INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) KEY (17/03/2025)

INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) 2025 Daily KEY

 
 
 
 
Exclusive for Subscribers Daily: National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA) and Raisina Dialogue and its significance for the UPSC Exam? Why are topics like Significance of Solar energy  , Compensatory Afforestation Fund (CAF) important for both preliminary and main exams? Discover more insights in the UPSC Exam Notes for March 17, 2025

 

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Critical Topics and Their Significance for the UPSC CSE Examination on March 17, 2025

Daily Insights and Initiatives for UPSC Exam Notes: Comprehensive explanations and high-quality material provided regularly for students

 

Why has India got another tiger reserve?

For Preliminary Examination : Current events of national and international importance

For Mains Examination: GS III - Environment & Ecology

Context:

On March 9, Environment Minister Bhupender Yadav announced that the Centre had declared the Madhav National Park in Madhya Pradesh as the country’s 58th tiger reserve. This is the ninth tiger reserve in the State, the highest among the States. Maharashtra has six; Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, and Karnataka have five each.

 

Source: The Hindu

Read about:

 

National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA)

Project tiger

 

Key takeaways:

 

Rationale for Establishing Tiger Reserves

Historically, tigers were widespread across India, but their population declined significantly due to hunting, poaching, and the colonial-era exploitation of forests for timber. In 1964, estimates suggested that around 40,000 tigers roamed India at the beginning of the 20th century. However, by the 1960s, rampant hunting, the increase in gun licenses post-independence, easier access to forests, large-scale deforestation, and the rise of commercial "Shikar Companies" and the fur trade had reduced their numbers to between 2,000 and 4,000.

Concerned about this decline, naturalists raised alarms, prompting the Indian Board for Wildlife (IBWL)—a predecessor to the National Board for Wildlife (NBWL)—to convene a meeting in New Delhi in July 1969. It recommended an outright ban on the export of wild cat skins, including tigers. That same year, the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN), during its 10th Assembly in Delhi, included tigers in its Red Data Book, classifying them as an endangered species and advocating for a ban on tiger hunting.

With numbers dwindling to approximately 1,863, then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi commissioned an 11-member Task Force to assess the situation and propose conservation strategies. In August 1972, the Task Force recommended protecting eight tiger habitats across India under what became ‘Project Tiger’. The initiative was officially launched on April 1, 1973, at Corbett Tiger Reserve, with an initial set of nine tiger reserves representing different tiger ecosystems:

  1. Corbett (Uttarakhand, formerly Uttar Pradesh)
  2. Palamau (Jharkhand, formerly Bihar)
  3. Simlipal (Odisha)
  4. Sundarbans (West Bengal)
  5. Manas (Assam)
  6. Ranthambore (Rajasthan)
  7. Kanha (Madhya Pradesh)
  8. Melghat (Maharashtra)
  9. Bandipur (Karnataka)

 

What Does Establishing a Tiger Reserve Involve?

Since 2006, Project Tiger has been overseen by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA), which requires every tiger reserve to operate under a site-specific management plan. This initiative laid the foundation for the scientific management of protected areas, introducing key concepts such as:

  • Core Zones and Buffer Zones to safeguard tiger habitats.
  • Protection measures and habitat restoration techniques.
  • Field research to monitor changes in flora and fauna populations.
  • Systematic animal population estimation and conservation strategies.

Additionally, the NTCA mandates the creation of Tiger Conservation Plans (TCPs) to ensure:

  1. Protection and habitat management for sustaining viable populations of tigers, prey, and co-predators.
  2. Ecologically compatible land use within reserves and connecting corridors to balance conservation with local community livelihoods.

Given that some reserves are small and surrounded by human settlements, NTCA's strategy involves creating source populations within tiger reserves and establishing corridors that link these sources to surrounding areas, known as sink habitats. Source areas support growing tiger populations, while sink habitats require tiger reintroduction efforts to maintain viable numbers.

The process of declaring a tiger reserve involves:

  • The State Government submitting a proposal to the Centre.
  • NTCA evaluating the proposal and recommending it after a thorough review.
  • The State Government officially designating the area as a Tiger Reserve

 

Funding for Tiger Reserves

Under Project Tiger, funding responsibilities are divided between the Central and State Governments:

  • For most states: The Centre contributes 60%, while the respective State Government provides 40%.
  • For Northeastern and Himalayan States: The Centre covers 90% of the expenses.

These funds are allocated for:

  • Anti-poaching measures and wildlife protection.
  • Habitat restoration and water resource development.
  • Human-wildlife conflict mitigation and establishing inviolate spaces for tigers.
  • Relocation of villages from critical tiger habitats with improved rehabilitation packages.
  • Recognizing and settling the rights of displaced communities and rehabilitating traditional hunting tribes.
  • Independent monitoring and evaluation of tiger reserve

Significance of Madhav National Park

  • Initially notified as a National Park in 1956 under the MP National Parks Act, 1955, Madhav National Park spanned 165.32 sq km. Today, its core area has expanded to 355 sq km, with a buffer zone covering 4-6 sq km.
  • The park had no resident tiger population until 2023, when a male tiger and two females were relocated. Since then, the population has grown to seven.
  • Importantly, Madhav Tiger Reserve serves as a key corridor connecting Ranthambore Tiger Reserve (Rajasthan) and Kuno National Park (Madhya Pradesh).
  • With Kuno hosting captive cheetahs, experts anticipate potential competition among predators for prey species like deer, making it an ecologically dynamic zone.
  • Madhya Pradesh is home to several major tiger reserves, including Kanha, Panna, and Bandhavgarh, and boasts India’s highest tiger population (785 tigers) due to effective conservation efforts.
  • However, the Kuno-Madhav forest division in the northern part of the state has historically received less attention. With Kuno gaining importance as a cheetah reserve, a centralized management strategy is being considered to oversee both cheetah and tiger populations, enhancing the region’s long-term conservation prospects
 
Follow Up Question
 

1.The term ‘M-STRIPES’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of (UPSC 2017)

(a) Captive breeding of Wild Fauna

(b) Maintenance of Tiger Reserves

(c) Indigenous Satellite Navigation System

(d) Security of National Highways

Answer (b)
 
M-STRiPES (Monitoring System for Tigers – Intensive Protection and Ecological Status) is a GPS-based software developed by the National Tiger Conservation Authority (NTCA). It is used for scientific monitoring of tiger reserves, tracking patrolling activities, recording ecological parameters, and preventing poaching in tiger habitats
 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international importance
 
For Mains Examination: GS II - International relations and organisations
 
Context:
 
A month after this year’s explosive Munich Security Conference, where U.S. Vice President J.D. Vance put Europe on notice, Delhi is set to host the annual Raisina Dialogue from March 17-19, where U.S. President Donald Trump’s seismic foreign policy shifts are expected to be the big conversation points again.
 
Read about:
 
What is Raisina dialogue?
 
 
Key takeaways:
 
  • The 10th edition of the annual Raisina Dialogue is set to be inaugurated on Monday by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, with New Zealand Prime Minister Christopher Luxon as the chief guest delivering the keynote address. The event's theme, "Kalachakra" (wheel of time), reflects its focus on global shifts and evolving geopolitical dynamics.
  • A significant U.S. delegation is anticipated to take center stage, given the complexities in American foreign policy under former President Donald Trump. Key issues include the Ukraine conflict, U.S.-Russia negotiations, new tariff policies affecting global trade (including India), strained ties with NATO and European allies, uncertainties surrounding U.S. strategy in the Indo-Pacific, and evolving positions on China and Taiwan.
  • Amid these geopolitical challenges, U.S. Director of National Intelligence Tulsi Gabbard is leading a delegation to Delhi for an intelligence chiefs’ conference, hosted by National Security Adviser Ajit Doval. She will also address the Raisina Dialogue.
  • Other notable U.S. speakers include Ricky Gill, Special Assistant to former President Trump and National Security Council official, as well as James Carafano, a key figure behind the Republican policy blueprint "Project 2025". They are expected to articulate and justify recent U.S. policy decisions.
  • Additionally, a Quad panel discussion featuring senior naval officials from India, Australia, Japan, and the U.S. is scheduled, aligning with India's preparations to host the upcoming Quad Leaders’ Summit. The summit is expected to bring new developments in maritime security cooperation
  • The Raisina Dialogue comes at a time of significant developments in the Russia-Ukraine conflict, including recent tensions between Donald Trump and Ukrainian President Volodymyr Zelenskyy in Washington, followed by rounds of U.S.-Russia and U.S.-Ukraine ceasefire discussions.
  • These geopolitical shifts are expected to be central to the dialogue, both in official sessions and on the sidelines. Notably, 11 out of the 20 Foreign Ministers attending the event are from Europe, including Ukraine’s Foreign Minister, Andrii Sybiha.
  • In 2024, European representation was even more prominent, with Greek Prime Minister Kyriakos Mitsotakis as the chief guest and 15 out of 21 Foreign Ministers advocating for India to reconsider its stance on Ukraine.
  • This year, discussions are likely to focus on diverging viewpoints between European leaders and U.S. representatives, particularly Tulsi Gabbard, who has previously supported closer U.S.-Russia relations. Russian Foreign Minister Sergey Lavrov, a regular speaker at past editions, will be absent this year. His last appearance at the 2023 Raisina Dialogue saw intense exchanges over Russia’s involvement in ceasefire negotiations.
  • Additionally, International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) Chief Rafael Grossi is set to address key topics, including the Ukraine conflict and the potential revival of nuclear talks with Iran.
  • The speaker lineup at the Raisina Dialogue is often a reflection of India’s diplomatic engagements, highlighting not only who is attending but also those who are absent.
  • This year, the Foreign Ministers of Bhutan (D.N. Dhungyel), Nepal (Arzu Rana Deuba), the Maldives (Abdulla Khaleel), and Mauritius (Dhananjay Ramful) will be participating.
  • Due to strained ties with Pakistan, the Raisina Dialogue does not invite Pakistani representatives. However, it is notable that no officials from Bangladesh or the Yunus government are included in this year’s lineup.
  • Meanwhile, the presence of a speaker from China’s Fudan University signals a possible easing of tensions between India and China, following the meeting between Prime Minister Modi and Chinese President Xi Jinping in October.
  • Another potential diplomatic breakthrough could involve Canada, following a change in leadership. Daniel Rogers, Director of the Canadian Security Intelligence Service, is in Delhi and may attend, alongside former Canadian Prime Minister Stephen Harper and former Australian Prime Minister Tony Abbott, both of whom are regular participants.
  • Despite India’s ongoing diplomatic outreach to West Asia (GCC) and Southeast Asia (ASEAN), representation from these regions remains limited, a trend observed in recent years. The only ASEAN members attending are the Philippines’ Foreign Secretary Enrique Manalo and Thailand’s Foreign Minister Maris Sangiampongsa. Additionally, Foreign Ministers from Ghana, Cuba, Peru, and Antigua and Barbuda will represent the Global South at the dialogue
 
Follow Up Question
 

1.Consider the following pairs: (2020)

International agreement/set-up : Subject

1. Alma-Ata Declaration : Healthcare of the people

2. Hague Convention : Biological and chemical weapons

3. Talanoa Dialogue : Global climate change

4. Under2 Coalition : Child rights

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

 

Answer (c)
 
  • Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people  Correct

    • The Alma-Ata Declaration (1978) was adopted at the International Conference on Primary Health Care, emphasizing health as a fundamental human right and promoting primary healthcare as key to achieving universal health coverage.
  • Hague Convention – Biological and chemical weapons  Incorrect

    • The Hague Conventions (1899 & 1907) deal primarily with the laws of war and war crimes, not specifically biological or chemical weapons.
    • The Biological Weapons Convention (BWC) and Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) are separate international treaties addressing such weapons.
  • Talanoa Dialogue – Global climate change  Correct

    • The Talanoa Dialogue was introduced at the 2017 UN Climate Change Conference (COP23) as a facilitative dialogue to assess collective progress toward climate goals under the Paris Agreement.
  • Under2 Coalition – Child rights  Incorrect

    • The Under2 Coalition is a climate action initiative that brings together subnational governments (states, regions, provinces) committed to limiting global temperature rise below 2°C in line with the Paris Agreement.
    • It is not related to child rights
 
 
For Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international importance
 
For Mains Examination:  GS III - Environment
 
Context:
 
Solar cells perform best under bright sunlight. They also need lower ambient temperature and airflow over them for cooling. Any imbalance in these factors lowers solar cell performance. Researchers have found that solar radiation was the main factor affecting solar-cell efficiency, followed by temperature
 
Read about:
 
Significance of Solar energy
 
Solar power and climate
 
 
Key takeaways:
 
  • Accurately predicting future renewable energy potential, especially solar energy in India, where solar installations are rapidly increasing, is essential for ensuring a sustainable and resilient energy future
  • Such research fosters innovations aimed at reducing greenhouse gas emissions by exploring viable energy alternatives and, more importantly, improving photovoltaic cell design While India experiences approximately 300 sunny days per year, their quality is deteriorating due to air pollution. The amount of solar radiation reaching the Earth’s surface is not constant over time but undergoes long-term fluctuations, known as global dimming and brightening
  • These variations depend on atmospheric factors such as clouds, aerosols, particulate matter, water vapor, and greenhouse gases like ozone. Clouds reflect solar radiation, while aerosols can scatter or absorb it. Consequently, on cloudy or hazy days with high particulate pollution, less solar radiation reaches solar panels, leading to reduced energy generation
  • To assess future trends, the research team analyzed historical data from 1985 to 2014 and projected changes for the period 2041-2050. "Given that photovoltaic power plants typically have a lifespan of 20-25 years, studying the 2040s aligns well with the operational life of current and upcoming installations," Ghosh noted. "Beyond this timeframe, the findings may lose practical relevance."
  • The study relied on global climate models, cross-referencing them with observational data from NASA’s Clouds and the Earth’s Radiant Energy System (CERES) project and the India Meteorological Department. CERES instruments measure Earth's radiation from space, helping scientists understand the influence of cloud cover on climate change.
  • Two scenarios were examined: the first involved moderate efforts to improve air quality and mitigate climate change, while the second had weaker climate action but stronger air pollution control measures.
  • Air pollution reduces the amount of solar radiation reaching panels, decreasing energy output. Additionally, rising temperatures from climate change diminish solar cell efficiency
  • The models projected that by mid-century, India’s solar panel efficiency would decline by 2.3% under the second scenario, with a greater reduction in the first scenario. Given current solar energy production levels, this could result in an annual loss of at least 840 gigawatt-hours of electricity. Higher temperature-related losses were observed in the second scenario due to weaker climate action.
  • “This research, based on radiation data from global climate models, offers crucial insights into the potential impact of rising air pollution on photovoltaic efficiency,” said Ramachandra, who was not directly involved in the study.
  • Solar panels function optimally under intense sunlight while also requiring lower ambient temperatures and adequate airflow for cooling. Any disruption in these factors reduces their performance.
  • The study determined that solar radiation was the most significant factor influencing solar cell efficiency, followed by temperature. Wind speed also played a role, but its impact was relatively minor
 
Follow Up Question
 
1.In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index? (UPSC 2016)
  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Carbon monoxide
  3. Nitrogen dioxide
  4. Sulfur dioxide
  5. Methane

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2 and 3 only     

B. 2, 3 and 4 only   

C. 1, 4 and 5 only     

D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer (B)
 

The Air Quality Index (AQI) in India is calculated based on the concentration of key pollutants, as per the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB). The pollutants considered include:

  • Particulate Matter (PM10 and PM2.5)
  • Nitrogen Dioxide (NOâ‚‚)
  • Sulfur Dioxide (SOâ‚‚)
  • Carbon Monoxide (CO)
  • Ozone (O₃)
  • Ammonia (NH₃)
  • Lead (Pb)

Evaluating the given options:

  • Carbon dioxide (COâ‚‚) is not considered in AQI calculation.
  • Methane (CHâ‚„) is also not included in AQI measurement.
  • Carbon monoxide (CO), Nitrogen dioxide (NOâ‚‚), and Sulfur dioxide (SOâ‚‚) are part of the AQI calculation
 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international importance
 
For Mains Exmaination: GS III - Science & technology
 
Context:
 
Bharti Airtel and Reliance Jio have signed distribution pacts with SpaceX Corp.’s Starlink service to bring satellite internet access to India. The distribution pacts are a reversal from the telecom industry’s reluctance to quickly make the Starlink service available in India without auctions for the satellite airwaves.
 
Read about:
 
Global Mobile Personal Communications by Satellite (GMPCS)
 
Telegraph Act, 1885
 
Key takeaways:
 

Understanding Starlink

Starlink is a network of over 7,000 low-earth orbit satellites designed to provide internet access through ground terminals. Developed by SpaceX, a company owned by Elon Musk, the service is already operational in about 40 countries. These satellites continuously move around the Earth, ensuring near-global coverage, as long as the user’s terminal has an unobstructed view of the sky.

The internet speeds provided by Starlink are roughly 100 megabits per second, which is comparable to standard home broadband services. However, the latency—the time it takes for data to travel between the user and internet networks—is higher than traditional wired broadband. The system functions through ground stations that are physically linked to the internet. These stations transmit data to satellites, which then relay the connection to users.

In India, Starlink may not be as beneficial in urban areas where reliable 5G and broadband infrastructure exist. However, in rural or remote locations where traditional networks are scarce, Starlink can deliver reliable internet access with minimal setup requirements

 

Cost of Starlink Services

Using Starlink involves two major costs:

  1. Hardware Cost – Users must purchase a terminal (similar to a router) to access the satellite network. In the U.S., a residential kit is priced at $149, while a portable “roaming” version costs $349. In India, after adding import duties, GST, and other taxes, the price could increase by approximately 30%, making it anywhere between ₹17,000 and ₹40,000, excluding shipping fees.

  2. Subscription Fees – The monthly charges for unlimited residential and roaming plans in the U.S. range between $120 and $165. Since satellite-based internet services have consistent global pricing, similar rates may apply in India. For reference, in Bhutan, Starlink costs between 4,200 and 8,400 ngultrum per month, a potential indicator of Indian pricing since the ngultrum is pegged to the Indian rupee. Additionally, a premium “mobile priority” plan is available for 21,000 ngultrum, ensuring priority access in network congestion situations

 

Starlink's Availability in India

  • Starlink's entry into the Indian market has been delayed due to regulatory challenges. The Indian government exercises strict oversight over internet services, especially those offering unrestricted access across the country.
  • To operate legally, SpaceX must secure a Global Mobile Personal Communications by Satellite (GMPCS) license under the Telecommunications Act, 2023. Though a similar authorization existed under the Telegraph Act, 1885, new regulations under the updated law are still pending. It remains uncertain whether the government will approve the license under the previous legislation.
  • Another significant challenge was convincing Indian authorities to accept SpaceX’s stance on disclosing corporate ownership details. While reports indicate that this issue has been resolved, the company still requires security clearance from the Ministry of Home Affairs, the status of which remains unclear.
  • Furthermore, compliance with the Telecom Act’s security regulations is another hurdle. The law mandates that all internet service providers, including Starlink, must install monitoring equipment in ground stations to allow law enforcement agencies access to network data. It is unknown whether Starlink has set up the required infrastructure in India.
  • Lastly, Starlink requires wireless spectrum allocation to offer its services. The Indian government has hinted that spectrum for satellite-based internet may not be auctioned, as it can be shared among multiple providers—unlike telecom spectrum, which is exclusive to mobile operators.
  • However, leading telecom companies, including Reliance Jio, have previously pushed for a spectrum auction, arguing that the 2012 Supreme Court ruling in the 2G spectrum case mandates auctions for all scarce natural resources
 
Follow Up Question
 
1.Discuss the potential of satellite-based internet services like Starlink in bridging the digital divide in India. What are the key regulatory challenges hindering its implementation, and how can they be addressed? (250 words)
 
 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination:  Consumer Price Index (CPI). Retail inflation
 
For Mains Examination: GS III - Economy
 
Context:
 
This is the time when the rabi (winter-spring) crop, especially wheat, is still in the field and one can’t be fully sure about the yields to be harvested. But the production concerns aren’t confined to wheat. Equally, if not more, serious is the situation with regard to sugar.
 
Read about:
 
Food Inflation
 
Minimum Support Price (MSP)
 
 
Key takeaways:
 
  • A positive aspect for wheat stocks is the availability of opening stocks before the new crop procurement begins on April 1.

  • On April 1 last year, government-held wheat stocks stood at 75.02 lakh tonnes (lt)—the lowest since 2008, when stocks were 58.03 lt. This was barely above the minimum buffer requirement of 74.6 lt.

  • One of the primary reasons for stocks depleting to a 16-year low was the 2024 Lok Sabha elections. During 2023-24 (April-March), the Food Corporation of India (FCI) released a record 100.88 lt of wheat into the open market. A significant portion of these sales, including 6.73 lt under the Bharat Atta scheme (which provided wheat flour at a subsidized rate of ₹27.5/kg), took place before the elections from November 2023.

  • While these aggressive market interventions helped stabilize wheat prices, they were a calculated risk. If the 2023-24 wheat harvest had been poor—similar to the previous two years—it would have been difficult for government agencies to procure enough wheat to replenish stocks. Fortunately, production was sufficient, allowing procurement of 266 lt, which was higher than 262 lt in 2023 and 188 lt in 2022, though still lower than the 341-434 lt range recorded in the preceding four years.

  • This time, the Modi government has opted for a more cautious approach. Between April and January 2024-25, only 9.59 lt of wheat was released through open market sales and the Bharat Atta scheme, with a total annual offload unlikely to exceed 30 lt. As of March 1, government-held wheat stocks were approximately 140 lt, projected to be around 120 lt at the start of the April 1 procurement season—significantly higher than last year’s 75 lt.

  • Reports from the field indicate a bumper wheat crop in central India. This is in contrast to the previous year, when low grain yields resulted from delayed winter onset (which hampered vegetative growth and tillering) and foggy weather in January (which led to poor pollination and seed formation).

  • This year, however, there have been no significant temperature fluctuations, fog, or smog conditions. Rajbir Yadav, a principal scientist at the Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI), New Delhi, anticipates wheat yields in Madhya Pradesh to be 15-20% higher than last year.

  • Initial estimates from the Indian Sugar & Bio-Energy Manufacturers Association suggest gross sugar production for 2024-25 (October-September) at 333 lt. After deducting 40 lt of sugar used for ethanol production, the net output is expected to be 293 lt, a decline from 319 lt in 2023-24.

  • The impact of poor 2023-24 rainfall in Maharashtra and Karnataka, along with increased vulnerability of the dominant Co-0238 sugarcane variety in Uttar Pradesh to red rot disease and top shoot borer pest attacks, appears to have been underestimated—which is now evident in production figures

 
Follow Up Question
 

1.Consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE 2020)

  1. The weightage of food in Consumer Price Index (CPI) is higher than that in Wholesale Price Index (WPI).
  2. The WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which CPI does.
  3. Reserve Bank of India has now adopted WPI as its key measure of inflation and to decide on changing the key policy rates.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only 
(d) 1, 2 and 3

 
Answer (a)
 
  • Statement 1: Correct 

    • The Consumer Price Index (CPI) gives a higher weightage to food (around 45% in CPI-Combined) compared to the Wholesale Price Index (WPI), where food has a lower weightage (around 24%).
    • This is because CPI reflects retail prices paid by consumers, where food is a major component of household expenses.
  • Statement 2: Correct 

    • The WPI does not include services, as it primarily measures wholesale prices of goods.
    • However, CPI does include services such as education, healthcare, and transport, making it a more comprehensive measure of inflation for consumers.
  • Statement 3: Incorrect 

    • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) uses CPI (specifically CPI-Combined or CPI-C) as the primary measure of inflation for monetary policy decisions under the Inflation Targeting Framework.
    • WPI is not used by RBI for setting policy rates, as it does not fully capture price changes affecting consumers
 
 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international importance
 
For Mains Examination: GS III - Environment & ecology
 
Context:
 
A recent audit report by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG) on the functioning of the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) in the 2019-2022 period has flagged that the funds allocated for compensatory afforestation were diverted for other activities by Uttarakhand’s forest divisions.
 
Read about:
 
Compensatory Afforestation Fund (CAF)
 

Forest Rights Act, 2006

 

Key takeaways:

 

Compensatory Afforestation and Its Mechanism

  • The fundamental idea behind compensatory afforestation is that forests, being crucial natural resources that provide various ecological benefits, should not be destroyed. However, due to industrial and developmental needs, forests are often cleared or, as officially stated, "diverted for non-forest purposes."

  • Since newly afforested land does not instantly transform into a fully functional forest, there is an inevitable gap where the environmental benefits of the lost forest are absent. These benefits include timber, bamboo, fuelwood, carbon sequestration, soil conservation, water retention, and seed dispersal. A newly afforested area requires at least 50 years to provide similar ecosystem services. To account for this interim loss, the law mandates the calculation of the Net Present Value (NPV) of the diverted forest for a 50-year period, which must be compensated by the entity responsible for the diversion.

  • The responsibility of afforestation does not lie with the "user agencies," which are typically private entities. Instead, it is undertaken by the state government. However, the financial burden of afforestation, including land acquisition costs, is entirely borne by the user agency. Once the afforestation process is completed, the state government must transfer the land to the forest department for maintenance and protection.

  • Therefore, any entity seeking to divert forest land for non-forest purposes must not only finance compensatory afforestation but also pay the NPV and additional charges.

  • The Compensatory Afforestation Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) was established to manage these funds. The state government collects compensatory afforestation payments and NPV from the user agency and deposits them with the central government. This money is eventually returned to the respective states for afforestation and related projects.

  • The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016, formalized this structure by creating a national CAMPA under the central government and state-level CAMPAs for each state and Union Territory. Additionally, Compensatory Afforestation Funds (CAF) were set up at both national and state levels to manage these finances efficiently.

  • The concept of compensatory afforestation originated in the 1980s as part of the Forest Conservation Act of 1980, which required developers to obtain clearance from the Ministry of Environment before diverting forest land. Over time, this practice became legally institutionalized through Supreme Court rulings, particularly in the landmark Godavarman case during the 1990s and 2000s.

  • States are required to deposit the funds collected from user agencies into the national CAF, which later distributes the funds to state-level CAFs based on their entitlements. However, states receive only 90% of their share, while the remaining 10% is retained to cover administrative costs

 

Forest Rights Act, 2006

  • The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 (commonly known as the Forest Rights Act, FRA) was enacted to formally acknowledge the traditional rights of tribal and forest-dwelling communities over forest land and resources.

  • According to the Ministry of Tribal Affairs, the FRA grants both individual rights, such as self-cultivation and habitation, and community rights, including access to grazing lands, fishing areas, water bodies, and habitat rights for Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs). Additionally, it recognizes the rights of communities to protect, regenerate, conserve, and manage forest resources for sustainable use. The Act also allows the allocation of forest land for developmental projects aimed at fulfilling essential infrastructure needs of tribal communities.

  • The Act places the responsibility of conserving biodiversity, wildlife, forests, water sources, and ecologically sensitive areas on the Gram Sabha and rights-holding communities. It also empowers them to prevent any harmful activities that could damage these natural resources or threaten the cultural and ecological heritage of indigenous populations. Furthermore, the FRA strengthens the role of Gram Sabhas by giving tribal communities a significant voice in shaping local policies and development programs that directly impact their lives

 
Follow Up Question
 
1.Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2019)
1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
2. People's participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
 
Answer (A)
 
  • ✅ Statement 1 is correct:
    The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) exists at both the national and state levels, as established by the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016. The Act created the National CAMPA under the central government and State CAMPAs for each state and Union Territory.

  • ❌ Statement 2 is incorrect:
    The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016, does not mandate people's participation in compensatory afforestation programs. While afforestation projects may involve local communities in some cases, it is not a legal requirement under the Act. The implementation and management of compensatory afforestation primarily fall under the responsibility of the forest departments and state governments

 
 
 
 
Subject and Subject Wise Notes for the Sunday Exam (Free)
 
Subject Topic Description
Polity Centre and State relations Centre State and interstate relations
Environment & Ecology Marine Ecosystem Marine Ecosystem
Economy Consumer Rights Consumer Rights
Ancient History Buddhism Buddhism
 

 

UPSC EXAM NOTES will be conducting both Prelims and Mains exams every Sunday as part of the Integrated Mains and Prelims (IMPM) Program. This program provides a comprehensive approach to UPSC exam preparation, ensuring that candidates are well-prepared for both stages of the exam.

Program Highlights:

  • Daily Study Keys: Each day, we will provide keys that outline what to read, focusing on the most relevant topics and current affairs.
  • Subject Notes: In addition to daily keys, we will supply detailed subject notes to help you build a strong foundation in all necessary areas.
  • Sunday Exams: Every Sunday, a combined exam will be held, encompassing the daily keys' content and subject notes, along with a culmination of current affairs from various sources. These exams will cover both Prelims and Mains syllabi.
  • Format: Exams will be available in both online and offline formats to cater to different preferences and situations.

Duration: The IMPM plan is a one-year program, ensuring continuous and structured preparation over 12 months. With regular testing and consistent study guidance, this program is designed to maximize your chances of success in the UPSC exams

 

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