INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) KEY (07/02/2025)

INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) 2025 Daily KEY

 
 

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Topics like Loss and Damage Fund (LDF), PSLV-C59 for the UPSC Exam? Why are topics like Stubble burning and Global Plastic Treaty, Manual Scavenging, Hierarchy in Judiciary System important for both preliminary and main exams? Discover more insights in the UPSC Exam Notes for February 07, 2025

 

 

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Critical Topics and Their Significance for the UPSC CSE Examination on February 07 20205

Daily Insights and Initiatives for UPSC Exam Notes: Comprehensive explanations and high-quality material provided regularly for students

For Preliminary Examination: Loss and Damage Fund (LDF), Climate Change
 
For Mains Examination: GS III - Environment & Ecology
 
Context:
 
In the wake of the devastating landslides that recently struck Kerala’s Wayanad district, a crucial conversation has emerged around whether subnational entities can seek compensation through the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)’s Loss and Damage Fund (LDF). While this demand is justifiable, accessing climate funds is far more complex than it appears
 
Read about:
 
What is Loss and Damage Fund (LDF)?
 
India's role in Loss and Damage Fund
 
Key takeaways:
 

The Loss and Damage Fund is a financial mechanism established to help developing countries cope with the adverse impacts of climate change. It was created as part of international climate negotiations, specifically under the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC), to provide compensation for losses and damages caused by climate-related disasters such as floods, storms, sea-level rise, and other extreme events.

The fund aims to address the consequences that are beyond the capacity of countries to adapt to, especially in vulnerable nations that contribute the least to global emissions but are disproportionately affected by climate change. The Loss and Damage Fund became a key outcome of the COP27 climate conference in 2022, where developed countries agreed to contribute financial resources to support this effort.

This fund acknowledges that even with mitigation and adaptation efforts, certain damages from climate change are inevitable and need to be addressed through financial aid.

 

More Information

 

India has played a significant role in advocating for the establishment of the Loss and Damage Fund to address the impacts of climate change on vulnerable nations. As a developing country and a key player in global climate negotiations, India has consistently highlighted the need for a fair and equitable approach to climate finance, with an emphasis on the principle of "common but differentiated responsibilities" (CBDR). This principle underscores that while all countries must act on climate change, developed nations, which have historically contributed the most to global emissions, should take greater responsibility in financing climate-related losses and damages.

Key aspects of India's role in the Loss and Damage Fund:

  • Advocacy for Climate Justice: India has been vocal about the importance of climate justice, emphasizing that developing countries, which are the least responsible for global warming, should not bear the brunt of its impacts. India has consistently pushed for financial assistance to help vulnerable countries cope with irreversible losses from climate disasters.

  • Supporting the Vulnerable: Although India itself faces significant climate risks, it has also supported the cause of smaller, more vulnerable nations, such as small island developing states (SIDS) and least developed countries (LDCs), that are at the frontline of climate change impacts. At COP27, India aligned with other developing nations in advocating for the creation of a Loss and Damage Fund to address the needs of these countries.

  • Balanced Approach: While supporting the Loss and Damage Fund, India has also stressed the need for a balanced approach in climate negotiations, which should not detract from the importance of mitigation and adaptation efforts. India emphasizes that the Loss and Damage mechanism should complement, rather than replace, efforts to reduce emissions and invest in adaptation strategies.

  • Focus on Implementation: After the Loss and Damage Fund was agreed upon at COP27 in 2022, India has continued to focus on the implementation phase. India calls for transparency and clarity in how the fund will be structured, governed, and financed, with a clear distinction between contributions from developed countries and developing nations

 

 Follow Up Question

1.Explain the purpose of the Green Grid Initiative launched at World Leaders Summit of the COP26 UN Climate Change Conference in Glasgow in November, 2021. When was this idea first floated in the International Solar Alliance (ISA)? (2021)

2.Describe the major outcomes of the 26th session of the Conference of the Parties (COP) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). What are the commitments made by India in this conference? (2021)

New study suggests existence of a dockyard at Lothal, Gujarat, during Harappan Civilisation

For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international importance

 

Context:

Since the discovery of Harappan sites at Lothal, located in the Bhal region of Gujarat, in the 1950s, archaeologists have been divided on whether a dockyard existed at the location during the Indus Valley Civilisation

 

Read about:

What is Indus Valley Civilisation (IVC)?

What is Art & Culture in Harappan Civilisation?

 

Key takeaways:

 

  • The researchers developed their study based on the hypothesis that Lothal was connected to an inland network that linked it to the Rann of Kutch. During their investigation, Gupta identified a water channel, which turned out to be the Sabarmati River.
  • This river originally flowed by Lothal but has since shifted to its current course, now located 20 kilometers away, according to the study.
  • By using advanced technology, the researchers traced the gradual shifting of the Sabarmati River, which, at one point, flowed near Lothal. This indicates that when Lothal functioned as a Harappan port, the river was likely flowing at that location.
  • The Nal Sarovar was also in full flow, with a river branching out from it. Thus, there was a route from Lothal to the Nal Sarovar, then to the Little Rann, and finally to Dholavira. It would have taken about two days to travel this route by boat, suggesting that traders might have used it for transporting goods. Evidence of foreign trade found at Lothal supports this theory.
  • Some researchers who believed in the existence of a dockyard at Lothal based their argument on the discovery of a basin measuring 222 x 37 meters. Others, however, suggested it was merely an “irrigation tank.”
  • To support their study, the researchers utilized data from early maps, satellite imagery, and digital elevation models, which are 3D representations of a planet or celestial body’s topography.
  • The research focused on two topographic maps from the 19th century, which helped distinguish paleochannels—ancient river channels—from perennial streams and allowed the researchers to understand the geomorphic changes that have taken place over the past 150 years

 Follow Up Question

1.Which of the following statements about the Harappan civilisation is/are correct?

  1. The Harappan civilisation was primarily urban and had advanced town planning with well-laid-out streets and drainage systems.
  2. The Harappan people had knowledge of metallurgy and produced copper, bronze, lead, and tin objects.
  3. The script used by the Harappan people has been deciphered, revealing their detailed trade records and social structure.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, and 3

Answer (A)
 
  • Statement 1 is correct: The Harappan civilisation was known for its advanced urban planning, which included well-organized streets laid out in a grid pattern and a sophisticated drainage system.

  • Statement 2 is correct: The Harappans had knowledge of metallurgy and produced various objects made of copper, bronze, lead, and tin.

  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The script used by the Harappan people, often referred to as the Indus script, has not yet been deciphered, and thus their trade records and social structure remain largely unknown

 
PSLV-C59 places PROBA-3 satellites into designated orbit with precision
 
For Preliminary Examination: Proba, Proba-3, PSLV-C59
 
For Mains Examination: GS III - Science & Technology
 
Context:
After being rescheduled for a day as an anomaly was detected, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) on Thursday successfully launched the PROBA-3 (Project for Onboard Autonomy) mission of the European Space Agency aboard a Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle-C59 rocket. The vehicle took off with a powerful roar precisely at 4.04 p.m. from the first launch pad at the Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota
 
Read about:
 
Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
 
PROBA-3 (Project for Onboard Autonomy) 
 
Key takeaways:
 
  • After a one-day delay due to an anomaly, the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) successfully launched the European Space Agency's (ESA) PROBA-3 (Project for Onboard Autonomy) mission on Thursday. The mission was carried aboard the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle-C59 (PSLV-C59), which lifted off at 4:04 p.m. from the Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota, with a thunderous roar.
  • ISRO Chairman S. Somanath confirmed the mission’s success, stating, “The PSLV-C59/PROBA-3 mission is successfully accomplished. The spacecraft has been placed in the right orbit.” ISRO announced that the mission objectives were achieved, with the satellites deployed into their designated orbit with high precision.
  • ESA Director-General Josef Aschbacher remarked, “The latest addition to ESA’s in-orbit demonstration missions, PROBA-3, includes two spacecraft launched together. Once in orbit, they will separate to perform precise formation flying... Shortly after separation, the Yatharagga station in Australia began receiving signals from the spacecraft, and telemetry is now flowing to ESA’s mission control centre in Belgium.”
  • The ESA website highlighted that the PROBA-3 spacecraft pair, launched from India, could revolutionize future space missions. These twin platforms will demonstrate precise formation flying down to a millimetre, functioning as if they were a single spacecraft. As part of their mission, they will create artificial solar eclipses in orbit, allowing extended observations of the Sun’s corona, the outermost layer of its atmosphere.
  • Eighteen minutes post-launch, the two satellites stacked together separated from the upper stage and will remain attached during their initial commissioning phase. This phase is being overseen by ESA’s mission control at the European Space Security and Education Centre in Redu, Belgium.
  • PROBA-3 mission manager Damien Galano expressed his enthusiasm, saying, “Today’s lift-off is a moment we in ESA’s PROBA-3 team and our industrial and scientific partners have been eagerly anticipating for a long time.”
  • According to ESA, if the commissioning phase proceeds as planned, the spacecraft will be separated early in the New Year to begin their individual check-outs. The mission's operational phase, including the first corona observations through active formation flying, is expected to commence in approximately four months
 
PROBA-3 (Project for Onboard Autonomy)
 

PROBA-3, an initiative by the European Space Agency (ESA), is an advanced in-orbit demonstration mission designed to showcase precision formation flying capabilities. This groundbreaking mission involves two spacecraft that operate as a single coordinated unit, achieving control down to the millimetre level.

Mission Objectives:

  • Formation Flying: The twin spacecraft will demonstrate precise relative positioning and synchronized movement, simulating the functionality of a single, giant satellite.
  • Artificial Solar Eclipses: By flying in a tightly controlled formation, the spacecraft will create artificial solar eclipses, enabling extended observation of the Sun’s corona, which is otherwise challenging due to the Sun’s brightness.
  • Technological Validation: PROBA-3 serves as a testbed for advanced autonomous systems that can pave the way for future space missions requiring highly coordinated multi-satellite operations
 
Follow Up Question
 

1.Consider the following statements about the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV):

  1. PSLV is a four-stage launch vehicle, with alternating solid and liquid stages.
  2. It is capable of placing satellites only in Sun-synchronous polar orbits.
  3. PSLV was the vehicle used to launch India’s Chandrayaan-1 mission.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Options:
a) 1 and 2 only
b) 1 and 3 only
c) 2 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer (b)
 
  1. First statement: "PSLV is a four-stage launch vehicle, with alternating solid and liquid stages."
    • This is CORRECT. The PSLV indeed has four stages: first and third stages are solid-fuel, while the second and fourth stages use liquid fuel.
  2. Second statement: "It is capable of placing satellites only in Sun-synchronous polar orbits."
    • This is INCORRECT. While PSLV is excellent for polar and Sun-synchronous orbits, it is capable of launching satellites into multiple types of orbits, including Low Earth Orbit (LEO), Sun-synchronous orbit, and some other orbits.
  3. Third statement: "PSLV was the vehicle used to launch India's Chandrayaan-1 mission."
    • This is CORRECT. PSLV-C11 was indeed the launch vehicle that successfully launched the Chandrayaan-1 lunar mission on October 22, 2008.

Let's count the correct statements:

  • Statement 1: Correct
  • Statement 2: Incorrect
  • Statement 3: Correct

Therefore, statements 1 and 3 are correct.

 
 
For Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international importance
 
For Mains Examination: GS III - Environmental & Ecology
 
Context:
The air quality in the national capital has been struggling to recover from the lows to which it dropped right after Deepavali despite the implementation of GRAP stage IV measures, the active intervention of the Supreme Court, and stop-gap measures by the Delhi government. 
 
Read about:
 
Stubble burning
 
Reasons and Solutions for Stubble burning
 
Key takeaways:
 

The air quality in the national capital remains critically poor following Deepavali, despite the implementation of GRAP stage IV measures, active Supreme Court intervention, and temporary measures by the Delhi government. Much of the blame is being directed at farm fires in neighboring states, where farmers burn paddy stubble to prepare for the wheat-sowing season. Although these fires are not the sole cause of Delhi’s deteriorating air quality, the controversy over how they are measured highlights their significant attention.

How are the fires monitored?

Farmers in Punjab and Haryana grow rice during the kharif season, harvesting it in November, relying on monsoon rains to meet the crop's high water demand. After harvest, they clear the leftover stubble to prepare for the next crop. Burning the stubble is often the quickest and cheapest method, but during this season, winds carry the resulting particulate matter to Delhi, worsening air quality.

Given the scale of the fires, satellite data is considered the most efficient way to monitor them. The Indian government currently uses data from NASA’s Aqua and Suomi-NPP satellites.

  • Aqua satellite: Launched in 2002, its Moderate Resolution Imaging Spectroradiometer (MODIS) tracks atmospheric changes.
  • Suomi-NPP satellite: Launched in 2011, its Visible Infrared Imaging Radiometer Suite (VIIRS) serves as MODIS’s successor. Both are part of NASA’s Earth Observing System.

These satellites pass over locations twice daily—at 1:30 p.m. and 1:30 a.m. local time—capturing visible and infrared images. Their instruments can detect fires, smoke, and aerosols, which are critical for understanding the fires' impact on air pollution.

What is the controversy?

  • On October 2, NASA scientist Hiren Jethva noted a 40% reduction in farm fires for 2023 and expressed optimism for a continued decline. Later, in October 2024, he observed the lowest fire counts in a decade but suggested that farmers might be burning stubble after the satellites' overpass times, requiring further verification.
  • He backed this claim by comparing data from Aqua, Suomi-NPP, and South Korea’s GEO-KOMPSAT 2A satellite, which operates in geostationary orbit and provides near-continuous coverage. The visuals indicated increased smoke later in the day, aligning with suspicions of delayed stubble burning.
  • Adding to the controversy, the CAQM (Commission for Air Quality Management) is accused of downplaying these activities. Internal documents and farmer testimonies suggest they were advised to burn stubble after the satellite overpasses to evade detection.
  • While CAQM claims reduced fire incidents, conflicting data from Punjab's government and the Indian Agricultural Research Institute suggest an increase.

Government and Court Responses

The Supreme Court has criticized the CAQM for its inadequate efforts to address pollution from farm fires. The CAQM maintains that fire incidents in Punjab and Haryana have decreased significantly since 2020, though its methods have been questioned. It also requested ISRO to develop a standard protocol for measuring burnt areas, but progress remains slow.

Can Indian satellites assist?

  • Indian satellites such as INSAT-3DR and RESOURCESAT series offer potential, but their resolution limits their effectiveness in accurately counting farm fires. Attempts to launch advanced satellites like GISAT-1 have faced setbacks. ISRO continues to explore the usability of data from various international satellites to improve fire monitoring, but assessments are ongoing.
 
Follow Up Question
 

In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index? ( UPSC 2016)

  1. Carbon dioxide
  2. Carbon monoxide
  3. Nitrogen dioxide
  4. Sulfur dioxide
  5. Methane

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3 only   

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only     

(c) 1, 4 and 5 only         

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Answer (b)

When calculating the Air Quality Index (AQI) in cities, the following atmospheric gases are typically considered:

  • Carbon monoxide (CO) - A significant pollutant that can impact human health at high concentrations.
  • Nitrogen dioxide (NO2) - Emitted from vehicles and industrial processes, contributing to smog and respiratory problems.
  • Sulfur dioxide (SO2) - Released from burning fossil fuels and can cause respiratory issues and contribute to acid rain
 

Why can’t the world agree on a plastic ban?

For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international importance

For Mains Examination: GS III - Environment & Ecology

Context:

The 5th Intergovernmental Negotiating Committee (INC-5) on plastic pollution was a conclave of delegations from about 170 countries mandated to establish a legally binding treaty to end plastic pollution, informally called the Global Plastics Treaty. Despite a week of meetings, the INC-5 failed to meet its mandate.

Read about:

Single Plastic Use

Global Plastic Treaty

 

Key takeaways:

What is the Global Plastics Treaty?

  • In March 2022, the United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA) committed to combating plastic pollution, including in marine ecosystems. To achieve this, it established Intergovernmental Negotiating Committees (INC) tasked with drafting a treaty by the end of 2024.
  • Over two years, countries convened five times to reconcile differing perspectives on addressing plastic pollution. While many nations support recycling initiatives and banning specific plastics, such as India's 2022 prohibition on single-use plastics, they remain hesitant to curb overall plastic production.
  • This resistance stems from the economic significance of plastic manufacturing in petro-states and countries with large polymer industries.
  • Ahead of the most recent negotiation round in Busan, South Korea, INC-5 Chair Luis Vayas Valdivieso presented a draft "non-paper," summarizing nations' varied approaches to managing plastic production.
  • However, negotiations highlighted a stark divide between countries that see plastic pollution as a waste management issue and those advocating for production cuts at the source. This gap remains unresolved

 

How Severe is Plastic Pollution?

  • The scale of plastic pollution is staggering. According to the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP), plastic waste production nearly tripled between 1970 and 1990 and surged significantly in the early 2000s, growing more in that decade than in the previous 40 years combined.
  • Today, the world generates approximately 400 million tonnes of plastic waste annually, a figure projected to reach 1,100 million tonnes by 2050 if current trends persist.
  • Single-use plastics have become increasingly prevalent, with 36% of all plastics used in packaging, of which 85% ends up in landfills or unmanaged waste.
  • Nearly all single-use plastic items—98%—are derived from fossil fuels, contributing to greenhouse gas emissions that could consume 19% of the global carbon budget by 2040.
  • Despite efforts, less than 10% of the seven billion tonnes of plastic waste ever produced has been recycled. Much of this waste is lost to the environment or exported for disposal, often burned or dumped.
  • The financial loss from inefficient processing of plastic packaging waste is estimated at $80–$120 billion annually. Commonly discarded items include cigarette butts (containing microplastics), food wrappers, bottles, and grocery bags.

 

India’s Position on the Treaty

  • India has expressed reservations about proposals to regulate the production of primary plastic polymers, citing concerns about its developmental rights. At the INC negotiations, India's delegation, led by Naresh Pal Gangwar, emphasized its commitment to consensus-based decision-making under multilateral agreements. India highlighted its existing measures, such as banning 22 single-use plastic items and implementing an Extended Producer Responsibility (EPR) regime to enforce recycling obligations for companies.
  • However, India views restrictions on plastic production as trade barriers, given its economic reliance on virgin polymer production and exports, with major corporations like Reliance Industries heavily invested in this sector.
  • India aligns with countries like China and Saudi Arabia in opposing stringent production cuts. While 85–100 countries supported measures to limit plastic production and set year-wise targets, India objected to voting mechanisms for advancing treaty negotiations, arguing that such processes could undermine equity and consensus

Is This the End of the Road?

Not at all. A continuation of negotiations, referred to as “INC 5.2,” is anticipated next year to seek a resolution and finalize the treaty. If adopted, the treaty would pave the way for periodic Conferences of Parties (COP) similar to climate agreements. Historical precedents show that environmental treaties often take years to negotiate, ratify, and implement. For example, the United Nations Convention on the Law of the Sea (UNCLOS) required multiple sessions over five years to finalize its instrument on marine biodiversity. Similarly, the Global Plastics Treaty negotiations may require extended discussions and adjustments before reaching a consensus

 

Follow Up Question

1.Consider the following statements : (UPSC 2023)

1.In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol.

2.The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (c)

The Biodiversity Management Committees (BMCs) are crucial for implementing the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol, which focuses on access to genetic resources and the fair and equitable sharing of benefits arising from their utilization. Under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002, BMCs are responsible for preparing People's Biodiversity Registers (PBRs) and ensuring the conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity, aligning with the protocol's goals.

Statement 2:

The BMCs play a significant role in Access and Benefit Sharing (ABS) mechanisms. They have the authority to determine and charge collection fees for accessing biological resources within their jurisdiction. This is in accordance with the guidelines under the Biological Diversity Act, which mandates fair benefit-sharing for local communities.

Thus, both statements are correct, making the correct answer (c) Both 1 and 2

 

Manual Scavenging

For Preliminary Examination:   Focus on constitutional provisions, government schemes, and laws related to manual scavenging.

For Mains Examination: Essay, GS Paper II (Social Justice), GS Paper III (Infrastructure, Technology), and Ethics (Dignity and Rights)

Context:

As per the Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act, 2013 (MS Act, 2013), manual scavenging is a banned activity in the country with effect from 06.12.2013. No person or agency can engage or employ any person for manual scavenging from the above date 

 

Read about:

Manual Scavenging

Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act, 2013 (MS Act, 2013)

Key takeaways:

Manual scavenging refers to the practice of manually cleaning, carrying, disposing of, or handling human excreta from insanitary latrines, drains, or sewers. It is a highly stigmatized and hazardous activity predominantly undertaken by marginalized communities in India.

  • Constitution of India:

    • Article 14: Right to Equality.
    • Article 17: Abolition of untouchability.
    • Article 21: Right to a dignified life.
  • Legislative Framework:

    • Employment of Manual Scavengers and Construction of Dry Latrines (Prohibition) Act, 1993: Prohibits the construction of dry latrines and the employment of manual scavengers.
    • Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act, 2013:
      • Prohibits manual scavenging in any form.
      • Mandates mechanization for cleaning sewers and septic tanks.
      • Provides rehabilitation measures, including skill training, financial aid, and alternative employment opportunities.
Challenges
 
  • Most manual scavengers belong to Scheduled Castes and face systemic discrimination.
  • Exposure to toxic gases and pathogens leads to severe health issues, including respiratory disorders, infections, and even death.
  • Despite legal prohibition, manual scavenging persists due to poor enforcement and lack of alternatives
  • Lack of alternative livelihoods forces individuals to continue this hazardous occupation
  • Mechanization of cleaning processes is limited in rural and urban areas due to inadequate infrastructure
 
 
 

Government Initiatives

  • National Action Plan for Mechanized Sanitation Ecosystem (NAMASTE):

    • Aims to eliminate manual scavenging by promoting mechanized cleaning of sewers and septic tanks.
  • Self-Employment Scheme for Rehabilitation of Manual Scavengers (SRMS):

    • Provides financial assistance, skill training, and loans for rehabilitation.
  • Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM):

    • Focus on constructing sanitary latrines to eliminate the need for manual cleaning.
  • Skill Development Initiatives:

    • Government collaborations with NGOs to provide training and alternative employment opportunities.
Follow Up Question
 

1.Which of the following statements regarding manual scavenging in India is/are correct?

  1. The Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act, 2013, explicitly prohibits the construction of insanitary latrines and manual cleaning of human excreta.
  2. The National Action Plan for Mechanized Sanitation Ecosystem (NAMASTE) aims to eliminate manual scavenging by 2025.
  3. Article 21 of the Indian Constitution explicitly mentions the prohibition of manual scavenging.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
 
Answer (b)
 
  • The Prohibition of Employment as Manual Scavengers and their Rehabilitation Act, 2013:
    • This statement is CORRECT. The Act explicitly prohibits the construction of dry latrines, manual cleaning of human excreta, and employment of manual scavengers.
  • NAMASTE aims to eliminate manual scavenging by 2025:
    • This statement is CORRECT. The National Action Plan for Mechanized Sanitation Ecosystem (NAMASTE) was launched by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment with the goal of complete elimination of manual scavenging by 2025.
  • Article 21 explicitly mentions the prohibition of manual scavenging:
    • This statement is INCORRECT. Article 21 of the Indian Constitution deals with the Right to Life and Personal Liberty, but does not explicitly mention manual scavenging. While the Supreme Court has interpreted Article 21 to include the right to live with human dignity, which supports the prohibition of manual scavenging, the article itself does not directly mention manual scavenging.

Therefore, statements 1 and 2 are correct.

The correct answer is: (b) 1 and 2 only

 

The code of conduct judges need to follow

For Preliminary Examination: Collegium System, Supreme Court, High Court, NJAC vs Collegium

For Mains Examination: GS II - Indian Polity & Governance

 

Context:

The comments made by Allahabad High Court judge, Justice Shekhar Kumar Yadav, against the Muslim community at an event organised by the Vishwa Hindu Parishad on December 8, has drawn public flak. Justice Yadav has said that the country would function as per the wishes of the majority living in Hindustan.

Read about:

Hierarchy in Judiciary System

Supreme Court

High Court

 

Key takeaways:

Judicial Ethics

  • Judicial power stems from the public’s trust in the judiciary’s authority and the integrity of its judges. Over time, the judiciary has codified standards for judicial conduct, both in and out of the courtroom. The 'Restatement of Values of Judicial Life,' adopted by the Supreme Court in 1997, is a key code that governs judicial behavior.
  • The first rule of this code stresses that judges should act in a way that reinforces public confidence in the impartiality of the judiciary.
  • Any behavior that undermines this trust, whether in a judge's official or personal capacity, must be avoided. Unfortunately, Justice Yadav’s actions appear to contradict this, as the code also mandates that judges remain aware of their public visibility at all times.
  • The Bangalore Principles of Judicial Conduct (2002) set out a comprehensive framework for judicial conduct, requiring judges to conduct themselves in a manner that enhances public trust in their impartiality and independence.
  • While these guidelines affirm a judge’s right to freedom of expression, they also stress the need to preserve the dignity and impartiality of the judicial office and recognize society’s diversity.

Judicial Impeachment Process

  • According to the Constitution, judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts can be removed by the President following a successful impeachment process on grounds of proven misbehavior or incapacity.
  • A motion for the removal of a constitutional court judge requires the support of a special majority in the House, which includes two-thirds of the members present and voting.
  • The Constitution limits discussions about judicial misconduct to motions for removal and forbids such discussions in other contexts.
  • However, the Supreme Court has developed an internal procedure that allows judges facing serious allegations to opt for voluntary retirement, avoiding the public embarrassment of impeachment.
  • This procedure, established in 1999 and made public in 2014, provides a pathway for addressing complaints against High Court judges. Complaints can be submitted to the President, Chief Justice of India (CJI), or the Chief Justice of the concerned High Court.
  • If necessary, the complaint is escalated to the CJI, who can then appoint a fact-finding committee to investigate the allegations.
  • If the committee finds sufficient grounds for removal, the CJI can ask the judge to retire. Should the judge refuse, the matter is forwarded to the President and the Prime Minister, paving the way for impeachment

 Follow Up Question

1.In India, Judicial Review implies (UPSC 2017)
A. the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders
B. the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures
C. the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President
D. the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgments given earlier in similar or different cases
 
Answer (A)
 

In India, judicial review refers to the power of the judiciary to examine and determine whether legislative and executive actions are consistent with the Constitution. The judiciary has the authority to invalidate laws and executive actions that are found to be unconstitutional. This power is a key aspect of the system of checks and balances in the Indian constitutional framework.

This was established by the Supreme Court of India in several landmark cases such as Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala (1973) and Minerva Mills v. Union of India (1980)

 
Subject and Subject Wise Notes for the Sunday Exam (Free)
 
Subject Topic Description
Polity Fundamental Duties Fundamental Duties
Environment & Ecology Biodiversity in India Biodiversity
History Modern Indian History Constitutional Development in India
History Modern Indian History Peasants, Tribal and other movements
 

 

UPSC EXAM NOTES will be conducting both Prelims and Mains exams every Sunday as part of the Integrated Mains and Prelims (IMPM) Program. This program provides a comprehensive approach to UPSC exam preparation, ensuring that candidates are well-prepared for both stages of the exam.

Program Highlights:

  • Daily Study Keys: Each day, we will provide keys that outline what to read, focusing on the most relevant topics and current affairs.
  • Subject Notes: In addition to daily keys, we will supply detailed subject notes to help you build a strong foundation in all necessary areas.
  • Sunday Exams: Every Sunday, a combined exam will be held, encompassing the daily keys' content and subject notes, along with a culmination of current affairs from various sources. These exams will cover both Prelims and Mains syllabi.
  • Format: Exams will be available in both online and offline formats to cater to different preferences and situations.

Duration: The IMPM plan is a one-year program, ensuring continuous and structured preparation over 12 months. With regular testing and consistent study guidance, this program is designed to maximize your chances of success in the UPSC exams

 
Previous IMPM Keys
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 

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