns related to excessive regulations on AI.

Therefore, Statement II is incorrect

Answer (d)

I. International Year of the Woman Farmer – 2026
✅ Correct
The United Nations General Assembly declared 2026 as the International Year of the Woman Farmer to highlight the vital role women play in global food and agricultural production and to address the unique challenges they face

II. International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism – 2027
✅ Correct
In February 2024, the UN General Assembly adopted a resolution declaring 2027 as the International Year of Sustainable and Resilient Tourism, aiming to promote sustainable tourism practices worldwide

III. International Year of Peace and Trust – 2025
✅ Correct
The UN General Assembly proclaimed 2025 as the International Year of Peace and Trust, encouraging efforts to strengthen peace and trust among nations

IV. International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence – 2029
✅ Correct
In December 2024, the UN General Assembly declared 2029 as the International Year of Asteroid Awareness and Planetary Defence to raise global awareness about asteroids and the importance of planetary defense

Answer (c)

Statement I: "16th BRICS Summit was held under the Chairship of Russia in Kazan" This is correct. The 16th BRICS Summit was indeed held in Kazan, Russia in October 2024, with Russia holding the rotating chairship of BRICS for that year.

Statement II: "Indonesia has become a full member of BRICS" This is incorrect. As of my knowledge cutoff (end of January 2025), Indonesia has not become a full member of BRICS. At the 2023 Johannesburg Summit, BRICS invited several countries to join as full members (Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia, and the UAE), but Indonesia was not among them. Indonesia has expressed interest in BRICS activities but has not been granted full membership.

Statement III: "The theme of the 16th BRICS Summit was Strengthening Multilateralism for Just Global Development and Security" This is correct. This was indeed the theme of the 16th BRICS Summit held in Kazan in 2024 under Russia's chairship

Answer (a)

Statement I: "The power of Lokpal applies to public servants of India, but not to the Indian public servants posted outside India" This is incorrect. The Lokpal's jurisdiction extends to all public servants, including those posted outside India. The Act doesn't exclude Indian public servants working abroad from its purview.

Statement II: "The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a Member of Parliament or a Member of the Legislature of any State or Union Territory, and only the Chief Justice of India, whether incumbent or retired, has to be its Chairperson" This is incorrect. While the first part is correct (Lokpal members cannot be MPs or MLAs), the second part is wrong. The Chairperson can be either the Chief Justice of India or a sitting/retired Supreme Court judge, or an eminent person with impeccable integrity - not exclusively the CJI.

Statement III: "The Chairperson or a Member shall not be a person of less than forty-five years of age on the date of assuming office" This is correct. The Act specifically states that the minimum age requirement for both Chairperson and Members is 45 years.

Statement IV: "Lokpal cannot inquire into the allegations of corruption against a sitting Prime Minister of India" This is incorrect. The Lokpal can inquire into corruption allegations against the Prime Minister, though there are specific procedural safeguards and the inquiry must be approved by the full bench of the Lokpal.

Only Statement III is correct

Answer (a)

I: The event was held in Delhi, India. This statement is correct. The inaugural Kho Kho World Cup was held from January 13 to 19, 2025, at the Indira Gandhi Arena in New Delhi, India.

II: Indian men beat Nepal with a score of 78-40 in the final to become the World Champion in men category. This statement is incorrect. While the Indian men's team did beat Nepal in the final, the score was 54-36, not 78-40. The score 78-40 was for the women's final.

III: Indian women beat Nepal with a score of 54-36 in the final to become the World Champion in women category. This statement is incorrect. The Indian women's team beat Nepal in the final with a score of 78-40, not 54-36. The score 54-36 was for the men's final.

Therefore, only statement I is correct

Answer (b)

Statement I: "In the finals of the 45th Chess Olympiad held in 2024, Gukesh Dommaraju became the world's youngest winner after defeating the Russian player Nepomniachtchi" This is incorrect. This statement confuses two different events:

• The 45th Chess Olympiad was held in Budapest in 2024, which is a team event where countries compete, not an individual championship
• Gukesh Dommaraju became the youngest World Chess Champion by defeating Ding Liren (not Nepomniachtchi) in the World Chess Championship match in late 2024/early 2025
• Nepomniachtchi was not involved in either of these specific events as described

Statement II: "Abhimanyu Mishra, an American chess player, holds the record of becoming world's youngest ever Grandmaster" This is correct. Abhimanyu Mishra achieved the Grandmaster title in 2021 at the age of 12 years, 4 months, and 25 days, making him the youngest Grandmaster in chess history, breaking the previous record held by Sergey Karjakin.

Since only Statement II is correct, the answer is (b) II only

Answer (a)

Statement I: "Some rare earth elements are used in the manufacture of flat television screens and computer monitors" This is correct. Rare earth elements are indeed used in displays:

• Europium and terbium are used in phosphors for color displays
• Yttrium is used in red phosphors
• Cerium is used in various display technologies
• Neodymium is used in some display components

Statement II: "Some rare earth elements have phosphorescent properties" This is correct. Several rare earth elements exhibit phosphorescent properties:

• Europium compounds are widely used as red and blue phosphors
• Terbium compounds produce green phosphorescence
• Yttrium compounds are used in phosphor applications
• These elements can absorb energy and re-emit it as visible light

Relationship between the statements: Statement II directly explains Statement I. The reason rare earth elements are used in flat screens and monitors is precisely because of their phosphorescent properties. These phosphorescent rare earth compounds are used to create the phosphor coatings that produce the different colors in display screens.

The phosphorescent properties mentioned in Statement II are the fundamental reason why these elements are valuable in display technology mentioned in Statement I.

Answer (a)

Statement I: Indian Railways have prepared a National Rail Plan (NRP) to create a 'future ready' railway system by 2030.

✅ Correct.
The Indian Railways has developed the National Rail Plan (NRP) with the objective of creating a 'future ready' railway system by 2030. The plan aims to enhance capacity, increase the modal share of railways in freight to 45%, and meet future demand projections up to 2050

Statement II: 'Kavach' is an Automatic Train Protection system developed in collaboration with Germany.

❌ Incorrect.
'Kavach' is an indigenously developed Automatic Train Protection (ATP) system by the Research Designs and Standards Organisation (RDSO) in collaboration with Indian industry partners. There was no collaboration with Germany in its development

Statement III: Kavach system consists of RFID tags fitted on track in station section.

✅ Correct.
The Kavach system employs Radio Frequency Identification (RFID) tags installed on tracks, including in station sections, point zones, near signals, and block sections. These tags provide critical trackside information to the onboard Kavach units, enhancing train safety

Answer (b)

I. Axiom-4 This is correct for zero-gravity research. Axiom missions are commercial crewed flights to the International Space Station (ISS), where astronauts conduct various scientific experiments and research in the microgravity environment of space.

II. SnapX-1 I don't have reliable information about a mission specifically called "SnapX-1" in my knowledge base. Without clear details about this mission's nature and objectives, I cannot definitively determine if it involves zero-gravity research.

III. Gaganyaan This is correct for zero-gravity research. Gaganyaan is India's human spaceflight program that will send Indian astronauts (Gagannauts) to space in low Earth orbit, where they will experience microgravity conditions and can conduct zero-gravity experiments and research.

Based on the information I can verify, at least two missions (Axiom-4 and Gaganyaan) definitely involve zero-gravity research. However, without clear information about SnapX-1, I cannot make a definitive determination about all three missions.

Answer (b)

I. Dornier-228 : Maritime patrol aircraft This is correctly matched. The Dornier-228 is indeed used by the Indian Navy and Coast Guard as a maritime patrol aircraft for coastal surveillance, search and rescue operations, and maritime reconnaissance.

II. IL-76 : Supersonic combat aircraft This is incorrectly matched. The IL-76 (Ilyushin Il-76) is a large, four-engine strategic airlifter/cargo aircraft, not a supersonic combat aircraft. It's used by the Indian Air Force primarily for transport purposes, including carrying troops, equipment, and supplies. It's subsonic, not supersonic, and not a combat aircraft.

III. C-17 Globemaster : Military transport aircraft This is correctly matched. The C-17 Globemaster III is indeed a large military transport aircraft used by the Indian Air Force for strategic airlift operations, capable of carrying troops, cargo, and equipment over long distances.

Since pairs I and III are correctly matched while pair II is incorrectly matched, two pairs are correctly matched

Answer (a)

The artificial way of causing rainfall to reduce air pollution primarily uses silver iodide.

Silver iodide is the most commonly used cloud seeding agent because:

• It has a crystal structure very similar to ice
• It acts as an effective ice nucleation agent
• It helps water droplets in clouds condense and form precipitation
• It's been proven effective in various weather modification programs

While potassium iodide can also be used as a cloud seeding agent (though less commonly than silver iodide), the combination of silver iodide and potassium iodide represents the most standard approach for cloud seeding operations aimed at inducing rainfall.

This technique is used in various countries including China, India, and others to combat air pollution by literally "washing" pollutants out of the atmosphere through induced precipitation

Answer (a)

Statement I: "The exercise of this power by the President can be subjected to limited judicial review."

This is correct. The Supreme Court of India has established through various judgments (notably in Maru Ram v. Union of India, 1981, and Epuru Sudhakar v. Government of Andhra Pradesh, 2006) that while the President's pardoning power under Article 72 is wide, it is not absolute and can be subjected to limited judicial review. The courts can examine whether:

• The power was exercised arbitrarily or irrationally
• Relevant factors were considered
• Irrelevant factors influenced the decision
• There was any mala fide exercise of power

However, the courts generally do not substitute their judgment for that of the executive on the merits of granting pardon.

Statement II: "The President can exercise this power without the advice of the Central Government."

This is incorrect. Under Article 74(1) of the Indian Constitution, the President acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers in all matters, including the exercise of pardoning power. The President cannot exercise this power independently without the advice of the Central Government. This has been consistently upheld by the Supreme Court.

Therefore, only Statement I is correct

Answer (c)

Statement I: "On the dissolution of the House of the People, the Speaker shall not vacate his/her office until immediately before the first meeting of the House of the People after the dissolution."

This is correct. According to Article 94(b) of the Indian Constitution, the Speaker does not vacate office immediately upon dissolution of the Lok Sabha. The Speaker continues in office until immediately before the first meeting of the newly constituted House after the dissolution. This ensures continuity and that there is someone to preside over the first meeting of the new House.

Statement II: "According to the provisions of the Constitution of India, a Member of the House of the People on being elected as Speaker shall resign from his/her political party immediately."

This is incorrect. There is no constitutional provision requiring the Speaker to resign from their political party upon election. While there is a convention that the Speaker should be impartial and not participate in party politics actively, the Constitution does not mandate resignation from the political party. The Speaker remains a member of their party but is expected to function impartially.

Statement III: "The Speaker of the House of the People may be removed from his/her office by a resolution of the House of the People passed by a majority of all the Members of the House, provided that no resolution shall be moved unless at least fourteen days' notice has been given of the intention to move the resolution."

This is correct. Article 94(c) of the Constitution provides that the Speaker may be removed by a resolution passed by a majority of all the then members of the House (not just those present and voting), provided at least 14 days' notice has been given of the intention to move such resolution.

Answer (d)

Statement I: "If any question arises as to whether a Member of the House of the People has become subject to disqualification under the 10th Schedule, the President's decision in accordance with the opinion of the Council of Union Ministers shall be final."

This is incorrect. Under the 10th Schedule (Anti-Defection Law), Paragraph 6 clearly states that if any question arises as to whether a member has become subject to disqualification, the question shall be referred to the Chairman or Speaker of the respective House, and their decision shall be final. It is not the President who decides, nor is it done in accordance with the Council of Ministers' opinion. The Presiding Officer of the respective House (Speaker for Lok Sabha, Chairman for Rajya Sabha) has the sole authority to decide on disqualification matters under the 10th Schedule.

Statement II: "There is no mention of the word 'political party' in the Constitution of India."

This is incorrect. The term "political party" appears in the Constitution of India, particularly in the 10th Schedule (Anti-Defection Law), which was added by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985. The 10th Schedule extensively uses the term "political party" while dealing with disqualification on grounds of defection. Additionally, the term appears in other parts of the Constitution as well.

Answer (d)

Statement I: "In India, State Governments have no power for making rules for grant of concessions in respect of extraction of minor minerals even though such minerals are located in their territories."

This is incorrect. Under the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, and as per the constitutional distribution of powers, State Governments have significant authority over minor minerals. The States can make rules for granting mining leases, quarry licenses, and other concessions for minor minerals located within their territories. Entry 23 of the State List in the Seventh Schedule gives States legislative power over "Regulation of mines and mineral development subject to the provisions of List I with respect to regulation and development under the control of the Union."

Statement II: "In India, the Central Government has the power to notify minor minerals under the relevant law."

This is correct. Under Section 3(e) of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957, the Central Government has the power to declare and notify what constitutes "minor minerals" by notification in the Official Gazette. The Central Government exercises this power to classify minerals as either major or minor minerals.

Answer (a)

The EU Nature Restoration Law was adopted in 2024 as part of the European Green Deal. It requires EU member states to restore at least 20% of the EU's land and sea areas by 2030 and all ecosystems in need of restoration by 2050. The law aims to tackle climate change and biodiversity loss by requiring countries to implement restoration measures across various ecosystems including agricultural lands, forests, marine environments, and urban areas.

This landmark legislation represents one of the most comprehensive nature restoration efforts globally and is a key component of the EU's strategy to achieve climate neutrality and halt biodiversity loss.

Answer (d)

Given:

• Revenue expenditure = ₹80,000 crores
• Revenue receipts = ₹60,000 crores
• Borrowings = ₹10,000 crores
• Interest payments = ₹6,000 crores

Statement I: Revenue deficit is ₹20,000 crores.

Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure - Revenue Receipts Revenue Deficit = ₹80,000 - ₹60,000 = ₹20,000 crores

This is correct.

Statement II: Fiscal deficit is ₹10,000 crores.

Fiscal Deficit = Total Expenditure - Total Receipts (excluding borrowings) Or alternatively, Fiscal Deficit = Borrowings (since borrowings bridge the gap between expenditure and receipts)

Given that borrowings = ₹10,000 crores, the fiscal deficit = ₹10,000 crores

This is correct.

Statement III: Primary deficit is ₹4,000 crores.

Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit - Interest Payments Primary Deficit = ₹10,000 - ₹6,000 = ₹4,000 crores

This is correct.

All three statements are correct

Answer (a)

The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is a multimodal transportation network that connects India to Central Asia to Europe via Iran.

The INSTC is a 7,200-kilometer-long multimodal network of ship, rail, and road routes designed to move freight between India, Iran, Afghanistan, Armenia, Azerbaijan, Russia, Central Asia, and Europe. The corridor primarily uses Iranian territory as a key transit route.

India is indeed one of the founding members of INSTC, along with Iran and Russia. The agreement was signed in 2000 in St. Petersburg. The corridor aims to:

• Reduce transportation costs by about 30%
• Cut transit time from 40 days to about 20 days compared to the traditional route via the Suez Canal
• Enhance trade connectivity between member countries

The main routes include the western route (through Iran to Russia and then to Northern Europe and the Baltics) and the eastern route (through Iran to Central Asia)

Answer (d)

Statement I: "Of the two major ethanol producers in the world, i.e., Brazil and the United States of America, the former produces more ethanol than the latter."

This is incorrect. The United States is actually the world's largest ethanol producer, not Brazil. The US produces significantly more ethanol than Brazil. As of recent years, the US produces around 15-16 billion gallons of ethanol annually, while Brazil produces around 7-8 billion gallons. So Brazil (the former) does not produce more ethanol than the United States (the latter).

Statement II: "Unlike in the United States of America where corn is the principal feedstock for ethanol production, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production in Brazil."

This is correct. In the United States, corn is indeed the primary feedstock for ethanol production, accounting for about 95% of ethanol production. In Brazil, sugarcane is the principal feedstock for ethanol production. This difference in feedstock is due to the agricultural advantages and crop suitability in each country - corn thrives in the US Midwest, while Brazil has ideal conditions for sugarcane cultivation

Answer (c)

I. Peninsular India will most likely suffer from flooding, tropical cyclones and droughts. While it is true that Peninsular India is vulnerable to and likely to suffer from climate change impacts like flooding, tropical cyclones, and droughts, this statement describes broader climate change consequences rather than the direct and specific implication of routine wet-bulb temperatures exceeding 35°C. High wet-bulb temperatures are a direct measure of combined heat and humidity, which specifically impact the body's ability to cool itself. While climate change causes both, the World Bank's warning at 35°C wet-bulb temperature specifically focuses on heat stress. However, some interpretations might argue that the same underlying climate shifts that cause high wet-bulb temperatures also exacerbate these other extreme weather events. Given the phrasing "best reflect(s) the implication," we need to consider the most direct consequence.

II. The survival of animals including humans will be affected as shedding of their body heat through perspiration becomes difficult. This statement directly and accurately reflects the core implication of high wet-bulb temperatures. When the wet-bulb temperature reaches or exceeds approximately 35°C, the air is so saturated with moisture that sweat can no longer evaporate effectively from the body. Evaporative cooling (like sweating in humans, or panting in many animals) is the primary mechanism for many endothermic (warm-blooded) species to regulate their body temperature in hot environments. When this mechanism fails, the body's core temperature rises uncontrollably, leading to heatstroke, organ failure, and potentially death, even for healthy individuals resting in the shade with access to water. This is the critical threshold for human and animal survival.

Considering "best reflect(s) the implication," statement II is a direct and immediate consequence of the wet-bulb temperature exceeding 35°C. Statement I, while related to climate change, describes broader climatic risks rather than the specific physiological threat highlighted by the wet-bulb temperature threshold.

Therefore, statement II is the most accurate and direct implication. However, some sources, when discussing the broader context of the World Bank report, link the rise in wet-bulb temperatures to intensified monsoon variability leading to floods and droughts, especially in regions vulnerable to climate change. This suggests a more comprehensive understanding where these events are also considered implications.

Given that the question asks to "best reflect(s) the implication," and acknowledging the interconnectedness of climate change impacts, many analyses of this specific World Bank warning consider both the direct physiological impact (Statement II) and the exacerbated weather extremes (Statement I) as significant implications

Answer (a)

• Fiscal Deficit: The difference between the government's total expenditure and its total receipts (excluding borrowings). In this case, ₹ 50,000 crores.
• Primary Deficit: Fiscal Deficit - Interest Payments. It indicates the government's borrowing requirement, excluding interest payments on past debt.

Given:

• Fiscal Deficit = ₹ 50,000 crores
• Interest Liabilities (Interest Payments) = ₹ 1,500 crores
• Non-debt creating capital receipts (like disinvestments) are already part of the fiscal deficit calculation (total receipts) and are not directly used in the primary deficit formula after the fiscal deficit is given.

Calculation of Gross Primary Deficit: Gross Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit - Interest Payments Gross Primary Deficit = ₹ 50,000 crores - ₹ 1,500 crores Gross Primary Deficit = ₹ 48,500 crores

The non-debt creating capital receipts are already accounted for when the fiscal deficit figure is provided. The fiscal deficit is defined as Total Expenditure - (Revenue Receipts + Non-debt Creating Capital Receipts). Therefore, once the fiscal deficit is known, these receipts are not subtracted again to find the primary deficit

Answer (c)

Statement I: "It has recommended grants of ₹4,800 crores from the year 2022-23 to the year 2025-26 for incentivizing States to enhance educational outcomes."

This is correct. The 15th Finance Commission recommended performance-based incentive grants for improving educational outcomes, with ₹4,800 crores allocated for the period 2022-23 to 2025-26.

Statement II: "45% of the net proceeds of Union taxes are to be shared with States."

This is incorrect. The 15th Finance Commission recommended that 41% of the net proceeds of Union taxes be shared with States, not 45%. This was actually a reduction from the 14th Finance Commission's recommendation of 42%.

Statement III: "₹45,000 crores are to be kept as performance-based incentive for all States for carrying out agricultural reforms."

This is correct. The 15th Finance Commission recommended ₹45,000 crores as performance-based incentives for States to undertake agricultural reforms during 2021-22 to 2025-26.

Statement IV: "It reintroduced tax effort criteria to reward fiscal performance."

This is correct. The 15th Finance Commission reintroduced the tax effort criterion as one of the parameters for horizontal devolution, which was not used by the 14th Finance Commission. This was done to incentivize States to improve their tax collection efforts.

Therefore, Statements I, III, and IV are correct, while Statement II is incorrect

Answer (c)

I. It provides loans and guarantees to middle income countries. This statement is correct. The IBRD is the lending arm of the World Bank Group that primarily provides financial products (loans, guarantees, risk management products) and policy advice to middle-income and creditworthy low-income countries. It aims to help these countries reduce poverty and achieve sustainable development.

II. It works single-handedly to help developing countries to reduce poverty. This statement is incorrect. The IBRD is one of five institutions that comprise the World Bank Group (IBRD, IDA, IFC, MIGA, ICSID). Each institution has a distinct role in global development and poverty reduction. For example, the International Development Association (IDA) focuses on the poorest countries, and the International Finance Corporation (IFC) deals with the private sector. The World Bank Group, through its various arms, works collaboratively with governments, other international organizations, civil society, and the private sector. Therefore, the idea that IBRD works "single-handedly" is false.

III. It was established to help Europe rebuild after the World War II. This statement is correct. The IBRD was established in 1944 at the Bretton Woods Conference. Its initial and original mission was to finance the reconstruction of European nations devastated by World War II. After this initial phase, its mandate expanded to focus on development and poverty reduction in developing countries worldwide

Answer (a)

I. In RTGS, the settlement time is instantaneous while in case of NEFT, it takes some time to settle payments.

• RTGS: Stands for Real-Time Gross Settlement. "Real-time" means the processing of instructions at the time they are received. "Gross settlement" means the settlement of funds transfer instructions occurs individually. So, RTGS is indeed instantaneous for settlement.
• NEFT: Stands for National Electronic Funds Transfer. NEFT operates on a Deferred Net Settlement (DNS) basis, which means transactions are processed in batches. These batches typically run every half-hour. So, it takes some time (a few minutes to half an hour) for NEFT payments to settle, as opposed to the instant settlement of RTGS. This statement is correct.

II. In RTGS, the customer is charged for transactions while that is not the case for NEFT.

• RTGS Charges: As per RBI guidelines, online RTGS transactions (via net banking or mobile apps) are free of processing fees. However, banks may charge for offline (branch-based) RTGS transactions.
• NEFT Charges: Similarly, online NEFT transactions are free of charge as per RBI directives (since January 1, 2020, for savings account holders, and generally for all online NEFT). However, banks may levy charges for NEFT transactions initiated at a bank branch. Therefore, the statement that customers are charged for RTGS but not for NEFT is incorrect in the context of online transactions. Both are generally free online, and both can have charges for offline transactions.

III. Operating hours for RTGS are restricted on certain days while this is not true for NEFT.

• RTGS Operating Hours: Since December 14, 2020, RTGS has been made available 24x7x365 (24 hours a day, 7 days a week, 365 days a year), including weekends and holidays.
• NEFT Operating Hours: NEFT has also been available 24x7x365 since December 2019. Therefore, the statement that RTGS operating hours are restricted while NEFT's are not is incorrect. Both systems operate round-the-clock.

Based on the analysis:

• Statement I is correct.
• Statement II is incorrect.
• Statement III is incorrect

Answer (b)

As of May 2025, the countries among the listed options where international merchant payments via India's Unified Payments Interface (UPI) are accepted include:

 United Arab Emirates (UAE): UPI payments are widely accepted across various merchant outlets in the UAE, including major retail chains like LuLu and Al Maya supermarkets.

France: UPI acceptance was launched in France in 2024, starting with the Eiffel Tower and expanding to other merchants.

1.    Singapore: UPI is integrated with Singapore's PayNow system, enabling seamless transactions at numerous merchant outlets across the country.

2.    Bangladesh: There is currently no official information confirming the acceptance of UPI payments in Bangladesh.

Germany is not listed among the countries where UPI payments are accepted.

Conclusion: Out of the five countries listed (United Arab Emirates, France, Germany, Singapore, and Bangladesh), three countries—United Arab Emirates, France, and Singapore—currently accept international merchant payments via UPI

Answer (d)

Statement I: "It targets installation of one crore solar rooftop panels in the residential sector." This is correct. The PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana aims to install rooftop solar systems in one crore households across India.

Statement II: "The Ministry of New and Renewable Energy aims to impart training on installation, operation, maintenance and repairs of solar rooftop systems at grassroot levels." This is correct. The scheme includes provisions for training and capacity building at the grassroots level, with MNRE being the nodal ministry responsible for implementation.

Statement III: "It aims to create more than three lakhs skilled manpower through fresh skilling, and up-skilling, under scheme component of capacity building." This is correct. The scheme has a significant focus on skill development and aims to create over 3 lakh skilled workers through various training programs for installation, maintenance, and operation of solar rooftop systems.

All three statements accurately describe key components of the PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana, which was announced as part of India's renewable energy initiatives

Answer (d)

Statement I: "An Ordinance can amend any Central Act." This is correct. Under Article 123, the President can promulgate an Ordinance that has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament. Therefore, an Ordinance can amend any Central Act, just as Parliament can amend any Act through legislation.

Statement II: "An Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right." This is correct. An Ordinance has the same legislative power as an Act of Parliament. Since Parliament can make laws that may impose reasonable restrictions on Fundamental Rights (subject to constitutional limitations), an Ordinance can also do the same. However, like Parliamentary laws, such Ordinances would be subject to judicial review.

Statement III: "An Ordinance can come into effect from a back date." This is correct. An Ordinance can be given retrospective effect, meaning it can come into operation from a date earlier than the date of its promulgation. This power exists because an Ordinance has the same force as an Act of Parliament, and Parliament can make retrospective laws (subject to constitutional limitations).

All three statements are constitutionally accurate regarding the powers and scope of Ordinances under the Indian Constitution

Answer (b)

Pair I: Arunachal Pradesh

·        Claim: The capital is named after a fort, and the State has two National Parks.

·        Capital: The capital of Arunachal Pradesh is Itanagar, which means "Fort of the Elder Brother" — yes, it is named after a fort.

·        National Parks: Arunachal Pradesh has two National Parks: Namdapha National Park and Mouling National Park.
✅ Correct

Pair II: Nagaland

·        Claim: The State came into existence on the basis of a Constitutional Amendment Act.

·        Nagaland was formally created as a state on 1 December 1963 through the Nagaland Act, 1962, an ordinary Parliamentary Act, not a Constitutional Amendment Act.
❌ Incorrect

Pair III: Tripura

·        Claim: Initially a Part 'C' State, it became a centrally administered territory with the reorganization of States in 1956 and later attained the status of a full-fledged State.

·        Tripura was initially a Part C State till 1956, after which it became a Union Territory (centrally administered) under the States Reorganization Act, 1956.

·        It attained full statehood later on 21 January 1972.
✅ Correct

Answer (a)

I. The Inter-State Council

• Established under Article 263 of the Constitution
• The Constitution provides that the President may establish an Inter-State Council if it appears that the public interest would be served by doing so
• This is a constitutional provision

II. The National Security Council

• Established in 1998 by executive decision, not by constitutional provision
• Created through administrative action to coordinate national security matters
• This is not established by the Constitution

III. Zonal Councils

• Established under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956
• Created by parliamentary legislation, not by constitutional provision
• While they serve an important administrative function, they are not established by the Constitution

Only the Inter-State Council was established as per the provisions of the Constitution of India (Article 263).

The National Security Council was created by executive decision, and Zonal Councils were established through parliamentary legislation

Answer (a)

Statement I: "The Constitution of India explicitly mentions that in certain spheres the Governor of a State acts in his/her own discretion."

This is correct. The Constitution explicitly mentions areas where the Governor acts in his/her discretion:

• Article 163(2) states that nothing shall prevent the Governor from exercising his functions or discharging his duties in his discretion in matters specifically mentioned
• Article 371A (for Nagaland) - Governor's special responsibility regarding law and order
• Article 371G (for Mizoram) - Similar special provisions
• Article 371H (for Arunachal Pradesh) - Special responsibility for law and order
• Various other provisions in Part XXI dealing with special provisions for certain states

Statement II: "The President of India can, of his/her own, reserve a bill passed by a State Legislature for his/her consideration without it being forwarded by the Governor of the State concerned."

This is incorrect. Under Article 200, only the Governor can reserve a bill passed by the State Legislature for the consideration of the President. The President cannot directly intervene in state legislative matters without the bill being forwarded through the proper constitutional channel (i.e., through the Governor). The President has no direct power to reserve state bills on his own.

Only Statement I is correct

Answer (c)

I. Separation of Judiciary from the Executive in the public services of the State: The Directive Principles of the State Policy

• This is found in Article 50 under Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy)
• Article 50 states: "The State shall take steps to separate the judiciary from the executive in the public services of the State" This is correct.

II. Valuing and preserving of the rich heritage of our composite culture: The Fundamental Duties

• This is found in Article 51A(f) under Part IVA (Fundamental Duties)
• Article 51A(f) states it is the duty of every citizen "to value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture" This is correct.

III. Prohibition of employment of children below the age of 14 years in factories: The Fundamental Rights

• This is found in Article 24 under Part III (Fundamental Rights)
• Article 24 states: "No child below the age of fourteen years shall be employed to work in any factory or mine or engaged in any other hazardous employment" This is correct.

All three pairs are correctly matched with their respective constitutional provisions

Answer (b)

“The State Government loses its executive power in such areas and a local body assumes total administration.”
❌ Incorrect.

·        Declaring an area as a Scheduled Area under the Fifth Schedule does not mean that the State Government loses its executive power.

·        The State Government retains its executive authority, but there are special provisions to protect the rights of the tribal population.

·        Local bodies (like Autonomous District Councils under the Sixth Schedule) may have certain powers, but they do not assume total administration.

·        The Governor of the State has special responsibilities and powers in Scheduled Areas, including the power to make regulations for peace and good governance, but this does not remove State Government’s executive power.

“The Union Government can take over the total administration of such areas under certain circumstances on the recommendations of the Governor.”
✅ Correct.

·        Under Article 244(1) and related provisions, if the Governor reports to the President that the administration of a Scheduled Area is not being carried out in accordance with the provisions of the Constitution or the laws made thereunder, the President can assume to himself all or any of the functions of the State Government in relation to that area.

·        This essentially means the Union Government can take over total administration of Scheduled Areas under certain circumstances.

Answer (d)

I. The National Automotive Board: Ministry of Commerce and Industry

• The National Automotive Board comes under the Ministry of Heavy Industries, not Ministry of Commerce and Industry
• The Ministry of Heavy Industries handles automotive sector policies and boards This is incorrect.

II. The Coir Board: Ministry of Heavy Industries

• The Coir Board comes under the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME), not Ministry of Heavy Industries
• Coir industry is classified under traditional/cottage industries which fall under MSME Ministry This is incorrect.

III. The National Centre for Trade Information: Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises

• The National Centre for Trade Information comes under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, not Ministry of MSME
• Trade information and export-import related activities are handled by the Commerce Ministry This is incorrect.

All three pairs are incorrectly matched. None of the organizations are paired with their correct parent ministries

Answer (a)

Article 368(2) specifies that amendments relating to certain matters require ratification by not less than one-half of the state legislatures before the President's assent.

The subjects that require such ratification include:

• Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and States (including Union List, State List, Concurrent List)
• Representation of States in Parliament
• Powers of the Supreme Court and High Courts
• Executive power of the Union and States
• Articles 241, 269, 270, 271, 272 to 300A

Now analyzing each subject:

I. List I-Union List, in the Seventh Schedule This involves distribution of legislative powers between Union and States, which requires ratification by half the states. This requires ratification.

II. Extent of the executive power of a State This directly relates to executive power of States, which is specifically mentioned in Article 368(2). This requires ratification.

III. Conditions of the Governor's office The conditions of Governor's office (like salary, allowances, privileges) do not fall under the categories specified in Article 368(2). These can be amended by simple majority in Parliament. This does not require ratification.

Only subjects I and II require ratification by state legislatures

Answer (d)

Statement I: "The Governor of a State is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office." This is correct. Under Article 361(1), the Governor enjoys immunity from any criminal proceedings and is not answerable to any court for the exercise and performance of the powers and duties of his office or for any act done or purporting to be done by him in the exercise and performance of those powers and duties.

Statement II: "No criminal proceedings shall be instituted or continued against the Governor during his/her term of office." This is correct. Under Article 361(2), no criminal proceedings whatsoever shall be instituted or continued against the Governor in any court during his term of office. This provides complete immunity from criminal prosecution during tenure.

Statement III: "Members of a State Legislature are not liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said within the House." This is correct. Under Article 194(2), no member of the Legislature of a State shall be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said or any vote given by him in the Legislature or any committee thereof. This is parliamentary privilege ensuring freedom of speech in the legislature.

All three statements correctly describe the constitutional immunities provided to these offices

Answer (b)

The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was established under The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006. Its mandate is to regulate the "downstream" activities in the petroleum and natural gas sector.

Let's analyze each activity:

·        I. Production of crude oil: This is an "upstream" activity, involving exploration and extraction. The PNGRB does not regulate the production of crude oil. This is primarily handled by the Directorate General of Hydrocarbons (DGH) under the Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas.

·        II. Refining, storage and distribution of petroleum: These are "downstream" activities. The PNGRB regulates the refining process (to some extent, for example, through common carrier principles), storage (particularly for specified capacities and in relation to pipelines and networks), and distribution of petroleum, especially through pipelines and city gas distribution networks.

·        III. Marketing and sale of petroleum products: These are also "downstream" activities. The PNGRB regulates the marketing and sale of notified petroleum products, including setting technical standards, ensuring adequate availability, and monitoring prices to prevent restrictive trade practices.

·        IV. Production of natural gas: Similar to crude oil production, this is an "upstream" activity. The PNGRB does not regulate the production of natural gas. This falls under the purview of the DGH and the Ministry.

Therefore, activities II and III are regulated by the PNGRB

Answer (b)

Mahatma Gandhi famously declared, "Sedition has become my religion" at the time of publicly violating the Salt Law at Dandi.

This statement was made on April 6, 1930, when he picked up a handful of salt at Dandi, symbolically breaking the British monopoly on salt and initiating the Civil Disobedience Movement. He viewed this act of defiance against an unjust law as a moral and religious duty, equating "sedition" (as defined by the British government) with his commitment to truth and non-violence in the pursuit of Swaraj (self-rule).

The other options are incorrect:

• Champaran Satyagraha (1917): This was an early civil disobedience movement, but the famous "sedition" quote is not associated with it.
• Second Round Table Conference in London (1931): This was a phase of negotiation, not direct defiance where such a statement would be made.
• Launch of the Quit India Movement (1942): While a major movement of defiance, the specific quote is historically attributed to the Salt Satyagraha period

Answer (c)

The famous female figurine known as the 'Dancing Girl', found at Mohenjo-daro, is made of bronze.

It's a remarkable example of the metallurgical skills of the Indus Valley Civilization, created using the lost-wax casting technique

Answer (b)

In the aftermath of the Chauri Chaura incident in February 1922, many people were arrested and faced severe charges. Madan Mohan Malaviya played a very significant role in providing legal defense to the accused. He, along with his son Krishna Kant Malaviya, and other lawyers, argued the case, especially during the appeal stages in the High Court. Their efforts were crucial in saving many from death sentences

Answer (a)

The event that significantly intensified Mahatma Gandhi's focus on the upliftment of 'Harijans' (the term he used for the so-called untouchables) and explicitly included it in his political and social program was The Poona Pact.

Here's why:

• The Communal Award (1932): British Prime Minister Ramsay MacDonald announced the Communal Award, which proposed separate electorates for various minority communities, including the Depressed Classes.
• Gandhi's Fast: Mahatma Gandhi strongly opposed this, believing it would permanently divide Hindu society and impede the integration of Harijans. He began a fast unto death in Yerawada Jail, Poona, in protest.
• The Poona Pact (1932): This fast led to intense negotiations between Gandhi and B.R. Ambedkar, representing the Depressed Classes. The result was the Poona Pact, an agreement that abandoned separate electorates for the Depressed Classes but provided for a significantly increased number of reserved seats for them in the general electorate.
• Intensified Harijan Work: Following the Poona Pact, Gandhi's commitment to the eradication of untouchability became an even more central part of his work. He launched the Harijan Sevak Sangh (Servants of Untouchables Society) in 1932 and began publishing the weekly journal 'Harijan' in 1933, dedicating extensive efforts to social reform and the upliftment of these communities.

The other options are incorrect:

• The Gandhi-Irwin Agreement (Delhi Pact) (1931): This was a political agreement primarily aimed at ending the Civil Disobedience Movement and securing Congress participation in the Second Round Table Conference. While Gandhi was always against untouchability, this pact did not specifically trigger the intensified focus on Harijan upliftment.
• Arrest of Congress leadership at the time of the Quit India Movement (1942): This was a later event focused on complete independence, by which time Gandhi's Harijan upliftment work was already well underway and deeply integrated into his program.
• Promulgation of the Government of India Act, 1935: This act was a constitutional framework that formalized aspects like reserved seats, but it was the Poona Pact before it that directly shaped Gandhi's specific socio-political program for Harijan upliftment

Answer (c)

The Portuguese played a significant role in introducing "New World" crops from the Americas to India during the 16th and 17th centuries.

Let's examine each fruit:

• I. Papaya: Papaya is native to tropical America. Historical evidence indicates it was introduced to Asia, including India, by the Portuguese during the 16th century.
• II. Pineapple: Pineapple originated in South America. The Portuguese were instrumental in its global spread and introduced it to India in the 16th century (specifically around 1548 AD).
• III. Guava: Guava is also native to tropical America. Similar to papaya and pineapple, guava was introduced to India by the Portuguese in the 17th century.

Answer (b)

• I. United Kingdom: The UK (including its overseas territories and crown dependencies) spans a significant range of longitudes. It has 9 time zones.
• II. Denmark: Denmark's territories include Greenland and the Faroe Islands, which greatly expand its longitudinal reach. It has 5 time zones.
• III. New Zealand: New Zealand includes its main islands and associated territories like the Chatham Islands, Cook Islands, and Tokelau. It has 5 time zones.
• IV. Australia: Australia has a vast landmass and several external territories. It has 9 time zones.
• V. Brazil: Brazil is a large country, but it has 4 time zones.

Countries with more than four time zones from the list are:

• United Kingdom (9)
• Denmark (5)
• New Zealand (5)
• Australia (9)

Brazil (4) does not have more than four time zones.

Therefore, four countries from the list have more than four time zones

Answer (a)

ï‚·  Anadyr is a city in far eastern Russia (Chukotka region, Siberia).

ï‚·  Nome is a city in western Alaska, USA.

ï‚·  Though they are separated by the Bering Strait and are only a few hundred kilometers apart, they lie on opposite sides of the International Date Line (IDL)

Statement I:

Anadyr in Siberia and Nome in Alaska are a few kilometers from each other, but when people are waking up and getting set for breakfast in these cities, it would be different days.

✅ Correct.

·        Despite the physical proximity, Anadyr is across the IDL from Nome.

·        Anadyr is 21 hours ahead of Nome.

·        So, when it's 8 AM Monday in Nome, it’s 5 AM Tuesday in Anadyr.

·        Hence, people are on different calendar days even during similar parts of the day, like breakfast time.

Statement II:

When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is Tuesday in Nome.

❌ Incorrect.

·        It's actually the opposite:

o   When it is Monday in Anadyr, it is still Sunday in Nome.

o   Anadyr is ahead, not behind.

·        Example:

o   If it’s 6 AM Monday in Anadyr, it’s around 9 AM Sunday in Nome.

Answer (c)

I. Botswana : Diamond Botswana is world-renowned for its vast diamond reserves and production. It is consistently one of the top diamond-producing countries by value and volume. This statement is correct.

II. Chile : Lithium Chile possesses the world's largest lithium reserves, primarily in the form of brine deposits in its salt flats (salar). It is a major global producer of lithium, a critical component for electric vehicle batteries. This statement is correct.

III. Indonesia : Nickel Indonesia holds the world's largest nickel reserves and is also the largest producer of nickel globally. Its nickel resources are crucial for industries like stainless steel and electric vehicle batteries. This statement is correct.

All three pairs are correctly matched

Answer (d)

• I. Mallorca : Italy
• Mallorca is the largest island in the Balearic Islands, which are an autonomous community of Spain. It is not in Italy.
• Therefore, this pair is incorrectly matched.
• II. Normandy : Spain
• Normandy is a geographical and cultural region in France. It is well-known for its history, including the D-Day landings. It is not in Spain.
• Therefore, this pair is incorrectly matched.
• III. Sardinia : France
• Sardinia is a large island in the Mediterranean Sea and is an autonomous region of Italy. It is not in France.
• Therefore, this pair is incorrectly matched.

Since none of the pairs are correctly matched, the answer is "None"

Answer (d)

• I. Mallorca : Italy
• Mallorca is the largest island in the Balearic Islands, which are an autonomous community of Spain. It is not in Italy.
• Therefore, this pair is incorrectly matched.
• II. Normandy : Spain
• Normandy is a geographical and cultural region in France. It is well-known for its history, including the D-Day landings. It is not in Spain.
• Therefore, this pair is incorrectly matched.
• III. Sardinia : France
• Sardinia is a large island in the Mediterranean Sea and is an autonomous region of Italy. It is not in France.
• Therefore, this pair is incorrectly matched.

Since none of the pairs are correctly matched, the answer is "None"