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INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) KEY (21/05/2025)

INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) 2025 Daily KEY

 
 
 
 
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Cyber Fraud and Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) and its significance for the UPSC Exam? Why are topics like Genetically Modified Crops ,  Jal Jeevan Mission  important for both preliminary and main exams? Discover more insights in the UPSC Exam Notes for May 21, 2025

 

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Critical Topics and Their Significance for the UPSC CSE Examination on May 21, 2025

Daily Insights and Initiatives for UPSC Exam Notes: Comprehensive explanations and high-quality material provided regularly for students

 

Cyber fraud

For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international Significance

For Mains Examination: GS III - Science and technology, GS II - Governance on Cybercrime

Context:

UNION HOME Minister Amit Shah on Monday said they have introduced the new e-Zero FIR that automatically converts cyber financial crime complaints with a cheating value above Rs 10 lakh, registered on the 1930 helpline or the National Cybercrime Reporting Portal (NCRP), into FIRs.

 

Read about:

What is cyber fraud?

What is the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C)?

 

Key takeaways:

 

— The Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C), created in 2018, operates under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) and is responsible for setting up a national coordination hub to tackle issues related to cybercrime.

— According to official data, India has witnessed a dramatic rise in cybercrime over the past four years, with losses amounting to ₹33,165 crore. In 2024 alone, fraud amounting to ₹22,812 crore was reported, with many Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities emerging as major centers for such crimes.

— Figures from the National Cyber Reporting Platform (NCRP), which functions under the MHA, indicate that cybercriminals defrauded individuals of ₹551 crore in 2021, ₹2,306 crore in 2022, and ₹7,496 crore in 2023.

— The volume of complaints has also surged significantly: 1,37,254 cases in 2021, 5,15,083 in 2022, 11,31,649 in 2023, and 17,10,505 complaints filed in 2024

 

Cyber Fraud

Cyber fraud refers to any illegal or deceptive activity carried out using digital means, primarily through the internet or electronic communication technologies, with the intention of gaining financial or personal benefits.

Common Types of Cyber Fraud:

  • Phishing: Sending fake emails or messages to trick users into revealing personal or financial information.

  • Online Banking Fraud: Unauthorized access to bank accounts or transactions.

  • Identity Theft: Stealing someone's personal information to impersonate them.

  • Credit/Debit Card Fraud: Using someone else’s card information for unauthorized purchases.

  • Investment Scams: Promising high returns to lure victims into fake investment schemes.

  • E-commerce Scams: Selling fake products or never delivering purchased goods online.

 
Government initiatives
 
 
  • To counter the growing threat of cyber fraud, the Indian government has undertaken a comprehensive and multi-pronged approach that includes policy measures, institutional mechanisms, technological tools, and public awareness campaigns. These steps are primarily coordinated through the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) and the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY).
  • One of the key institutional responses has been the establishment of the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (I4C) in 2018 under the MHA. The I4C acts as a centralized body to coordinate activities related to the prevention, detection, investigation, and prosecution of cybercrimes across the country.
  • It works closely with state law enforcement agencies, facilitates the sharing of information, and helps in building the capacities of police forces to deal with increasingly sophisticated cyber threats.
  • In addition to institutional setups, the government launched the National Cyber Crime Reporting Portal (NCRP), which allows victims of cyber fraud to report incidents online without having to visit a police station.
  • This platform ensures that complaints from across the country are centrally registered and forwarded to the respective law enforcement agencies for action. It has become a vital tool in gathering data on cybercrime trends and hotspots, which helps the government allocate resources more efficiently.
  • To block and trace fraudulent financial transactions, the MHA has also set up a specialized platform called the Citizen Financial Cyber Fraud Reporting and Management System. This enables quick reporting of cyber financial frauds through a dedicated helpline (1930) and facilitates coordination between banks, payment wallets, and law enforcement to freeze suspicious transactions before money is siphoned off.
  • Recognizing the importance of technology in both enabling and combating cyber fraud, the government has invested in upgrading forensic labs, cyber police stations, and data analysis centers across states.
  • Capacity building is a major focus area, with regular training sessions conducted for police personnel, forensic experts, and judiciary members to stay updated with evolving cybercrime tactics.
  • Public awareness is another critical aspect of the government's strategy. Various campaigns such as Cyber Jaagrookta Diwas (Cyber Awareness Day) are held monthly to educate citizens, especially in vulnerable Tier 2 and Tier 3 cities, about common types of cyber fraud and how to protect themselves online.
  • These efforts are supported by digital and print media outreach, workshops in schools and colleges, and collaborations with industry stakeholders

 

Follow Up Question

1.In India, under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? (UPSC 2020)
1. Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one's computer
2. Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved so
3. Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion
4. Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A.1, 2 and 4 only 
B.1, 3 and 4 only 
C.2 and 3 only   
D.1, 2, 3 and 4
 
Answer (B)
 

Under cyber insurance for individuals in India, the following are generally covered:

  • Cost of restoration of the computer system (✅): If a malware or ransomware attack disrupts access to a person’s computer or corrupts data, the insurance typically covers the cost of restoring the system.

  • Cost of a new computer if damaged by a miscreant (❌): This is generally not covered, unless physical damage is explicitly included in the policy. Cyber insurance typically covers digital or financial losses, not physical damage to hardware unless caused by a cyber event directly and explicitly covered.

  • Cost of hiring a specialized consultant for cyber extortion (✅): This is included in many policies under the cyber extortion or ransomware clause, which covers costs incurred to handle and mitigate the threat.

  • Cost of legal defense in case of third-party suits (✅): If a third party files a case (e.g., alleging data breach or defamation), the insurance usually covers legal expenses incurred in defense

 

Environment Impact Assessment (EIA)

For Preliminary Examination: General issues on Environmental Ecology, Biodiversity and Climate Change – that do not require subject specialisation

For Mains Examination: General Studies-III: Conservation, environmental pollution and degradation, environmental impact assessment

Context:

The Supreme Court on Friday (May 16) struck down and held illegal a 2017 notification of the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC), which introduced a regime of granting ex-post facto clearances to projects – after work had already begun. The judgment followed a clutch of petitions challenging the notification

 

Read about:

What is the objective of EIA?

What is the Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) notification of 2006?

 

Key takeaways:

 

  • The Supreme Court recently overturned a 2021 office memorandum that had introduced a standard operating procedure to streamline the process for granting post-facto environmental clearances. The Court also prohibited the central government from issuing similar directives that seek to regularize violations of the 2006 Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) notification.
  • Earlier, in March 2017, the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEF&CC) had released a notification offering a one-time six-month window for industries to seek environmental clearance, even if they had already started operations, expanded production beyond approved limits, or altered their product line without prior approval.
  • Under the EIA notification of 2006, obtaining environmental clearance beforehand is mandatory. This process evaluates the potential effects of a project on the environment, public health, natural resources, and social infrastructure like schools and hospitals.
  • A bench led by Justices Abhay S. Oka and Ujjal Bhuyan criticized the Centre for using office memoranda to shield violators who had damaged the environment. The Court questioned the rationale behind pursuing development at the cost of environmental protection.
  • The judgment stressed that the government had overstepped in protecting those responsible for ecological harm. The Court emphasized its constitutional duty under Article 21 — the right to life and personal liberty — which includes the right to a clean and safe environment, and declared it would not allow such efforts to go unchallenged.
  • Historically, the Supreme Court has interpreted Article 21 to encompass the right to live in a pollution-free and ecologically balanced environment. The 2017 notification and the 2021 memorandum were deemed to violate both Article 21 and Article 14, the right to equality before the law. These measures attempted to benefit project proponents who had knowingly flouted environmental regulations.
  • To reinforce its stance, the Court referenced earlier rulings such as Common Cause v. Union of India (2017) and Alembic Pharmaceuticals v. Rohit Prajapati (2020), which had already established that post-facto environmental clearances contradict fundamental environmental principles.
  • The Court took strong exception to the 2021 memorandum, asserting that it effectively legalized the commencement of projects without mandatory prior clearance — a direct violation of prior rulings.
  • In the Alembic case, Justices D.Y. Chandrachud and Ajay Rastogi had already clarified that granting clearance after a project has begun is against the foundational principles of environmental law and contradicts the objectives of the EIA notification.
  • The situation becomes even more concerning in light of the rapid pace of industrialisation and urban expansion, which have significantly contributed to forest degradation. As per data from the Union Environment Ministry, around 1,73,300 hectares of forest land were lost to development projects between 2014-15 and 2023-24.
  • States rich in minerals like Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, and Odisha have witnessed massive deforestation due to mining activities, with over one lakh hectares of forest area cleared for nearly 500 mining projects by 2018.
  • In the northeastern hill states, factors like shifting cultivation (Jhum), agricultural expansion, and heavy logging have led to a significant reduction in green cover. Between 2021 and 2023, states such as Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, and Nagaland saw some of the highest rates of forest loss.
  • Additionally, the rise in forest fires—often driven by human activities and extended dry periods—has worsened forest degradation. Climate change exacerbates these risks by creating hotter and drier conditions.
  • From November 2023 to June 2024 alone, the Forest Survey of India documented 2,03,544 incidents of forest fires. These worrying statistics highlight the urgent need for a robust legal and regulatory framework to safeguard India's forest ecosystems

 

 Follow Up Question

1.Consider the following statements: The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to (2019)
1. state the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought
2. lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources
 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer (b)
 
The Environment (Protection) Act, 1986 was enacted under Article 253 of the Constitution of India in response to the Bhopal Gas Tragedy and to implement decisions made at the United Nations Conference on the Human Environment (Stockholm, 1972).

"State the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection, and the procedure and manner in which it is sought."

  • Incorrect.
    The Environment Protection Act, 1986 does not explicitly mandate public participation in environmental decision-making or prescribe procedures for it.
    Public participation comes under the Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification, 2006, issued under this Act—but the requirement of public hearing is part of executive rules, not the main Act itself.

"Lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources."

  • Correct.
    Section 3 and 6 of the Environment Protection Act empower the central government to set emission/discharge standards for pollutants and regulate activities that may harm the environment.

 

Genetically modified crops

For Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international significance

For Mains Examination: General Studies-III: Issues related to direct and indirect farm subsidies and minimum support prices; Public Distribution System- objectives, functioning

Context:

 A US-India trade deal could resolve several trade issues between the two countries, helping the Indian poultry industry gain access to ‘sustainably verified’ US soybean feed products, while allowing the US to partially offset potential losses arising from trade tensions with China

 

Read about:

What are genetically modified crops?

What are the pros and cons of GMOs?

 

Key takeaways:

 

  • Genetically modified organisms (GMOs) are living beings whose genetic material has been intentionally altered to give them new characteristics. In agriculture, genetically modified (GM) crops are developed to increase productivity, resist pests, withstand extreme weather like drought or frost, and enhance nutritional content.
  • Some GM crops are also engineered to lower carbon emissions, contributing to more sustainable agricultural practices. Despite their widespread use, GM crops currently occupy only about 10% of the land area used for traditional, non-GM crops.
  • According to David Spencer, a plant disease expert and representative of Replanet—an NGO coalition promoting science-based environmental solutions—genetic modification is essentially a refined version of traditional breeding.
  • He describes it as a more advanced and accurate method for introducing specific genetic changes quickly. Replanet’s "Reboot Food" initiative focuses on advancing sustainable food systems.
  • The first GMOs were commercialized in the United States in 1994, starting with genetically engineered tomato plants designed to delay ripening and extend shelf life. Since then, various crops like rice, wheat, and soybeans have received regulatory approval, along with genetically modified bacteria that produce large quantities of proteins for various uses.
  • In India, researchers have developed a special rice variety known as Sub-1, which can better withstand flooding—a recurring problem in rice-producing regions of northern India and Bangladesh. With climate change expected to increase flooding events, approximately six million farmers in the region have adopted Sub-1 rice to help protect their livelihoods.
  • Golden Rice is another significant GM innovation—it has been enriched with vitamin A to help address widespread deficiencies in parts of Asia and Africa, where such nutritional gaps pose a serious public health issue.
  • However, India has placed regulatory restrictions on GM seeds and related products. These regulations have been criticized by the United States Trade Representative (USTR), who views them as impediments to international trade.
  • Commenting on the global trade impact of GM crops, Sutter observed that China began importing soybeans from the United States in 1995. Within a decade, China had become the largest importer of U.S. soybeans, and the volume of its soybean oil exports had doubled—an indication of how GM imports can enhance trade benefits.
  • On the sustainability front, the U.S. Soybean Export Council (USSEC) noted that consumer preferences are shifting, with people willing to spend nearly 10% more on goods that are sustainably sourced.
  • This growing trend shows that sustainability is becoming a core value in consumer markets, encouraging businesses to adapt if they want to expand market share, reduce risks, and maintain customer loyalty
 
Follow Up Question
 

1.With reference to Genetically Modified Organisms (GMOs), consider the following statements:

  1. Sub-1 rice, developed in India, is a genetically modified variety designed to resist drought in arid regions.

  2. Golden Rice is genetically engineered to combat Vitamin A deficiency in certain parts of the world.

  3. The first commercial GMO was a tomato variety in the USA, modified to ripen slowly and extend shelf life.

  4. Genetically Modified crops currently use more land globally than conventional crops due to their high yield potential.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

Answer (b)
 

  • Statement 1 — Incorrect: Sub-1 rice is engineered to resist flooding, not drought, and is used primarily in flood-prone areas of India and Bangladesh.

  • Statement 2 — Correct: Golden Rice is genetically modified to produce Vitamin A, aimed at addressing dietary deficiencies in Asia and Africa.

  • Statement 3 — Correct: The first commercial GMO was indeed a slow-ripening tomato introduced in the US in 1994 to extend shelf life.

  • Statement 4 — Incorrect: GM crops occupy only about 10% of the land used by non-GM crops, despite being more efficient.

 

Jal Jeevan Mission

For Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international significance

For Mains Examination:  General Studies-II: Government policies and interventions for development in various sectors and issues arising out of their design and implementation

Context:

THE GOVERNMENT has decided to send 100 teams of Central Nodal Officers for “ground inspection” of the Jal Jeevan Mission schemes across the country. The move follows a meeting chaired by the Cabinet Secretary on May 8 to review the mission’s schemes

 

Read about:

What is the Jal Jeevan Mission?

What are the challenges related to JJM?

 

Key takeaways:

 

  • The Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM) was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on August 15, 2019, with the objective of delivering tap water connections to approximately 16 crore rural households by December 2024, aiming for universal coverage.
  • However, in the five years since its inception, the mission has achieved only 75% of its target, prompting the government to extend the programme by an additional four years, until December 31, 2028, to complete the remaining 4 crore connections.
  • According to recent National Sample Survey Office (NSSO) data, nearly 90% of rural households now have access to a tap connection. Still, a significant gap persists between access and actual usage, with only 39% of rural households relying on tap water as their main source of drinking water (NSS 79th Round, 2022–23).
  • The programme has also encountered several systemic issues, such as declining central government funding, administrative lapses at the state level, and reports of corruption in infrastructure development, all of which have hampered its progress.
  • Another major concern is the inefficiency of grievance redressal mechanisms, with no clear data available on the number of complaints received or resolved by local authorities.
  • In response to these challenges, the Department of Personnel and Training recently assigned 99 nodal officers to monitor 183 government schemes across 135 districts in 29 states and Union Territories.
  • This review initiative was announced shortly after a panel headed by the Expenditure Secretary recommended a 46% reduction in the Water Resources Ministry’s funding request of ₹2.79 lakh crore for the extended period of the mission.
  • The government has acknowledged the rising costs of implementing tap water supply projects across states governed by various political parties. It plans to carry out on-site inspections of work orders to assess not only expenditure and implementation quality but also project outcomes.
  • Since its launch, states have approved 6.4 lakh water supply projects with an estimated cost of ₹8.29 lakh crore, more than twice the original outlay of ₹3.60 lakh crore (of which ₹2.08 lakh crore was to be contributed by the Centre and ₹1.52 lakh crore by the states)

 

 Follow Up Question

1.With reference to the Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM), consider the following statements:

  1. The original target of JJM was to provide tap water connections to all rural households in India by the end of 2024.

  2. As per the NSS 79th Round (2022–23), nearly 90% of rural households use tap water as their primary source of drinking water.

  3. The estimated cost of water supply projects approved by states under JJM has exceeded the original budget allocation by more than double.

  4. The central government has increased funding consistently for the Jal Jeevan Mission since its inception.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

 

Answer (a)
 

  • Statement 1 is correct: The Jal Jeevan Mission initially aimed to provide tap water connections to all rural households by December 2024.

  • Statement 2 is incorrect: Although about 90% of rural households have access to tap water, only around 39% use it as their primary source, according to the NSS 79th Round (2022–23).

  • Statement 3 is correct: The estimated cost of water supply projects approved by states has more than doubled compared to the original budget.

  • Statement 4 is incorrect: There have been reports of reduced financial assistance from the central government, not consistent increases.
 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international Significance
 
For Mains Exmaination:  General Studies-II: Bilateral, regional, and global groupings and agreements involving India and/or affecting India’s interests
 
Context:
 
India’s multi-party outreach to rally global support for its war against terror emanating from Pakistan is not just aimed at major countries and the West Asian region, but also at countries that will be members of the UN Security Council (UNSC) next year.
 
Read about:
 
 What is the UNSC? 
 
What is the composition of the UNSC?
 
Key takeaways:
 
  • The United Nations (UN) was established on October 24, 1945, following ratification by 51 countries, which included the five permanent members—France, the Republic of China, the Soviet Union, the United Kingdom, and the United States—alongside 46 other signatories. The General Assembly convened for its first session on January 10, 1946. Currently, the UN has 193 member states.
  • The UN Charter created six principal organs, one of which is the UN Security Council (UNSC). The Security Council held its inaugural session on January 17, 1946, at Church House in Westminster, London.
  • Since then, the UNSC has been headquartered permanently at the United Nations complex in New York City. For the term spanning January 1, 2026, to December 31, 2027, Latvia, the Democratic Republic of Congo, Bahrain, Liberia, and Colombia are set to serve as non-permanent members of the Security Council.
  • Pakistan holds a non-permanent seat on the UNSC for 2025–2026. In efforts to diplomatically isolate Islamabad, India aims to raise concerns regarding Pakistan’s alleged support for terrorist groups and infrastructure.
  • Indian diplomatic teams plan visits to UNSC permanent members including the US, UK, France, and Russia, but will exclude China, viewed as a steadfast ally and supporter of Pakistan.
  • Regarding non-permanent members, the teams will engage with nations whose current terms end in December—Algeria, Guyana, South Korea, Sierra Leone, and Slovenia—as well as those set to succeed them in January.
  • India’s outreach to both sitting and incoming UNSC members is significant, especially given the tensions between Delhi and Islamabad following the UNSC statement negotiations in New York after the Pahalgam terror attack, where Pakistan had leverage as a sitting member.
  • The visits will also cover important Muslim-majority nations in West and Southeast Asia, including Saudi Arabia, the UAE, Qatar, Egypt, Kuwait, Indonesia, and Malaysia. Once staunch supporters of Pakistan and members of the Organisation of Islamic Cooperation (OIC), these countries are now adopting a more pragmatic and favorable stance toward India.
  • Apart from Canada—where relations remain under repair—the teams will engage with the other G7 members: Germany, Italy, Japan, and the European Union. Spain, frequently invited to G20 summits, is also included as a key European partner.
  • Brazil and South Africa are part of the itinerary as significant BRICS partners and G20 members. Ethiopia is included due to its role as the host of the African Union’s headquarters. Additionally, Singapore, a major partner located at the information nexus of Southeast Asia, will be visited
 
Follow Up Question
 

1.With reference to the United Nations Security Council (UNSC) and India's diplomatic engagements, consider the following statements:

  1. The UNSC was established by the UN Charter and held its first meeting in New York in 1946.

  2. Pakistan is a non-permanent member of the UNSC for the period 2025-2026.

  3. India’s diplomatic outreach excludes China due to its close ties with Pakistan.

  4. The current permanent members of the UNSC include Brazil and South Africa.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only

Answer (b)
 

  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The UNSC held its first meeting in London in 1946, not New York. Its permanent headquarters are now in New York.

  • Statement 2 is correct: Pakistan is a non-permanent member for 2025-2026.

  • Statement 3 is correct: India’s diplomatic efforts intentionally exclude China, which is seen as a key ally of Pakistan.

  • Statement 4 is incorrect: Brazil and South Africa are not permanent members of the UNSC; the permanent members are the US, UK, France, Russia, and China
 
 

Kurma mela: the science of the mass nesting of Olive Ridley turtles

For Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international significance

For Mains Examination: GS III - Environment and ecology

Context:

The Olive Ridley turtle (Lepidochelys olivacea), a vulnerable sea turtle species, made headlines earlier this year: a record-breaking seven lakh turtles had nested at Odisha’s Rushikulya beach alone in March.

 

Read about:

Olive Ridley Turtles

IUCN Red List

 

Key takeaways:

 

  • The Olive Ridley turtle (Lepidochelys olivacea), classified as a vulnerable species, gained attention earlier this year when a record-setting seven lakh turtles nested at Odisha’s Rushikulya beach in March.
  • These turtles are famous for their synchronized mass nesting events known as arribadas, a Spanish term meaning “arrival.” While this event brought hope to many, conservation experts view it with concern, questioning the future of these turtles and whether human interference—even if well-intentioned—might alter natural processes.
  • Although some local populations of Olive Ridley turtles have grown, the IUCN Red List estimates that globally their numbers have declined by 30 to 50 percent since 1960. Their main nesting sites lie along the Pacific coasts of Mexico and Central America, but Odisha also plays a crucial role.
  • Odisha’s coastline, stretching about 480 km, includes three primary nesting beaches: Gahirmatha (located between the mouths of the Brahmani and Baitarani rivers), Devi (approximately 100 km south of Gahirmatha), and Rushikulya (around 320 km further south).
  • Research indicates that hatchlings imprint on the local magnetic field at their birthplace, enabling adult turtles to return with impressive accuracy years later by following this magnetic “map.”
  • This behavior, called philopatry, is influenced by memory, environmental cues, and Earth’s geomagnetic signals. As more females with strong philopatric tendencies survive and reproduce, this site fidelity strengthens over generations.
  • Other ecological elements also impact nesting site selection. Studies on loggerhead turtles (Caretta caretta) reveal that their nesting grounds often coincide with cold-core eddies—swirling pockets of cold water that bring nutrient-rich waters to the surface, supporting marine life. Additional factors influencing nesting include water salinity, the slope of the land, predation risks, and rainfall patterns.
  • Nesting sites tend to become more attractive as more turtles have previously nested there. However, with increasing turtle populations and limited prime nesting beaches, competition arises.
  • Incoming turtles sometimes disturb earlier nests by digging up eggs—an event noted during Rushikulya’s second arribada this year. Female turtles use smell and urine to locate nesting sites, and disturbed or broken eggs emit scents that attract predators.
  • Earlier, scientists believed predators relied mostly on visual cues, but newer studies show that olfactory signals, such as the scent of broken eggs and disturbed soil, are more influential. Ironically, the species’ most effective survival strategy might also contribute to its decline.
  • Temperature plays a critical role in determining the sex of turtle hatchlings. Research on loggerheads shows warmer nesting beaches produce more females. Although similar data on Olive Ridleys is still being gathered, rising global temperatures may skew sex ratios further toward females, reinforcing philopatric behaviors as more females return to the same beaches.
  • For their initial arribadas, female turtles select nesting sites without clear patterns and use them inconsistently. If a female reaches reproductive maturity before returning to her birthplace, she may choose a new nesting site closer to her feeding area.
  • Her offspring will imprint on this new location and return to it in the future. This flexibility is essential for population survival, as it allows new nesting sites to form and prevents overcrowding at traditional beaches—a factor that has likely helped the species avoid extinction over millions of years.
  • Modern conservation efforts, including protecting nesting beaches and artificially incubating eggs, have helped turtle numbers recover. However, this raises the question: could such interventions unintentionally weaken the population’s genetic robustness by allowing weaker individuals to survive and reproduce?
  • Local communities play a vital role in conservation, especially in Odisha, where fishermen and villagers protect nests, prevent egg poaching, and assist conservationists. Yet, not all human interactions are positive.
  • Turtle-related tourism has grown rapidly, bringing awareness but also stress to these creatures. Crowds often gather at night to watch turtles nest, using bright lights, taking selfies, or even disturbing the turtles by digging or sitting on them for photos.
  • Such behavior disrupts nesting and may harm the turtles’ memory, potentially deterring them from returning.
  • Scientists are just beginning to explore turtles’ cognitive and emotional capacities. It is possible that what humans perceive as innocent fascination might interfere with these ancient migratory and nesting cycles.
  • Therefore, conservation efforts must go beyond mere population numbers and rescue operations. The primary goal should be preserving the longevity of key nesting beaches and ensuring tourism is conducted responsibly and ethically.
  • Olive Ridley turtles have survived mass extinctions, continental shifts, and rising seas, showcasing extraordinary resilience. However, this endurance is not infinite. Regardless of whether turtles continue to nest amid human pressures, it is our ethical duty to protect the ecological balance that sustains them
 
Follow Up Question
 

1.The 'Olive Ridley Turtles are considered to be endangered because of their few remaining nesting sites in the world. In this context, which among the following statement(s) is/are correct? (OPSC 2016)

(1) Their peculiar behavior of synchronized nesting in mass numbers is known as Arribada'.

(2) Gahirmatha Beach in Orissa is one of their few nesting grounds in the world.

A. Only 1           

B. Only 2             

C. Both 1 and 2               

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (C)
 

  • Olive Ridley turtles are famous for their unique mass nesting behavior called Arribada, where thousands of turtles come ashore simultaneously to lay eggs.

  • Gahirmatha Beach in Odisha (formerly Orissa) is one of the most important and well-known nesting sites for Olive Ridley turtles, making it a critical location for their conservation.

 

 

Subject and Subject Wise Notes for the Sunday Exam (Free)
 
Subject Topic Description
Polity Legislature Legislature
Polity Fundamental rights Fundamental rights
Modern Indian History Governor Generals Governor Generals of India
Art & Culture Architecture Mauryan art and Architecture
 

 

UPSC EXAM NOTES will be conducting both Prelims and Mains exams every Sunday as part of the Integrated Mains and Prelims (IMPM) Program. This program provides a comprehensive approach to UPSC exam preparation, ensuring that candidates are well-prepared for both stages of the exam.

Program Highlights:

  • Daily Study Keys: Each day, we will provide keys that outline what to read, focusing on the most relevant topics and current affairs.
  • Subject Notes: In addition to daily keys, we will supply detailed subject notes to help you build a strong foundation in all necessary areas.
  • Sunday Exams: Every Sunday, a combined exam will be held, encompassing the daily keys' content and subject notes, along with a culmination of current affairs from various sources. These exams will cover both Prelims and Mains syllabi.
  • Format: Exams will be available in both online and offline formats to cater to different preferences and situations.

Duration: The IMPM plan is a one-year program, ensuring continuous and structured preparation over 12 months. With regular testing and consistent study guidance, this program is designed to maximize your chances of success in the UPSC exams
 
 
 
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