INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) KEY (15/11/2024)

INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) 2025 Daily KEY

 
Exclusive for Subscribers Daily: Great Indian Bustard and Privilege Motion for the UPSC Exam? Why are topics like Different lists under Constitution important for both preliminary and main exams? Discover more insights in the UPSC Exam Notes for November 15, 2024

 

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Critical Topics and Their Significance for the UPSC CSE Examination on November 15, 2024

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Great Indian Bustard conservation efforts struggle as numbers dwindle to 2 in Karnataka 

For Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international importance

For Mains Examination: GS III - Guidelines to safegaurd Great Indian Bustard (GIB)

Context:

Despite the Karnataka government's efforts to protect the endangered Great Indian Bustard (GIB) by establishing a sanctuary in Siruguppa, Ballari district, the bird’s population continues to decline. Once abundant in the region, only two GIBs remain in Karnataka, down from six earlier this year.

 

Read about:

What is Great Indian Bustard?

Conservation of Great Indian Bustard

 

Key takeaways:

  • Despite the Karnataka government's efforts to safeguard the endangered Great Indian Bustard (GIB) by creating a sanctuary in Siruguppa, Ballari district, the species' population continues to decline. Once abundant in the area, only two GIBs remain in Karnataka, a decrease from six earlier this year.
  • In 2023, the state government designated a 14-square-kilometer forest area in Siraguppa taluk, Ballari district, as a GIB sanctuary. The Karnataka Mining Environment Restoration Corporation (KMERC) launched a special conservation project, dedicating Rs 24 crore to revitalize the GIB population across 24 villages where these birds have been observed.
  • The GIB population is rapidly decreasing due to habitat loss across various states, bringing the species dangerously close to extinction, with fewer than 150 individuals remaining in the wild since 2018, most of which are in Rajasthan.
  • The GIB is listed as ‘Critically Endangered’ on the International Union for Conservation of Nature Red List. While GIB numbers are dwindling, the species was once plentiful in the region. The state’s grasslands provide a suitable habitat for the birds, but conservation efforts are needed to maintain these grasslands and limit activities such as tree planting and construction.
  • A five-member committee overseeing the breeding center project visited the GIB breeding center at Rajasthan's Desert National Park to better understand the requirements of such a facility, according to Arun SK, the wildlife warden of Ballari. Experts from Dehradun are expected to collaborate with the Karnataka forest department on this initiative.
  • Wildlife enthusiasts report that only two GIBs — one male and one female — have recently been spotted in the Siraguppa sanctuary. The decline in GIBs has led forest department officials to take urgent measures, including geo-tagging the birds, artificially incubating eggs, reintroducing young birds to the wild, raising awareness among local communities, and establishing a research center in Ballari district.
  • The Ballari division of the forest department has sought state government approval to GPS-tag the two GIBs recently sighted in Siruguppa and its surrounding areas. Additionally, CCTV cameras have been installed to monitor the birds’ movements along the Karnataka-Andhra Pradesh border continuously.
  • Ballari Deputy Conservator of Forests (DCF) Sandeep Suryavamshi mentioned that geo-tagging is an effective way to track the GIBs’ movements, though the department is still considering its implementation.
  • While Siraguppa is not officially a sanctuary, the forest department protects the 14 sq km area because it hosts GIBs.
  • Trenches have also been dug around the area to prevent cattle intrusion, and it’s suggested that the birds may have migrated to the Rollapadu Wildlife Sanctuary, 100 km away. Currently, Karnataka’s GIB population is the smallest in India, confined to Siruguppa. According to Ballari Range Forest Officer Girish Kumar, five to six GIBs were seen five months ago, but now only two remain, likely due to climate-related migration, with hopes they will return.
  • The state government has allocated Rs 6 crore to build a research center in Siruguppa and explore GPS-tagging and artificial breeding. Local communities, farmers, and schoolchildren have been involved in raising awareness, which has significantly reduced poaching.
  • The Karnataka Forest Department plans to acquire 1,000 hectares for afforestation under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority and will fence the area to reduce human-wildlife interaction.
  • Although Karnataka's current GIB population is too small to establish a captive founder population, there is potential to reintroduce captive-bred birds from Rajasthan if grassland habitats are secured

 

 Follow up Question

1.Which of the following statements about the Great Indian Bustard (GIB) is/are correct?

  1. The Great Indian Bustard is classified as ‘Endangered’ on the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
  2. The majority of the remaining Great Indian Bustard population is found in Rajasthan.
  3. Habitat loss is a significant factor contributing to the decline of the Great Indian Bustard population in India.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

 

Answer (b)
 
  • Statement 1 is incorrect. The Great Indian Bustard is classified as ‘Critically Endangered,’ not just ‘Endangered,’ on the IUCN Red List.
  • Statement 2 is correct. The majority of the remaining Great Indian Bustard population is found in Rajasthan.
  • Statement 3 is correct. Habitat loss is indeed a significant factor contributing to the decline of the Great Indian Bustard population in India.
 
 
For Preliminary Examination: Current events of National and International Significance
For Mains Examination: GS II - Indian Polity, Parliamentary procedures
 
Context:
 
Congress MP Charanjit Singh Channi on Wednesday moved a notice to bring a privilege motion against Prime Minister Narendra Modi in the Lok Sabha for sharing the speech of BJP MP Anurag Thakur on his social media platform X
 
Read about:
 
What is a Privilege Motion?
What is a No Confidence Motion?
 
Key takeaways:
 
 

The Privileges Committee of Parliament is a committee tasked with examining cases involving the breach of privileges of Parliament or its members. Here’s a detailed explanation:

  • Composition:

    • The Privileges Committee is constituted in both Houses of Parliament: the Lok Sabha (House of the People) and the Rajya Sabha (Council of States).
    • In the Lok Sabha, the committee consists of 15 members.
    • In the Rajya Sabha, the committee comprises 10 members.
    • Members of the committee are nominated by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, respectively.
  • Functions:

    • Investigating Complaints: The primary role of the Privileges Committee is to investigate complaints regarding the breach of privileges and immunities of the members of Parliament.
    • Reporting: After a thorough investigation, the committee submits its findings and recommendations to the House.
    • Recommending Action: The committee may recommend what actions should be taken against those who have committed a breach of privilege.
  • Types of Privileges:

    • Freedom of Speech: Members of Parliament enjoy freedom of speech within the Parliament.
    • Freedom from Arrest: Members cannot be arrested in civil cases during the session of Parliament and 40 days before and after the session.
    • Right to Exclude Strangers: The House has the right to exclude strangers from its proceedings and hold secret sessions.
    • Right to Publish Debates: Parliament has the right to publish its debates and proceedings.
  • Process:

    • When a member of Parliament feels that a privilege has been breached, they can raise the issue in the House, often as a Privilege Motion.
    • The Speaker or Chairman decides on the admissibility of the motion.
    • If admitted, the matter may be referred to the Privileges Committee for investigation.
  • Outcome:

    • The committee investigates the matter, hears evidence, and reports back to the House with its findings and recommendations.
    • The House then debates the report and decides on the course of action, which could include reprimand, suspension, or other penalties depending on the severity of the breach.

The Privileges Committee plays a crucial role in maintaining the integrity and authority of Parliament

 
Also read:
 
Actions by Previleges can take
 
Follow Up Question
 

1.Which of the following statements regarding Privilege Motion in the Indian Parliament is/are correct?

  1. A Privilege Motion can be moved in either House of Parliament.
  2. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha decides on the admissibility of the Privilege Motion.
  3. A Privilege Motion is used to address a breach of parliamentary privileges by a Member of Parliament.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer (d)
 
  1. A Privilege Motion can be moved in either House of Parliament. This statement is correct. Privilege Motions can indeed be moved in both the Lok Sabha (Lower House) and the Rajya Sabha (Upper House) of the Indian Parliament.
  2. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha decides on the admissibility of the Privilege Motion. This statement is also correct. In the Lok Sabha, the Speaker has the authority to decide whether a Privilege Motion is admissible. Similarly, in the Rajya Sabha, this authority lies with the Chairman.
  3. A Privilege Motion is used to address a breach of parliamentary privileges by a Member of Parliament. This statement is partially correct but incomplete. A Privilege Motion can indeed be used to address breaches of parliamentary privileges by Members of Parliament. However, it's important to note that such motions can also be raised against individuals who are not members of the Parliament, including government officials or private citizens, if they are perceived to have breached the privileges of the House or its members.

Given this analysis, we can conclude that all three statements are essentially correct, although the third one could be more comprehensive.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

(d) 1, 2, and 3

 

Can States tax mining activities?

For Preliminary Examination : Current events of national and international importance

For Mains Examination: GS II- What is the difference between Royalty and Tax?, Can States tax mining activities?

 

Context: In a landmark ruling on July 25, the Supreme Court affirmed that States have the legislative authority to impose taxes on minerals in addition to the royalty levied by the Centre. Upholding the principles of federalism, the verdict clarified that the power of State legislatures to tax mineral activities within their respective territories is not constrained by Parliament’s Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (1957 Act)

 

Read about:

What are the different lists under Constitution?

What is Royalty?

 

Salient Key Features:

  • Section 9 of the 1957 Act mandates that individuals or corporations with mining leases must “pay royalties on any minerals extracted” to the landowner who granted the lease. The central issue was whether the royalties paid by mining leaseholders to state governments under this Act should be considered a “tax.” The court also needed to determine if the central government had the authority to impose such charges or if the states had exclusive jurisdiction to levy them.
  • The dispute originated from a conflict between India Cement Ltd and the Tamil Nadu government, which occurred after the company obtained a mining lease in Tamil Nadu. Although India Cement was paying royalties, the government imposed a cess—an additional tax on land revenues, including royalties.
  • India Cement challenged this in the Madras High Court, arguing that the cess on royalties essentially amounted to a tax on royalties, which exceeded the state's legislative powers.
  • In 1989, the Supreme Court of India ruled in favor of India Cement, stating that states only had the authority to collect royalties, not to impose additional taxes on mining activities. The Court emphasized that the central government holds overarching authority over “regulation of mines and mineral development” as outlined by the 1957 Act. Therefore, states cannot impose extra taxes in this area.
  • In 2011, a three-judge Bench led by former Chief Justice S.H. Kapadia, while reviewing a challenge to a Bihar law imposing a cess on land revenue from mineral-rich lands, acknowledged the conflicting precedents set by Kesoram Industries and India Cement.
  • Consequently, the issue was referred to a nine-judge Bench for a conclusive legal resolution. Entry 50 of the State List in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution grants states exclusive authority to legislate on “taxes on mineral rights,” but this power is constrained by any laws enacted by Parliament related to mineral development.
  • Conversely, Entry 54 of the Union List empowers the central government to regulate “mines and mineral development,” particularly when deemed necessary for public interest. During the proceedings, the central government argued that Entry 50 allowed Parliament to impose “limitations” on taxes related to mineral rights through laws like the 1957 Act.
  • However, the majority concluded that royalties do not qualify as a tax and therefore do not fall under “taxes on mineral rights” as defined in Entry 50 of the State List. Consequently, the 1957 Act was interpreted as providing states with an additional revenue source through royalties without affecting their ability to levy taxes on mineral rights under Entry 50.
  • While the central government is responsible for regulating mining development under Entry 54, the court clarified that this does not extend to the imposition of taxes, which remains under state jurisdiction.
  • However, this power is subject to any “limitations” that Parliament may impose, potentially including a “prohibition” on such taxes. Thus, the central government could alter the legislative framework of the 1957 Act to restrict state taxation powers if desired.
  • The court also affirmed that states have the authority to tax the land where mines and quarries are situated, based on Article 246 in conjunction with Entry 49 (taxes on lands and buildings) of the State List. The Chief Justice stated that mineral-bearing lands fall under Entry 49, allowing states to use land yield income as a basis for taxation
Also read :
 
What are the constitutional provisions related to the sharing of revenue between the center and the state?
What is the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution?
 
Follow Up Question:

1.With reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE 2019)

1. Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to the prevailing law in the country

2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.

3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Small Industries — Role, importance and challenges

For Preliminary Examination: Small Industries, MSME, Indian Economy

For Mains Examination: GS III - Indian Economy

 

Context:

Small-scale industries (SSIs) are privately or independently owned and operated businesses that produce goods or services on a small scale

 

Read about:

What is Village Small Industries (VSI)?

What are Small Marginal and Medium (MSME) Industries ?

 

Key takeaways:

Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSME) are businesses categorized based on their investment in plant and machinery or equipment and annual turnover. These enterprises play a crucial role in the economy by contributing to employment generation, fostering innovation, and promoting regional development. MSMEs are divided into three categories:

  1. Micro Enterprises: Investment up to ₹1 crore and annual turnover up to ₹5 crore.
  2. Small Enterprises: Investment up to ₹10 crore and annual turnover up to ₹50 crore.
  3. Medium Enterprises: Investment up to ₹50 crore and annual turnover up to ₹250 crore.

MSMEs are vital for economic growth, particularly in developing regions, as they help in the equitable distribution of income and wealth. Despite facing challenges like access to finance and technological advancements, MSMEs continue to drive innovation and sustainability through targeted support from governments, financial institutions, and larger firms

 

Role of Small Industries in Indian Economy
 

Small industries play a pivotal role in the Indian economy by contributing significantly to various sectors and fostering overall economic growth. Here are some key aspects of their role:

  • Employment Generation: Small industries are one of the largest job creators in India, providing employment opportunities at a lower capital cost compared to large industries. They are crucial in absorbing the growing labor force, especially in rural and semi-urban areas.

  • Regional Development: By promoting industrialization in rural and underdeveloped areas, small industries help in reducing regional imbalances. They facilitate the equitable distribution of income and wealth, contributing to balanced regional development.

  • Contribution to GDP: Small industries contribute substantially to India’s Gross Domestic Product (GDP). They account for a significant portion of the country's manufacturing output and exports, thereby playing a vital role in the overall economic structure.

  • Fostering Innovation and Entrepreneurship: Small industries are often at the forefront of innovation due to their flexibility and ability to adapt to changes. They encourage entrepreneurship by enabling individuals to establish businesses with relatively low capital investment.

  • Support to Large Industries: Small industries serve as ancillary units to large-scale industries, providing essential components, products, and services. This interdependence strengthens the overall industrial ecosystem and enhances productivity.

  • Export Contribution: A considerable portion of India’s exports comes from small industries, which produce a wide range of goods that are competitive in global markets. This export contribution helps in earning foreign exchange and improving the trade balance.

  • Promotion of Traditional Industries: Small industries help preserve and promote traditional industries such as handicrafts, handlooms, and other cottage industries, which are an integral part of India’s cultural heritage

 

Follow Up Question

1.Consider the following statements with reference to India: (UPSC 2023)
1. According to the 'Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006', the 'medium enterprises' are those with investments in plant and machinery between Rs. 15 crore and Rs. 25 crore.
2. All bank loans to the Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
 
Answer (B)
 
  • The first statement is incorrect. According to the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006, the criteria for classifying enterprises as medium enterprises was revised, and the updated criteria define medium enterprises as those with an investment in plant and machinery or equipment up to ₹50 crore and an annual turnover of up to ₹250 crore. The range mentioned in the statement (₹15 crore to ₹25 crore) does not align with the current or previous definitions under the MSMED Act.

  • The second statement is correct. All bank loans to Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) do qualify under the priority sector lending (PSL) norms set by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI). This means that banks are mandated to allocate a certain percentage of their lending to MSMEs as part of their priority sector obligations

 
 
For Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international importance
 
For Mains Examination: GS II & III - International relations, Environment & Ecology
 
 
Context:
 
The Panama Canal, connecting the Atlantic and Pacific Oceans through the Isthmus of Panama, was opened to ships 110 years ago. Today, it faces an existential threat
 
Read about:
 
What is Historical Significance of Panama Canal?
 
Global trade in Panama and Red sea route
 
Key Takeaways:
 
  • The Panama Canal is more than just a waterway connecting two larger bodies of water; it's a complex, meticulously engineered system that utilizes locks and elevators to transport ships from one end to the other.
  • This intricate system is necessary because the two oceans connected by the canal are at different elevations, with the Pacific being slightly higher than the Atlantic. To navigate this elevation difference, ships traveling from the Atlantic to the Pacific must ascend during their journey.
  • This is accomplished through a system of locks that raise and lower vessels to the appropriate sea levels at each end of the canal.
  • Locks function as water elevators by either filling with water to raise ships or draining to lower them. The canal's lock system includes three sets of locks, totaling 12 locks, supported by artificial lakes and channels.
  • Here's how a lock set operates: a ship enters the first, lowest lock chamber, which is at sea level; the gate at the entrance opens to admit the ship and then closes; water is then transferred from the first chamber to the second, higher chamber; once the water levels are equalized, the gate between the chambers opens, allowing the ship to move into the next chamber. This process continues to achieve the necessary elevation.
  • The reverse process occurs when descending. Ships entering from the Atlantic first gain 26 meters of elevation at Lake Gaitan before descending as they approach the Pacific side
Climate Change threats
 
  • The Panama Canal requires a substantial amount of fresh water to operate its lock system. Most of this water is sourced from Lake Gatun, relying on gravity to move it, which means no pumps are needed.
  • Each day, the canal consumes about 2.5 times the amount of water used by New York City's 8 million residents. Recently, lower water levels in Lake Gatun restricted the number of ships that could transit the canal daily, and those that did often had to reduce their cargo.
  • While ocean water could be used to operate the locks, it would increase the salinity of Lake Gatun, which also provides drinking water for over half of Panama's 4.4 million people.
  • Though improved rainfall this year has eased some issues, experts warn that this is likely a temporary relief. Carlos Urriola, president of SSA International, notes that improved conditions can create a false sense of security.
  • The broader issue is linked to climate change, which has led to more frequent extreme rainfall deficits.
  • While significant rainfall shortages historically occurred about once every 20 years due to major El Niño events, there have been three such deficits in the past 26 years, suggesting a shift in rainfall patterns, according to Steven Paton from the Smithsonian Tropical Research Institute. The conditions in 2023 were unprecedented in the last century.
  • To address this ongoing challenge, Panama Canal authorities have proposed creating a new water source by damming the Rio Indio.
  • Although such proposals have been made before, an old law previously prohibited this. However, Panama’s Supreme Court recently overturned that restriction, paving the way for a $1.6 billion dam project that officials believe will resolve the issue for at least the next 50 years
 
Follow Up Question
 

1.Which of the following statements about the Panama Canal is/are correct?

  1. The Panama Canal uses a system of locks and elevators to manage the elevation difference between the Pacific and Atlantic Oceans.
  2. The water used by the Panama Canal's lock system is entirely sourced from the Pacific Ocean to avoid affecting local freshwater supplies.
  3. Recent lower water levels in Lake Gatun have led to restrictions on the number of ships that can pass through the canal, with some ships needing to reduce their cargo.
  4. The Panama Canal authorities have proposed damming the Rio Indio as a solution to address water supply issues for the canal.

Select the correct answer:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 3, and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
 
Answer (b)
 
  • Statement 1: Correct. The Panama Canal uses a sophisticated system of locks and elevators to manage the elevation difference between the Pacific and Atlantic Oceans.
  • Statement 2: Incorrect. The canal’s lock system primarily uses fresh water from Lake Gatun, not the Pacific Ocean, to avoid increasing salinity and affecting local water supplies.
  • Statement 3: Correct. Lower water levels in Lake Gatun have restricted ship traffic and cargo loads due to reduced water availability.
  • Statement 4: Correct. To address water supply issues, the Panama Canal authorities have proposed building a dam on the Rio Indio
 
Subject and Subject Wise Notes for the Sunday Exam (Free)
 
Subject Topic Description
History Modern Indian History Company rule and Crown rule 1773 - 1947
History  Modern Indian History Fall of Mughals
History Modern Indian History Establishment of British rule in India
History Modern Indian History Economic Policies of the British
 

 

UPSC EXAM NOTES will be conducting both Prelims and Mains exams every Sunday as part of the Integrated Mains and Prelims (IMPM) Program. This program provides a comprehensive approach to UPSC exam preparation, ensuring that candidates are well-prepared for both stages of the exam.

Program Highlights:

  • Daily Study Keys: Each day, we will provide keys that outline what to read, focusing on the most relevant topics and current affairs.
  • Subject Notes: In addition to daily keys, we will supply detailed subject notes to help you build a strong foundation in all necessary areas.
  • Sunday Exams: Every Sunday, a combined exam will be held, encompassing the daily keys' content and subject notes, along with a culmination of current affairs from various sources. These exams will cover both Prelims and Mains syllabi.
  • Format: Exams will be available in both online and offline formats to cater to different preferences and situations.

Duration: The IMPM plan is a one-year program, ensuring continuous and structured preparation over 12 months. With regular testing and consistent study guidance, this program is designed to maximize your chances of success in the UPSC exams

 
 
 

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