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| Exclusive for Subscribers Daily: SIPRI report and BioE3 scheme for the UPSC Exam? Why are topics like India-European Union (EU) bilateral relations , Mission Mausam important for both preliminary and main exams? Discover more insights in the UPSC Exam Notes for March 11, 2025 |
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Critical Topics and Their Significance for the UPSC CSE Examination on March 11, 2025
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India second-largest arms importer after Ukraine in 2020-24, says SIPRI
For Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international importance
For Mains Examination: GS III - Security Issues
Context:
At 36%, imports from Russia made up largest share of Indian imports, down from 55% in 2015-19; India received the largest share of French arms exports at 28%; China dropped out of the list of top 10 arms importers for the first time since 1990-94
Read about:
Indigenization of defence
Which countries are the top arms suppliers to India?
Key takeaways:
- Ukraine, engaged in a conflict with Russia for the past four years, emerged as the world's largest importer of major arms between 2020 and 2024, witnessing an almost 100-fold surge in imports compared to the 2015–2019 period.
- India ranked as the second-largest arms importer, despite experiencing a 9.3% decline in imports between the two periods, according to data from the Stockholm International Peace Research Institute (SIPRI).
- India remained the top destination for arms exports from both Russia and France, although its imports from Moscow saw a notable decline.
- For the first time since 1990–94, China did not feature among the top 10 arms importers, reflecting the growth of its domestic defense industry.
- The share of Russian arms in India’s total imports stood at 36% in 2020–24, a marked decrease from 55% in 2015–19 and 72% in 2010–14, as per the report.
- Pakistan’s arms imports rose by 61% over the same period, with China strengthening its role as the country's primary supplier. Beijing accounted for 81% of Pakistan’s arms imports in 2020–24, up from 74% in the previous five-year span.
- Arms imports by European nations collectively surged by 155% as the region ramped up its defense capabilities. Meanwhile, the U.S. expanded its dominance in global arms exports, increasing its share to 43%.
- In contrast, Russia’s arms exports declined by 64%, bringing its global share down to 7.8%, placing it behind France (9.6%), which became the second-largest arms exporter in 2020–24.
- Four nations from Asia and Oceania—India, Pakistan, Japan, and Australia—were among the world's top 10 arms importers during this period.
- Russia supplied major arms to 33 countries, with two-thirds of its exports going to just three nations: India (38%), China (17%), and Kazakhstan (11%).
French Arms Exports
During this period, France exported arms to 65 countries, with its military exports to European nations nearly tripling (187%) between 2015–19 and 2020–24. This surge was largely driven by deliveries of combat aircraft to Greece and Croatia, along with military aid to Ukraine following Russia’s full-scale invasion in 2022.
India accounted for the largest share of French arms exports (28%), nearly double the total sent to all European nations combined (15%). Qatar was the second-largest recipient, receiving 9.7% of France’s major arms exports.
India has signed contracts for several high-value military platforms from France, including 36 Rafale fighter jets and six Scorpene-class submarines. Additional deals, including those for 26 Rafale-M jets and three submarines, are expected to be finalized soon.
Global Arms Transfers
- The overall volume of global arms transfers remained relatively stable compared to 2015–19 and 2010–14, though it was 18% higher than in 2005–09. Increased imports in Europe and the Americas offset declines in other regions.
- Italy advanced to sixth place among global arms exporters, with a 4.8% share of total sales, rising from its previous 10th-place position.
- At least 35 countries have supplied weapons to Ukraine since the conflict escalated in 2022, and further deliveries are anticipated. The country accounted for 8.8% of global arms imports during 2020–24
1.Which one of the following is the best description of ‘INS Astradharini’, that was in the news recently? (UPSC CSE 2016)
(a) Amphibious warfare ship
(b) Nuclear-powered submarine
(c) Torpedo launch and recovery vessel
(d) Nuclear-powered aircraft car
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Answer (c)
INS Astradharini is an indigenously designed and built torpedo launch and recovery vessel used by the Indian Navy. It is primarily utilized for testing and recovering torpedoes, mines, and underwater weaponry, playing a crucial role in the development and evaluation of naval armaments
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The BioE3 Policy aims to establish a structured framework to facilitate the adoption of cutting-edge technologies and align innovative research efforts to advance biomanufacturing.
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It provides guidelines and principles to support mechanisms that drive high-performance biomanufacturing across multiple sectors in the country.
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The policy seeks to transform biomanufacturing by enhancing efficiency, sustainability, and quality, while also accelerating the development and production of high-value bio-based products.
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It is aligned with India’s Green Growth vision, as highlighted in the Union Budget 2023–24, and supports the Prime Minister’s Lifestyle for Environment (LiFE) initiative, which advocates for a collective approach to sustainability.
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Additionally, the policy aligns with India’s Net-Zero carbon economy goal. The Biomanufacturing and Biofoundry initiative, introduced in the Interim Budget 2024–25, is a key step in this direction.
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A major focus of the policy is the development of "smart proteins", designed to mimic the taste and texture of traditional protein sources while ensuring climate resilience in food production.
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The Department of Biotechnology has invited applications for research grants aimed at developing these proteins and addressing challenges in scaling up their production. The objective is to create an ecosystem that enables safe, affordable, and efficient protein manufacturing.
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Research will concentrate on three primary methods of protein production.
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Fermentation-derived proteins: These are extracted from microbial sources such as algae, bacteria, and fungi, which naturally produce protein alternatives to meat. However, the key challenge is to develop cost-effective biomanufacturing techniques that ensure commercial viability.
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To overcome this challenge, research efforts will focus on recombinant microbial system design, optimizing metabolic pathways for higher yield, employing gene editing to enhance strain productivity, and minimizing by-products.
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Additionally, researchers will work on refining processes to eliminate allergens and toxins while exploring the use of agricultural by-products and alternative sources instead of glucose for fermentation
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1.According to India's National Policy on Biofuels, which of the following can be used as raw materials for the production of biofuels? (UPSC 2020)
1. Cassava
2. Damaged wheat grains
3. Groundnut seeds
4. Horse gram
5. Rotten potatoes
6. Sugar beet
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A. 1, 2, 5 and 6 only
B. 1, 3, 4 and 6 only
C. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
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Answer (A)
According to India's National Policy on Biofuels, the following can be used as raw materials for biofuel production: Cassava (1) – A starchy crop that can be used to produce bioethanol. Groundnut seeds (3) and Horse gram (4) – These are not listed as approved feedstocks for biofuel production, as they are primarily used for food and fodder rather than energy production |
For Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international importance
For Mains Examination: GS II - International relations
Context:
India and the European Union (EU) will start the 10th round of negotiations for a bilateral Free Trade Agreement (FTA) on March 10, 2025, with a clear deadline from its top leadership to finalise the pact by this year-end.
Read about:
India-European Union (EU) bilateral relations
Free Trade Agreement (FTA)
Key takeaways:
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The European Union (EU) imposes restrictions on remote online service delivery and does not classify India as a data-secure country, limiting the flow of data. Additionally, European firms are pushing for greater market access in India's banking, legal, accountancy, auditing, and financial services sectors.
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In addition to these long-standing concerns, new challenges have emerged, such as the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM), commonly known as the carbon tax. India has sought exemptions for small and medium enterprises (SMEs) from CBAM-related obligations. During the 2nd Trade and Technology Council (TTC) meeting, both sides agreed to explore ways to mitigate the impact of CBAM on SMEs.
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Despite unresolved issues, experts suggest that factors such as the global tariff war initiated by the US, India’s evolving stance on import duties, and the EU’s greater flexibility on carbon taxation could drive negotiations forward in the upcoming round of discussions.
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The 10th round of trade talks, scheduled from March 10 to March 14 in Brussels, follows a high-level engagement between the two parties. Last month, European Commission President Ursula von der Leyen and other top EU officials visited India for extensive discussions on bilateral relations.
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The EU is a key trading partner for India, with bilateral goods trade amounting to $190 billion, making it as significant a market as the United States. While uncertainty surrounds a potential Bilateral Trade Agreement (BTA) with the US, discussions with the EU have been ongoing in their current phase since 2022.
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In the agricultural sector, the EU is pressing India to lower tariffs on cheese and skimmed milk powder, even though it continues to impose high duties and strict regulatory standards. Even if India reduces tariffs, compliance with the EU’s regulatory framework will remain a significant challenge for Indian farmers and food producers.
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The EU is also seeking a reduction in import duties on wine, proposing a drop to 30-40% from the current 150%. India, which previously agreed to a 50% duty in its trade agreement with Australia, may offer a similar concession to the EU
The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that
1. limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union
2. makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilitie
3. enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologie
How many of the above statements are correct
(a) Only one
(b) Only two
(c) All three
(d) None
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Answer (a)
The Stability and Growth Pact (SGP) is a treaty that primarily focuses on fiscal discipline within the European Union (EU) by setting limits on budget deficits and public debt levels. Statement 1 is correct – The SGP limits the budgetary deficit of EU countries. It requires member states to keep their fiscal deficit below 3% of GDP and public debt below 60% of GDP to ensure financial stability. Statement 2 is incorrect – The SGP does not mandate the sharing of infrastructure among EU countries. Statement 3 is incorrect – The treaty does not involve sharing technologies among EU nations. Since only one statement is correct, the right choice is (a) Only one |
Can States tax mining activities?
For Preliminary Examination : Current events of national and international importance
For Mains Examination: GS II- What is the difference between Royalty and Tax?, Can States tax mining activities?
Context: In a landmark ruling on July 25, the Supreme Court affirmed that States have the legislative authority to impose taxes on minerals in addition to the royalty levied by the Centre. Upholding the principles of federalism, the verdict clarified that the power of State legislatures to tax mineral activities within their respective territories is not constrained by Parliament’s Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (1957 Act)
Read about:
What are the different lists under Constitution?
What is Royalty?
Salient Key Features:
- Section 9 of the 1957 Act mandates that individuals or corporations with mining leases must “pay royalties on any minerals extracted” to the landowner who granted the lease. The central issue was whether the royalties paid by mining leaseholders to state governments under this Act should be considered a “tax.” The court also needed to determine if the central government had the authority to impose such charges or if the states had exclusive jurisdiction to levy them.
- The dispute originated from a conflict between India Cement Ltd and the Tamil Nadu government, which occurred after the company obtained a mining lease in Tamil Nadu. Although India Cement was paying royalties, the government imposed a cess—an additional tax on land revenues, including royalties.
- India Cement challenged this in the Madras High Court, arguing that the cess on royalties essentially amounted to a tax on royalties, which exceeded the state's legislative powers.
- In 1989, the Supreme Court of India ruled in favor of India Cement, stating that states only had the authority to collect royalties, not to impose additional taxes on mining activities. The Court emphasized that the central government holds overarching authority over “regulation of mines and mineral development” as outlined by the 1957 Act. Therefore, states cannot impose extra taxes in this area.
- In 2011, a three-judge Bench led by former Chief Justice S.H. Kapadia, while reviewing a challenge to a Bihar law imposing a cess on land revenue from mineral-rich lands, acknowledged the conflicting precedents set by Kesoram Industries and India Cement.
- Consequently, the issue was referred to a nine-judge Bench for a conclusive legal resolution. Entry 50 of the State List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution grants states exclusive authority to legislate on “taxes on mineral rights,” but this power is constrained by any laws enacted by Parliament related to mineral development.
- Conversely, Entry 54 of the Union List empowers the central government to regulate “mines and mineral development,” particularly when deemed necessary for public interest. During the proceedings, the central government argued that Entry 50 allowed Parliament to impose “limitations” on taxes related to mineral rights through laws like the 1957 Act.
- However, the majority concluded that royalties do not qualify as a tax and therefore do not fall under “taxes on mineral rights” as defined in Entry 50 of the State List. Consequently, the 1957 Act was interpreted as providing states with an additional revenue source through royalties without affecting their ability to levy taxes on mineral rights under Entry 50.
- While the central government is responsible for regulating mining development under Entry 54, the court clarified that this does not extend to the imposition of taxes, which remains under state jurisdiction.
- However, this power is subject to any “limitations” that Parliament may impose, potentially including a “prohibition” on such taxes. Thus, the central government could alter the legislative framework of the 1957 Act to restrict state taxation powers if desired.
- The court also affirmed that states have the authority to tax the land where mines and quarries are situated, based on Article 246 in conjunction with Entry 49 (taxes on lands and buildings) of the State List. The Chief Justice stated that mineral-bearing lands fall under Entry 49, allowing states to use land yield income as a basis for taxation
1.With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE 2019)
1. Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to the prevailing law in the country
2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.
3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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Answer (a)
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Will Mission Mausam improve weather forecasts?
For Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international importance
For Mains Examination: GS II - Governance
Context:
On September 11, the Cabinet cleared a ₹2,000 crore programme called Mission Mausam to upgrade infrastructure used to make atmospheric observations. It will involve a major upgrade of instruments used by the India Meteorological Department (IMD), the National Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting, and the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology
Read about:
What is Mission Mausam?
What is India Meteorological Department (IMD)?
Key takeaways:
On September 11, the Cabinet approved a ₹2,000 crore initiative named Mission Mausam aimed at enhancing infrastructure for atmospheric observations. This program will involve a significant upgrade to the instruments used by the India Meteorological Department (IMD), the National Centre for Medium Range Weather Forecasting, and the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology.
Objectives of the Mission
Mission Mausam aims to advance atmospheric observation capabilities to improve the accuracy of monsoon forecasts, enhance alerts for deteriorating air quality, and provide warnings for extreme weather events and cyclones. Key components of the mission include the deployment of advanced radars, satellite systems with high-performance sensors, and supercomputers. It also involves developing sophisticated earth-system models and a GIS-based automated Decision Support System for real-time data dissemination. The Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) will oversee the mission, which plans to acquire and install up to 60 weather radars, 15 wind profilers, and 15 radiosondes by 2026. These instruments will offer regular updates on wind speeds, atmospheric pressure, humidity, and temperature at various atmospheric levels.
Historical Context
This mission follows the earlier 'Monsoon Mission' launched in 2012. Traditionally, the IMD used statistical methods to predict monsoon performance, which often led to broad estimates and missed regional variations and drought probabilities. The Monsoon Mission introduced a novel approach, employing high-performance computing and dynamical models to simulate weather patterns and provide more accurate medium-range forecasts. These models, developed since 2004, can be adjusted for various forecasting needs, including daily weather and seasonal monsoon predictions, and can also be adapted for heatwaves, cold waves, and localized forecasts. However, this method is costly and demands sophisticated technology and equipment.
Innovations in Mission Mausam
Mission Mausam not only continues the advancement of dynamical models but also proposes ambitious plans for "weather management," including cloud seeding to alter weather conditions and attempts to control lightning. Lightning strikes are a major cause of natural deaths in India, with a significant number of fatalities recorded in recent years. The mission includes plans to set up a large ‘cloud chamber’ at IITM to study and potentially control lightning by modifying the electrical characteristics of clouds. While weather modification research has been ongoing since the 1950s and has included various experiments, managing the outcomes of cloud seeding remains a challenge. Mission Mausam aims to enhance understanding of these processes and refine weather modification techniques
Follow Up Question
1.In the context of which of the following do some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere? (UPSC CSE 2019)
(a) Creating the artificial rains in some regions
(b) Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones
(c) Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth
(d) Reducing the global warming
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Answer (d)
Some scientists suggest the use of cirrus cloud thinning and the injection of sulphate aerosols into the stratosphere as techniques to reduce global warming. These methods are considered forms of geoengineering aimed at reflecting more sunlight away from Earth or altering cloud properties to influence the global climate
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- A Non-Banking Financial Company (NBFC) is an entity registered under the Companies Act, 1956, that engages in financial activities such as providing loans and advances, acquiring shares, stocks, bonds, debentures, and securities issued by the government or local authorities, as well as engaging in leasing, hire-purchase, insurance, and chit fund businesses.
- However, NBFCs do not include institutions whose primary operations involve agriculture, industrial activities, trading (excluding securities), offering services, or dealing with real estate transactions.
- Additionally, a non-banking institution that primarily accepts deposits under a scheme, either as a lump sum or in installments, is classified as a Residuary Non-Banking Company (RNBC).
- For a company to qualify as an NBFC, financial activities must constitute over 50% of its total assets and generate more than 50% of its gross income—a criterion known as the 50-50 test.
- While the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Act does not explicitly define the term "principal business," the RBI uses this benchmark to ensure only companies predominantly engaged in financial activities come under its regulation.
- Businesses primarily involved in agriculture, industry, trading, service provision, or real estate, with only minor financial dealings, are not regulated by the RBI.
Differences Between NBFCs and Banks
Although NBFCs function similarly to banks by lending and making investments, there are key distinctions:
- NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits.
- They are not part of the payment and settlement system, meaning they cannot issue cheques in their own name.
- Deposits with NBFCs are not insured under the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC), unlike bank deposits.
Regulatory Requirements
As per Section 45-IA of the RBI Act, 1934, an NBFC must obtain a registration certificate from the RBI and maintain a minimum Net Owned Fund of ₹25 lakhs (raised to ₹2 crore since April 1999) to operate legally. However, certain NBFCs regulated by other authorities are exempt from RBI registration, including:
- Venture Capital Funds, Merchant Banking firms, and Stockbroking companies regulated by SEBI
- Insurance companies registered with IRDA
- Nidhi companies (as per Section 620A of the Companies Act, 1956)
- Chit Fund companies (as per the Chit Funds Act, 1982)
- Housing Finance Companies regulated by the National Housing Bank (NHB)
- Stock Exchanges and Mutual Benefit Companies
- They cannot engage in the acquisition of securities issued by the government.
- They cannot accept demand deposits like Savings Account.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
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Answer (b)
Thus, only Statement 2 is correct, making option (b) the right answer. |
What is an mRNA Cancer ‘Vaccine’?
mRNA (messenger RNA) vaccines deliver genetic instructions that enable the body's cells to generate an antigen—typically a protein or substance that stimulates an immune response. By recognizing these antigens on cancer cells, the immune system can potentially mount an attack against them.
How Does This Treatment Work?
- mRNA cancer vaccines function as a form of immunotherapy. Cancer cells often evade immune detection, but immunotherapy enhances the body's natural defenses to identify and eliminate these cells, thereby preventing their spread.
- Unlike chemotherapy, which can harm healthy cells, this approach selectively targets cancer cells, leading to fewer side effects, explains M. Manickavasagam, head of medical oncology at Sri Ramachandra Medical College, Chennai.
- In addition to mRNA-based vaccines, other immunotherapy treatments include monoclonal antibodies, CAR T-cell therapy, and immune checkpoint inhibitors. Unlike conventional vaccines designed to prevent disease, these cancer vaccines are intended for patients who already have cancer, aiming to target and destroy tumors, says Arvind Krishnamurthy, head of surgical oncology at the Cancer Institute, WIA, Chennai.
- Since each patient's tumor has unique antigens, these vaccines are personalized, potentially improving their effectiveness. Unlike COVID-19 mRNA vaccines, which target a single antigen, cancer vaccines can be designed to attack multiple antigens simultaneously.
Is Russia the Only Country Developing Cancer mRNA Vaccines?
No, multiple countries are actively researching mRNA cancer vaccines.
- In the United Kingdom, the National Health Service (NHS) launched the Cancer Vaccine Launch Pad, a clinical trial initiative aimed at accelerating the development and availability of personalized mRNA cancer vaccines for diagnosed patients.
- In the United States, biopharmaceutical company CureVac announced in September 2023 that its CVGBM cancer vaccine demonstrated promising immune responses in a phase 1 trial for glioblastoma (a type of brain cancer).
- Globally, over 120 clinical trials are underway to evaluate the potential of mRNA-based cancer vaccines.
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Answer (B)
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1.Which of the following statements about the Vaikom Satyagraha is/are correct?
- The Vaikom Satyagraha was a movement aimed at securing the rights of backward castes to use public roads around the Vaikom Mahadeva Temple.
- Periyar E.V. Ramasamy played a significant role in the movement, and he later came to be known as the "Vaikom Hero."
- The success of the Vaikom Satyagraha directly led to the Temple Entry Proclamation of 1936 in Travancore.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3
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Answer (a)
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| Subject | Topic | Description |
| Polity | Panchayats | Panchayats |
| Environment & Ecology | Wildlife Protection Act 1972 | Wildlife Protection Act 1972 |
| Economy | International Organisations | International Organisations |
| Ancient History | Buddhism | Buddhism |
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UPSC EXAM NOTES will be conducting both Prelims and Mains exams every Sunday as part of the Integrated Mains and Prelims (IMPM) Program. This program provides a comprehensive approach to UPSC exam preparation, ensuring that candidates are well-prepared for both stages of the exam. Program Highlights:
Duration: The IMPM plan is a one-year program, ensuring continuous and structured preparation over 12 months. With regular testing and consistent study guidance, this program is designed to maximize your chances of success in the UPSC exams |