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14-Dec-2024
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INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) KEY (14/12/2024)

INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) 2025 Daily KEY

 
 
Exclusive for Subscribers Daily: Disaster Management Act and Paris Agreement for the UPSC Exam? Why are topics like India-UK Free Trade Agreement (FTA), Notifiable Disease important for both preliminary and main exams? Discover more insights in the UPSC Exam Notes for December 14, 2024

 

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Critical Topics and Their Significance for the UPSC CSE Examination on December 14, 2024

Daily Insights and Initiatives for UPSC Exam Notes: Comprehensive explanations and high-quality material provided regularly for students

 

Disaster Management Bill, 2024

For Preliminary Examination: National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), State Disaster Management Authority (SDMA), National Policy on Disaster Management (2009)

For Mains Examination: General Studies Paper II (Governance and Policy)

 

Context:

The Lok Sabha passed the Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill, 2024 Thursday through a voice vote, which seeks to amend the existing Disaster Management Act, 2005

 

Read about:

National Disaster Management Act (NDMA)

National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF)

 

Key takeaways:

 

  • The Disaster Management (Amendment) Bill, 2024, was introduced in the Lok Sabha on August 1, 2024, as an amendment to the Disaster Management Act, 2005.

    • The original Act established the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA), State Disaster Management Authority (SDMA), and District Disaster Management Authority (DDMA) to oversee disaster management at the national, state, and district levels, respectively.

  • Under the Act, National Executive Committee and State Executive Committee were constituted to assist NDMA and SDMA.

    • These committees are tasked with drafting national and state disaster management plans, which are then approved and implemented by NDMA and SDMA.
    • However, the amendment mandates that NDMA and SDMA will now prepare these plans directly.

  • The Bill authorizes state governments to set up an Urban Disaster Management Authority specifically for state capitals and cities with municipal corporations.

    • This authority will be chaired by the Municipal Commissioner, with the District Collector serving as vice-chairperson, and other members designated by the state government.

  • The Act establishes the National Disaster Response Force (NDRF) for specialized disaster response.

    • The Bill allows states to constitute a State Disaster Response Force (SDRF), whose functions and terms of service will be determined by the state government.

  • The Bill grants statutory recognition to existing bodies like the National Crisis Management Committee (NCMC) and the High-Level Committee (HLC).

    • The NCMC will act as the primary body for managing large-scale disasters with national implications, while the HLC will oversee financial aid to state governments during disasters.

  • The Act also stipulates that the central government will provide NDMA with the necessary personnel, consultants, and staff as required

 
Follow Up Question
 

Prelims MCQs:

  1. The Disaster Management Act, 2005, established which of the following institutions?
    (a) National Green Tribunal (NGT)
    (b) National Disaster Response Force (NDRF)
    (c) National Environment Management Authority
    (d) Central Pollution Control Board
    (Answer: b)

  2. Under the Disaster Management Act, who heads the State Disaster Management Authority (SDMA)?
    (a) Governor
    (b) Chief Minister
    (c) Home Minister
    (d) Chief Secretary
    (Answer: b)

Mains Questions:

  1. GS II:
    "The Disaster Management Act, 2005, has been pivotal in addressing disasters in India. Discuss its key provisions and evaluate its effectiveness in managing disasters." (250 words)

  2. GS III:
    "India faces a rising frequency of disasters due to climate change. Examine the role of the Disaster Management Act, 2005, in building a disaster-resilient nation." (250 words)

  3. GS IV:
    "During disasters, administrators often face ethical challenges in resource distribution. Discuss the role of ethical decision-making in disaster management." (250 words)

 
 

For Preliminary Examination: Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs), Target net-zero emissions by 2070, Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)

For Mains Examination: General Studies Paper III (Environment and Sustainable Development)

Context:

The Paris Agreement was supposed to save the world from the worst impacts of climate change. But nine years after it was finalised — on December 12, 2015 — it is perhaps more fragile than ever, appearing increasingly ineffective and helpless in containing the rapidly worsening climate situation.

Read about:

Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs)

Paris Agreement

 

Key takeaways:

  • The Paris Agreement was envisioned as a global effort to mitigate the worst effects of climate change. However, nine years since its adoption on December 12, 2015, it appears increasingly fragile and ineffective in addressing the rapidly worsening climate crisis.
  • During this period, annual global emissions have risen by 8%, from approximately 49 billion tonnes of CO2 equivalent to 53 billion tonnes. Meanwhile, average global temperatures have increased from 1.1°C above pre-industrial levels to 1.45°C. Projections now indicate that 2024 is likely to be the first year to exceed the 1.5°C threshold.
  • The Paris Agreement’s primary goal—to limit global temperature rise to 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels, or 2°C at the most—seems increasingly unattainable.
  • This has led to growing frustration among developing nations, particularly small island states, which are now exploring alternative approaches to combat climate change more effectively. The International Court of Justice is currently deliberating on a case to define nations’ obligations and potential repercussions concerning climate responsibilities.
  • Before the Paris Agreement, the Kyoto Protocol of 1997 had established the principle of equity and differentiated responsibilities, requiring developed countries to take the lead in reducing emissions while allowing developing nations to contribute as per their capabilities.
  • However, with the growing economic influence of China and the perceived economic constraints of climate obligations, developed countries sought to undermine the Kyoto Protocol.
  • Although their initial attempt at the 2009 Copenhagen conference failed, they succeeded in dismantling it during the Paris negotiations in 2015.
  • The Paris Agreement, while aiming to make all nations accountable, diluted the fight against climate change by adopting a system of "nationally determined contributions" (NDCs).
  • This approach effectively removed specific emission reduction obligations for developed nations, reducing global climate action to the bare minimum needed to fulfill Paris commitments. As a result, current efforts are misaligned with the emission reductions necessary to limit global warming.
  • Even the limited provisions of the Paris Agreement have been progressively weakened over time to serve the interests of developed countries. A prime example is the financial agreement reached in Baku.
  • Under the UNFCCC, developed nations are obligated to provide financial and technological assistance to developing countries for climate action.
  • Despite their 2020 pledge to raise $100 billion annually, assessments indicate that trillions are required to address the challenges effectively.
  • Instead of scaling up ambition, developed countries agreed in Baku to raise the $100 billion target to just $300 billion annually by 2035.
  • This meager increase severely undermines the ability of developing nations to pursue meaningful climate action, further stalling progress in the fight against global warming

 

Follow Up Question

1.Which of the following is a goal of the Paris Agreement?


(a) Limit global temperature rise to 3°C above pre-industrial levels.
(b) Ensure carbon neutrality for all nations by 2050.
(c) Limit global temperature rise to well below 2°C, with efforts to keep it at 1.5°C.
(d) Mandate all countries to phase out fossil fuels by 2040.

Answer (c)

The Paris Agreement, adopted in 2015 at the UN Climate Change Conference (COP21), has a central goal of strengthening the global response to climate change by keeping the global temperature rise this century well below 2°C above pre-industrial levels, and preferably limiting the increase to 1.5°C.

Let's quickly review why the other options are incorrect:

  • Option (a) is incorrect because 3°C would be far too high and would result in catastrophic climate impacts.
  • Option (b) is not specifically the goal of the Paris Agreement, though carbon neutrality is an important related concept.
  • Option (d) is not part of the agreement's specific wording, though the agreement does encourage reducing fossil fuel emissions.

2.What is the significance of Article 6 of the Paris Agreement?


(a) It establishes funding for adaptation projects.
(b) It creates carbon market mechanisms for international cooperation.
(c) It mandates countries to submit NDCs every two years.
(d) It outlines penalties for non-compliance.

Answer (b)
 

Article 6 of the Paris Agreement is a crucial provision that establishes international cooperation mechanisms for carbon trading and emissions reduction. Specifically, it provides a framework for countries to voluntarily cooperate in achieving their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) through market-based approaches.

Key aspects of Article 6 include:

  • Allowing countries to trade carbon credits internationally
  • Creating a mechanism for sustainable development
  • Promoting transparency and environmental integrity in carbon markets
  • Helping countries reduce emissions more cost-effectively by enabling them to transfer and use internationally transferred mitigation outcomes (ITMOs)
 
 

India-UK FTA talks by January end

For Preliminary Examination: General Studies II: Bilateral, regional and global groupings and agreements involving India and/or affecting India’s interests.

For Mains Examination: The India-UK Free Trade Agreement (FTA) talks with the new UK government are set to commence by the end of January

Context:

The India-UK Free Trade Agreement (FTA) talks with the new UK government are set to commence by the end of January

Read about:

Free Trade Agreement (FTA)

 European Union(EU)

 

Key takeaways:

  • India is increasingly focusing on trade deals with larger markets like the UK and EU, prioritizing countries that offer significant export growth potential rather than smaller nations that may provide more market access for the partner country.
  • To streamline this approach, the commerce ministry is working on a new Standard Operating Procedure (SOP) to optimize the negotiation processes for future trade agreements.
  • This shift comes after several trade agreements, such as the one with the UAE that took effect in February 2022 and the 2010 ASEAN pact, resulted in a noticeable rise in imports relative to exports, raising concerns over potential violations of rules of origin.
  • The ongoing dispute between India and the EU over the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) continues to be a major issue. In response, the Indian minister has emphasized that discussions on sustainability should adhere to the principle of ‘Common but Differentiated Responsibilities (CBDR)’ and take into account varying development levels.
  • Bilateral trade between India and the UK grew by 16% to reach US $20.36 billion in 2022-23, with India’s exports rising to $11.4 billion from $10.5 billion the previous year, while imports from the UK climbed to $8.96 billion.
  • In January 2022, both nations began talks on a Free Trade Agreement (FTA) to strengthen economic ties. The agreement includes 26 chapters covering goods, services, investment, and intellectual property. The bilateral trade between India and the UK rose to $21.34 billion in 2023-24.
  • The CBAM, set to come into effect in January 2026, will require Indian companies in seven carbon-intensive sectors, including steel, cement, and fertilizers, to provide carbon emissions data to the EU starting October 1, 2023.
  • Similarly, the UK is planning to implement a carbon tax on metal imports, which could negatively impact India’s exports, even if India secures tariff reductions. The UK's carbon tax is designed to reduce reliance on Russian energy imports.
  • India has raised concerns about the CBAM, particularly its impact on steel exports, as the tax would affect Indian steel manufacturers targeting the UK market.
  • The EU remains India’s third-largest trading partner, with €88 billion in trade in 2021, accounting for 10.8% of India’s total trade. India is the EU's 10th-largest trading partner, contributing to 2.1% of EU trade. Trade in services between the two reached €30.4 billion in 2020.
  • According to the Global Trade Research Initiative (GTRI), as India aspires to become the third-largest economy, it needs to align its treaties with global investment norms, address the negative perceptions stemming from the cancellation of numerous treaties, and improve its negotiation strategies. GTRI pointed out that India had canceled 77 of its over 80 Bilateral Investment Treaties (BITs) by 2016 due to misalignment with its interests.
  • Rules of origin, which determine the national origin of products, have been a key point of contention in FTA talks with the UK.
  • These rules are crucial because countries impose tariffs or restrictions on products based on their origin.
  • Additionally, India’s commerce and tax officials are negotiating on duty cuts for alcohol and whisky imports from the UK, which could impact the local bottling industry. Consequently, negotiations have progressed slowly.
  • EFTA (European Free Trade Association) countries, not part of the EU, represent an alternative for countries not wishing to join the European Community. In 2022-23, India’s exports to EFTA countries totaled $1.67 billion, down from $1.74 billion in the previous year, while imports from EFTA countries decreased from $25.5 billion to $15 billion, resulting in a trade deficit for India

 Follow Up Question

 

1.Consider the following statements regarding Free Trade Agreements (FTAs):

  1. FTAs are agreements between two or more countries to reduce or eliminate trade barriers such as tariffs and quotas.
  2. The Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) is a type of FTA that focuses on the exchange of services and investments between countries.
  3. FTAs are binding agreements that ensure mutual tariff reduction between all sectors, including agriculture, industry, and services.
  4. The India-ASEAN Free Trade Agreement was signed in 2010 to facilitate trade in goods and services.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

A) 1, 2, and 4
B) 1, 3, and 4
C) 2 and 4 only
D) 1 and 2 only

Answer (A)
 
  • "FTAs are agreements between two or more countries to reduce or eliminate trade barriers such as tariffs and quotas."
    • This statement is CORRECT. Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) are international agreements designed to reduce or eliminate trade barriers between participating countries.
  • "The Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) is a type of FTA that focuses on the exchange of services and investments between countries."
    • This statement is PARTIALLY CORRECT. CEPA is broader than a typical FTA and does indeed focus on services and investments, but it's not strictly a type of FTA. CEPAs often go beyond traditional FTAs by covering a wider range of economic cooperation areas.
  • "FTAs are binding agreements that ensure mutual tariff reduction between all sectors, including agriculture, industry, and services."
    • This statement is INCORRECT. While FTAs aim to reduce trade barriers, they do not necessarily ensure tariff reduction across ALL sectors. Many FTAs have exceptions, phased reductions, or sensitive sectors that are partially or fully exempted from immediate tariff cuts.
  • "The India-ASEAN Free Trade Agreement was signed in 2010 to facilitate trade in goods and services."
    • This statement is CORRECT. The India-ASEAN Free Trade Area (AFTA) agreement was indeed signed in 2010 to promote trade in goods and services between India and ASEAN countries.
 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international importance
 
For Mains Examination: GS Paper II: Indian Polity and Governance
 
Context:
 
The Supreme Court slammed the Devaswom administration of Sri Krishna temple in Kerala’s Guruvayur for deciding not to conduct the age-old ‘Udayasthamana Pooja’ on Guruvayur Ekadashi day (December 11) citing crowd management and wondered how it could have decided so.
 
Read about:
 
Adi Shankaracharya
 
Which philosophy was founded by Shankaracharya?
 
Do you think that the judiciary should intervene in the administration of religious institutions?
 
 
Key takeaways:
 
 The Udayasthamana Pooja is a series of worship rituals conducted at temples from sunrise (udaya) to sunset (asthamana). Recently, the temple administration decided to omit this ritual on Ekadasi, citing difficulties in crowd management and a desire to give devotees more time for darshan.
• Previously, the Kerala High Court dismissed a case on this issue, ruling that the Tantri had the final say in such matters. However, the Supreme Court has now issued notices to the temple management, the Kerala government, and the Tantri, and will hear the case in four weeks.
• The controversy emerged when the temple administration, supported by the Tantri, chose not to perform the Udayasthamana Pooja on Vrishchikam Ekadasi, due to challenges with crowd control and a need to provide more time for devotees to have darshan. This decision was opposed by members of the temple’s hereditary priestly family, who argued that it disrupted long-established customs and traditions.
• The temple administration and the Tantri contended that the pooja is not a mandatory ritual but an offering (vazhipadu) that has been modified in the past to accommodate practical considerations. They stressed that the decision was made with the Tantri’s approval, ensuring that the temple’s rituals and traditions would not be compromised.
• The High Court observed that whether the performance of the pooja on Vrishchikam Ekadasi is an essential part of the temple’s traditions (acharams) or just an offering (vazhipadu) is a matter for factual determination.
 
Adi Sankaracharya
 
Adi Shankaracharya, a prominent philosopher and theologian in 8th-century India, is regarded as one of the most influential figures in the development of Indian philosophy. His philosophy primarily revolves around the concept of Advaita Vedanta (non-dualism), which advocates the idea that the ultimate reality (Brahman) is singular and beyond all dualities.
 
Here are key aspects of his philosophy:
 
  • According to Shankaracharya, the ultimate reality is Brahman, which is formless, eternal, and beyond all attributes. Brahman is not subject to birth, death, or change and is the only true existence.
  • The world we perceive is Maya (illusion), and it is the ignorance (Avidya) of our true nature that causes us to see multiplicity and diversity in the world.
  • Atman (the individual self) is not different from Brahman. Realization of this oneness (called Moksha) occurs when a person overcomes ignorance and sees that their true self (Atman) is identical with the universal self (Brahman)
 
Shankaracharya's philosophy of Advaita Vedanta remains a central doctrine in Hinduism. His teachings emphasize the non-duality of existence, the illusory nature of the world, and the importance of self-realization through knowledge. By transcending ignorance and realizing the oneness of Atman and Brahman, individuals can attain liberation and end the cycle of rebirth and suffering.
 
 
Follow Up Question
 

1.Which of the following statements accurately reflects the philosophy of Adi Shankaracharya?

  1. Adi Shankaracharya is known for establishing the doctrine of Advaita Vedanta, which asserts that the ultimate reality is non-dual, and the individual soul (Atman) is identical with the universal soul (Brahman).
  2. Shankaracharya's philosophy emphasizes that the physical world is the absolute reality and the ultimate goal is to attain a materialistic view of life.
  3. According to Shankaracharya, the concept of Maya (illusion) suggests that the physical world is real and eternal, and ignorance (Avidya) is not a significant obstacle in spiritual progress.
  4. Shankaracharya's teachings were focused solely on the performance of rituals and sacrifices as the means to attain liberation.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

A) 1 and 2
B) 1 and 3
C) 1 and 4
D) 1 only

Answer (D)
 
  1. "Adi Shankaracharya is known for establishing the doctrine of Advaita Vedanta, which asserts that the ultimate reality is non-dual, and the individual soul (Atman) is identical with the universal soul (Brahman)."
    • This statement is CORRECT. Adi Shankaracharya is renowned for developing and propagating Advaita Vedanta, a philosophical school that emphasizes the fundamental non-duality of existence. In this philosophy, the individual soul (Atman) is ultimately one with the universal consciousness (Brahman).
  2. "Shankaracharya's philosophy emphasizes that the physical world is the absolute reality and the ultimate goal is to attain a materialistic view of life."
    • This statement is INCORRECT. In fact, it's the opposite of Shankaracharya's philosophy. Advaita Vedanta teaches that the physical world is ultimately an illusion (Maya) and not the absolute reality. The goal is spiritual liberation (moksha), not material pursuits.
  3. "According to Shankaracharya, the concept of Maya (illusion) suggests that the physical world is real and eternal, and ignorance (Avidya) is not a significant obstacle in spiritual progress."
    • This statement is INCORRECT. In Advaita Vedanta, Maya represents the illusive nature of the physical world. Shankaracharya viewed the physical world as transient and not ultimately real. Avidya (ignorance) is considered a crucial obstacle to spiritual understanding and liberation.
  4. "Shankaracharya's teachings were focused solely on the performance of rituals and sacrifices as the means to attain liberation."
    • This statement is INCORRECT. While Shankaracharya acknowledged the importance of rituals, his philosophy emphasized knowledge (Jnana) as the primary path to liberation. He advocated for self-realization and understanding the non-dual nature of reality, not just ritualistic practices.

Key philosophical points of Adi Shankaracharya:

  • Non-duality (Advaita) of Atman and Brahman
  • The illusory nature of the physical world (Maya)
  • Knowledge and self-realization as the path to liberation
  • Critique of purely ritualistic approaches to spirituality
 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international importance
 
For Mains Examination: GS III - Science & Technology
 
Context:
 
The Union Health Ministry has urged states to make snakebites a notifiable disease — a disease that is legally required to be reported to the government by both private and public hospitals.
 
Read about:
 
Non Communicable Disease
 
What is a Notifiable Disease?
 
 
Key takeaways:
 

A notifiable disease is any disease that is required by law to be reported to government authorities when diagnosed. These diseases are considered significant due to their potential to spread, cause serious health complications, or lead to outbreaks within the community. The purpose of declaring a disease notifiable is to enable timely public health responses, including tracking, controlling, and preventing further spread.

Key Points about Notifiable Diseases:

  • Mandatory Reporting: Health professionals and laboratories are legally required to report cases of notifiable diseases to local, state, or national health authorities.

  • Public Health Monitoring: It helps in monitoring disease patterns, controlling outbreaks, and preparing preventive measures.

  • Examples of Notifiable Diseases:

    • Infectious Diseases: Tuberculosis, cholera, malaria, HIV/AIDS, and measles.
    • Emerging Threats: Diseases such as bird flu, SARS, or novel pathogens that could lead to an outbreak.

  • Purpose of Notifiable Status:

    • Early Detection: Quick identification of an outbreak or unusual patterns of illness.
    • Epidemic Control: Enables swift action such as isolation, quarantine, and vaccination campaigns.
    • Resource Allocation: Helps in directing resources where they are most needed, such as vaccines, medicines, and health personnel.

Snakebite as a Notifiable Disease

Snakebites are a significant public health issue in many countries, including India, where they contribute to a large number of fatalities each year. As a result, making snakebite a notifiable disease can have significant public health benefits. This approach helps in better management of snakebite cases, tracking trends, allocating resources for treatment, and preventing further fatalities.

 

Follow Up Question

1.Which of the following statements about notifiable diseases is correct?

  1. Notifiable diseases must be reported to government authorities to enable timely interventions in case of an outbreak.
  2. All diseases, including minor ones, are declared notifiable by the government.
  3. Reporting of notifiable diseases is voluntary for healthcare providers and laboratories.
  4. The purpose of declaring diseases notifiable is solely for epidemiological research.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2
C) 1 and 4
D) 2 and 3

 

Answer (A)
 
  1. "Notifiable diseases must be reported to government authorities to enable timely interventions in case of an outbreak."
    • This statement is CORRECT. Notifiable diseases are those that must be reported to public health authorities immediately upon diagnosis. The primary purposes are to:
      • Allow rapid public health response
      • Track disease spread
      • Implement control and prevention measures
      • Protect public health
  2. "All diseases, including minor ones, are declared notifiable by the government."
    • This statement is INCORRECT. Only specific diseases that pose significant public health risks are declared notifiable. These typically include:
      • Highly infectious diseases
      • Diseases with potential for rapid spread
      • Diseases that can cause serious health complications
      • Diseases with epidemic or pandemic potential
  3. "Reporting of notifiable diseases is voluntary for healthcare providers and laboratories."
    • This statement is INCORRECT. Reporting notifiable diseases is MANDATORY for healthcare providers, hospitals, laboratories, and other medical facilities. Legal requirements typically mandate immediate reporting to prevent disease spread.
  4. "The purpose of declaring diseases notifiable is solely for epidemiological research."
    • This statement is INCORRECT. While epidemiological research is one benefit, it is not the sole purpose. The primary objectives include:
      • Immediate public health intervention
      • Disease control and prevention
      • Tracking disease patterns
      • Protecting community health
      • Implementing targeted medical responses

Notifiable diseases are carefully selected based on their potential public health impact, transmission rate, severity, and ability to cause outbreaks. Examples include:

  • COVID-19
  • Tuberculosis
  • Measles
  • HIV/AIDS
  • Cholera
  • Polio
 
 
 
Subject and Subject Wise Notes for the Sunday Exam (Free)
 
Subject Topic Description
History Modern Indian History Important Personalities
History  Modern Indian History Independence and Partition
History Modern Indian History Constitutional Development in India
History Modern Indian History Peasants, Tribal and other movements
 

 

UPSC EXAM NOTES will be conducting both Prelims and Mains exams every Sunday as part of the Integrated Mains and Prelims (IMPM) Program. This program provides a comprehensive approach to UPSC exam preparation, ensuring that candidates are well-prepared for both stages of the exam.

Program Highlights:

  • Daily Study Keys: Each day, we will provide keys that outline what to read, focusing on the most relevant topics and current affairs.
  • Subject Notes: In addition to daily keys, we will supply detailed subject notes to help you build a strong foundation in all necessary areas.
  • Sunday Exams: Every Sunday, a combined exam will be held, encompassing the daily keys' content and subject notes, along with a culmination of current affairs from various sources. These exams will cover both Prelims and Mains syllabi.
  • Format: Exams will be available in both online and offline formats to cater to different preferences and situations.

Duration: The IMPM plan is a one-year program, ensuring continuous and structured preparation over 12 months. With regular testing and consistent study guidance, this program is designed to maximize your chances of success in the UPSC exams
 
 
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