INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) KEY (02/09/2024)

INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) 2025 Daily KEY

 
 
 
Exclusive for Subscribers Daily: Intellectual Property Rights (IPR)  and Unified Pension Scheme (UPS) for the UPSC Exam? Why are topics like Chatrapati Shivaji and Least Developed Country (LDC)  important for both preliminary and main exams? Discover more insights in the UPSC Exam Notes for September 02  , 2024

 

🚨 UPSC EXAM NOTES presents the July edition of our comprehensive monthly guide. Access it  to enhance your preparation. We value your input - share your thoughts and recommendations in the comments section or via email at Support@upscexamnotes.com 🚨

Critical Topics and Their Significance for the UPSC CSE Examination on September 02, 2024

Daily Insights and Initiatives for UPSC Exam Notes: Comprehensive explanations and high-quality material provided regularly for students

 

 

Why did the Centre alter its pension plan?

For Prelims Examination: Current events of national and international importance

For Mains Examination: GS II - Governance on Pension Scheme

 

Context:

Union Cabinet signed off on a major shift in the approach to provide old age income security to Central government employees, with a new Unified Pension Scheme (UPS) to be launched on April 1, 2025. About 23 lakh Central government employees are expected to benefit from the scheme, while employees who are part of an ongoing pension scheme called the National Pension System will have the option to switch to the UPS. States can also bring their employees under the UPS but will need to work out funding from their own resources

 

Read about:

What is the Unified Pension System (UPS)?

What are the main features of the Unified Pension Scheme? 

Key takeaways:

The Unified Pension Scheme (UPS) refers to a pension initiative proposed to streamline and unify various pension systems in India, aiming to provide a more consistent and efficient framework for pension benefits across different sectors. It is a part of broader reforms aimed at improving the sustainability and accessibility of pension systems for both government employees and individuals in the private sector.

Here are some key aspects of the Unified Pension Scheme:

  • The goal is to integrate various existing pension schemes under one umbrella to ensure uniformity. This may include merging the Employees' Provident Fund (EPF), National Pension System (NPS), and other pension plans
  • The scheme aims to allow portability of pension accounts, meaning individuals can carry their pension benefits even if they change jobs across different sectors or move from the private to the public sector, and vice versa
  • The Unified Pension Scheme is designed to be more inclusive, extending pension benefits to unorganized sector workers and those who are currently outside any formal pension schemes
  •  A unified regulatory framework would be established to ensure proper management and oversight of the pension funds, enhancing transparency and security for the contributors
  • By unifying various schemes, the administration costs can be reduced, and the efficiency of managing pension funds can be improved, ultimately benefiting the contributors.

 More Information

 

  • Government employees who joined service before January 1, 2004, were covered by the Old Pension Scheme (OPS). However, this scheme was replaced by the National Pension System (NPS) for employees who started working on or after that date.
  • The OPS provided employees with a guaranteed pension of 50% of their last drawn salary, along with increases for dearness allowance. It also included a family pension amounting to 60% of the last drawn pension and a minimum pension of ₹9,000 plus dearness allowance.
  • Upon retirement, employees could opt to receive 40% of their pension as a lump sum. Additionally, pensioners or family pensioners who reached 80 years of age received a 20% increase in their monthly payouts, with further increases every five years.
  • Pensions were adjusted in line with salary revisions recommended by the Pay Commission, with the last such revision occurring in 2016.
  • A key distinction between the OPS and both the NPS and the Unified Pension Scheme (UPS) is that OPS payments came directly from the government's funds each month, meaning these liabilities were "unfunded."
  • Unlike private sector employees whose retirement savings are managed by the Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation, neither employees nor employers made contributions under the OPS.
  • The NPS, introduced by the Atal Bihari Vajpayee government following discussions on the unsustainable costs of civil servants’ pensions, moved away from the OPS's 'defined benefits' model to a 'defined contribution' system.
  • Under the NPS, 10% of employees' salaries, matched by the employer’s contribution (whether by the Central or State government), were invested in market-linked securities, including equities, managed by professional fund managers.
  • At retirement, employees were required to use 40% of their accumulated NPS funds to purchase an annuity that provides a monthly income. Although the government increased its contribution to the NPS to 14% in 2019, the NPS did not guarantee pension amounts, unlike the OPS.
  • The Unified Pension Scheme (UPS) seeks to merge the defined benefits of the OPS with the defined contributions approach of the NPS. Employees will contribute 10% of their salary, while the government will contribute a higher rate of 18.5%, with the possibility of adjusting this rate over time.
  • The government will cover any shortfall between the returns generated by these contributions and its pension commitments. It is unclear if the UPS will incorporate future Pay Commission recommendations or provide higher pensions for those over 80 years of age, as was the case under the OPS

 

Follow Up Question

 

1.Which of the following statements about the Unified Pension Scheme (UPS) is/are correct?

  1. The Unified Pension Scheme combines elements of both the Old Pension Scheme (OPS) and the National Pension System (NPS).
  2. Under the Unified Pension Scheme, both employees and employers contribute equally at a rate of 10% of the employee’s salary.
  3. The government guarantees to cover any shortfall between the returns on contributions and the pension commitments under the Unified Pension Scheme.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 2 and 3 only

Answer (C)
 
  • Statement 1 is correct. The Unified Pension Scheme (UPS) is designed to combine the defined benefit features of the Old Pension Scheme (OPS) with the defined contribution mechanism of the National Pension System (NPS).

  • Statement 2 is incorrect. Under the Unified Pension Scheme, the employee contributes 10% of their salary, but the government contributes a higher rate of 18.5%, not an equal amount.

  • Statement 3 is correct. The government has committed to covering any gap between the returns on contributions and the pension promises, ensuring that the promised pension benefits are met

 
 

For Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international importance
 
For Mains Examination: GS II - Consumer Protection Guidelines
 
Context:
Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) imposes penalty of ₹ 5 Lakh on Shankar IAS Academy for advertising misleading claims regarding result of #UPSC Civil Service Exam 2022
 
Read about:
 
What is Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA)?
 
World Consumer Rights Day
 
 
Key takeaways:
 

The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) has taken action against Shankar IAS Academy for issuing misleading advertisements related to the UPSC Civil Service Exam 2022. The CCPA, led by Chief Commissioner Smt. Nidhi Khare and Commissioner Shri Anupam Mishra, imposed a penalty of ₹5 lakh on the academy for these deceptive advertisements.

This decision aims to protect and promote consumer rights, ensuring that no false or misleading advertisements are made about goods or services, as per the Consumer Protection Act, 2019. Under Section 18 of this Act, the CCPA is empowered to prevent misleading advertisements that violate the Act's provisions.

Shankar IAS Academy made several claims in its advertisements for the UPSC Civil Service exam 2022, including:

  • “336 selections out of 933 at All India Level”
  • “40 candidates in Top 100”
  • “42 candidates have cleared from Tamil Nadu, of which 37 studied at Shankar IAS Academy”
  • “Best IAS Academy in India”

The CCPA found that the academy did not disclose crucial information about the courses taken by these successful candidates, leading consumers to believe that all successful candidates had enrolled in the paid courses advertised by the academy. This practice misled consumers into purchasing these paid courses.

In its response, Shankar IAS Academy provided details for only 333 successful candidates, despite claiming 336 selections in UPSC CSE 2022. Of these claimed students, 221 participated in a Free Interview Guidance Programme, 71 took the Mains Test Series, 35 opted for the Prelims Test Series, 12 were enrolled in the General Studies Prelims cum Mains, and 4 took the Prelims Test Series along with another Mains course. This information was not disclosed in their advertisement, thereby misleading consumers, especially UPSC aspirants, about the academy's role in these candidates' success.

Additionally, the CCPA discovered that in 18 instances, candidates purchased Preliminary courses from Shankar IAS Academy with a receipt date of October 9, 2022, while the UPSC CSE 2022 Preliminary exam was already conducted on June 5, 2022, with results declared on June 22, 2022. This indicated that these candidates bought the course for the next UPSC CSE Preliminary exam in 2023. Despite this, Shankar IAS Academy included these candidates in their total selections for UPSC CSE 2022, further misleading consumers

 
Follow Up Question
 
1.Which of the following statements about the 'Consumer Protection Act 2019' is not true? (UGC NET 2020)
A.It has widened the definition of consumer
B.It provides for E-filing of complaints
C.It establishes Central Consumer Protection Authority
D.It ignores mediation as an alternate disputes resolution mechanism
 
Answer (D)
 
The Consumer Protection Act, 2019, actually includes provisions for mediation as an alternate dispute resolution mechanism. The Act provides for the establishment of a Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA), expands the definition of a consumer, and allows for e-filing of complaints. Mediation is recognized as a method to resolve disputes under this Act
 
 
 
Chatrapathi Shivaji
 
For Preliminary Examination: Important Personalities of Indian Modern History
 
For Mains Examination: GS I - Modern Indian History
 
Context:
 
The 35-ft Chhatrapati Shivaji statue at Rajkot Fort in Maharashtra’s Sindhudurg district collapsed on August 26. Prime Minister Narendra Modi Friday apologised for the collapse of the statue saying the Maratha ruler was “not just a king for me and my colleagues, but a figure highly revered and worshipped by all”.
 
Read about:
 
Who is Chatrapati Shivaji?
 
Significance of Chatrapati Shicaji in Navy
 
Key takeaways:
 
  • Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj (1630-1680) established an independent Maratha kingdom from various Deccan states in the 17th century. He was the son of a general who had served different Deccan Sultans throughout his life.

  • Shivaji aimed to transform his father's domain around modern-day Pune into a separate Maratha state. During this period, several Sultanates, such as Bijapur, Golkonda, and Ahmadnagar, as well as the Mughals, were vying for control of the Deccan region.

  • As Mughal power increased, these Sultanates became tributaries to the Mughal Empire, with their rulers and clans receiving positions within the Mughal court. Despite this, they continued to be embroiled in internal conflicts.

  • Shivaji's struggle against the Adil Shahi Sultanate of Bijapur began when he was just 16 years old. He dedicated the rest of his life to battling various opponents, ultimately laying the foundation for the Maratha Empire, which extended across much of the Indian subcontinent and continued into the 19th century.

  • Shivaji's first direct confrontation with the Mughals occurred during Aurangzeb’s Deccan campaigns of the 1650s. As Aurangzeb moved north to pursue the Mughal throne, Shivaji was able to expand his territory further.

  • In 1664, Shivaji attacked the port of Surat (now in Gujarat), plundering one of the wealthiest and busiest commercial centers of Mughal India while the local governor sought refuge in a nearby fort.

  • Aurangzeb, observing Shivaji’s growing influence and legendary status, dispatched a 100,000-strong, well-equipped army under Raja Jai Singh I in 1665 to subdue him. Despite a fierce resistance, Shivaji was eventually besieged in the Purandar hill fort.

  • In 1666, Shivaji was taken to Aurangzeb’s court in Agra. Although he presented gifts to Aurangzeb, he was displeased with his treatment and expressed his dissatisfaction publicly.

  • Aurangzeb placed Shivaji under house arrest in Agra. Realizing the need to escape to protect himself and his territories, Shivaji began devising a plan to return home and continue his struggle against the Mughals.

  • Shivaji’s escape became the stuff of legend. According to popular accounts, he orchestrated an elaborate plan by distributing alms to Brahmins in large, covered baskets from his residence in Agra.

  • Over time, the Mughal guards grew lax about inspecting the contents of these baskets. Shivaji concealed himself in one basket and his young son, Sambhaji, in another. In this manner, Shivaji and his son managed to leave Agra undetected by the Mughal authorities.

  • Aurangzeb chose not to engage in immediate conflict with Shivaji again. Instead, he offered Shivaji the title of Raja, acknowledging his authority over the Maratha lands, provided Shivaji recognized Mughal supremacy and maintained a truce.

  • By 1669, Shivaji had reorganized and built an effective army. Employing his traditional guerrilla tactics, he made rapid strikes against static Mughal and Bijapuri strongholds, causing significant disruptions.

  • During this period, Aurangzeb was preoccupied with Pathan revolts in the north-western part of his empire. Shivaji skillfully regained his lost positions along the Konkan coast and, in 1674, crowned himself Chhatrapati, formally establishing an independent Maratha kingdom.

  • At the time of his death, Shivaji controlled around 300 forts across an area extending from Surat to near Goa along the Konkan coast, strategically protected by the Western Ghats

 
Follow Up Question
 
1.Which of the following forts was the first fort captured by Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj, marking the beginning of his kingdom?
A) Raigad Fort
B) Torna Fort
C) Shivneri Fort
D) Pratapgad Fort
Answer (B)
 
Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj captured Torna Fort in 1646 at the age of 16. This marked the beginning of the expansion of his kingdom, which laid the foundation for the establishment of the Maratha Empire. Torna Fort is also known as Prachandgad, and its capture was a significant event in Shivaji's early military career. Raigad Fort later became his capital, and Shivneri Fort was his birthplace, while Pratapgad Fort is famous for the Battle of Pratapgad against Afzal Khan
 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international importance
 
For Mains Examination: GS II, III : Government policies and interventions, Intellectual Property Rights (IPRs)
 
Context:
The Tamil Nadu government, last week, announced that the collected works of former Chief Minister M Karunanidhi would be “nationalised” – making them freely available for the public to publish, translate, and adapt.
 
Read about:
 
What are Intellectual Property Rights (IPR)?
 
What is a Copyright?
 
Key takeaways:
 

Copyright is a form of intellectual property law that grants the creator of original works exclusive rights to its use and distribution, usually for a limited time. This legal concept applies to a wide range of creative, intellectual, or artistic forms, such as:

  • Literary works (books, poems, articles)
  • Musical compositions (songs, lyrics)
  • Visual art (paintings, drawings, photographs)
  • Films and videos
  • Software programs
  • Dramatic works (plays, screenplays)
  • Architectural designs
 
Copyright protection is granted automatically when an original work is created and fixed in a tangible medium (e.g., written down, recorded). Registration is not required, although registering a work with a copyright office can provide additional legal benefits.

Exclusive Rights: Copyright holders have several exclusive rights, including the right to:

  • Reproduce the work
  • Distribute copies of the work
  • Perform or display the work publicly
  • Create derivative works based on the original (e.g., adaptations, sequels)
  • License the work to others
 
Follow Up Question
 
In a globalized world, Intellectual Property Rights assume significance and are a source of litigation. Broadly distinguish between the terms—Copyrights, Patents and Trade Secrets. (UPSC CSE 2014)
 
1.With reference to the 'National Intellectual Property Rights Policy', consider the following statements: (UPSC 2017) 
1. It reiterates India's commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement.
2. Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion of the nodal agency for regulating intellectual property rights in India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. 1 only         
B.  2 only         
C. Both 1 and 2           
D. Neither 1 nor 2
 
Answer (C)
 
  • Statement 1: "It reiterates India's commitment to the Doha Development Agenda and the TRIPS Agreement."

    • This statement is correct. The National Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) Policy of India emphasizes India's commitment to the international agreements related to intellectual property rights, such as the TRIPS (Trade-Related Aspects of Intellectual Property Rights) Agreement under the World Trade Organization (WTO) and the Doha Development Agenda. The policy aims to create a framework that balances the interests of rights holders with those of the public.
  • Statement 2: "Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP) is the nodal agency for regulating intellectual property rights in India."

    • This statement is also correct. The Department of Industrial Policy and Promotion (DIPP), which is now known as the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry, is the nodal agency responsible for regulating and promoting intellectual property rights in India. It oversees various IP-related matters, including patents, trademarks, and designs
 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international importance
 
For Mains Examination: GS II & III - International relations, Indian Economy
 
Context:
Even as production units in Bangladesh resume operations, with workers putting in extra hours to clear backlogged orders, Western garment and footwear firms have temporarily paused placing new orders in the violence-hit neighbouring country
 
Read about:
 
What is a Least Developed Country (LDC) ?
 
What is the impact of the Bangladesh crisis on the Indian textile sector?
 
Key takeaways:
 
  • As production units in Bangladesh resume operations, with workers working extra hours to clear backlogged orders, Western garment and footwear companies have temporarily stopped placing new orders in the violence-stricken neighboring country
  • The reduction in orders from Bangladesh has impacted the Indian textile industry, which provides raw materials and other inputs to Bangladesh. While there are new inquiries for garments from India, the export of Indian cotton to Bangladesh has started to decrease, industry officials noted.
  • “Western companies are not placing new orders. The workers and the management know that production is critical, so they are working overtime to meet existing orders. Some items are being sourced from India to complete these orders, and even more technicians are coming from India,” 
  • Ahmed mentioned that much of the production is happening in Dhaka and Chittagong, areas less affected by the protests. While there were disruptions earlier in August, normalcy is returning, and Ahmed believes Western orders will eventually resume due to the favorable duty conditions that Bangladesh enjoys as a least developed country (LDC).
  • “Western companies are considering India as an alternative, but a lot depends on the ability to meet demand, as there are both qualitative and quantitative gaps between what India and Bangladesh offer,” noted Chandrima Chatterjee, Secretary General of the Confederation of Indian Textile Industry (CITI).
  • Chatterjee stated that while there are inquiries for garments, the immediate impact on the Indian textile industry has been negative because our exports of input materials to Bangladesh have slowed. However, initiatives like the PLI scheme and PM Mitra scheme are positive steps towards meeting domestic demand, she added.
  • An executive from the garment sector, who chose to remain anonymous, said that Western companies were already considering India as an option even before the current crisis in Bangladesh. The European market is increasingly concerned about human rights issues in Bangladesh and is, therefore, looking more towards India.
  • “Bangladesh's saturation began a while ago, but the orders did not shift to India. Most are moving to Cambodia, Vietnam, and Indonesia. India has potential, but our product range is not evolving, and we are not reaping the benefits,” 
  • The Bangladeshi textile and garment industry, which accounts for over 80% of the country’s total export earnings and contributes about 11% to its GDP, employs over four million workers and generates around $45 billion.
  • This industry was already facing challenges due to weakened electricity infrastructure, increased input costs following the onset of the Russia-Ukraine war, and adverse weather events, according to S&P Global
 
Follow Up Question
 
1.Which of the following statements about the 'Nairobi Package' adopted in the Tenth Ministerial Conference of WTO is/are correct? (UPSC CAPF 2015)
1. No safeguard mechanism for developing country members.
2. Preferential rules of origin for least developed countries.
3. Public stockholding for food security purposes.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 
A. 1 only
B.1 and 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
 
Answer (C)
 
  • Statement 1: No safeguard mechanism for developing country members.

    • This statement is incorrect. The Nairobi Package, adopted during the Tenth WTO Ministerial Conference, included provisions for a special safeguard mechanism (SSM) for developing countries, allowing them to temporarily increase tariffs in response to import surges or price depressions.
  • Statement 2: Preferential rules of origin for least developed countries.

    • This statement is correct. The Nairobi Package introduced more favorable and simplified rules of origin requirements to help least developed countries (LDCs) benefit from preferential trade arrangements.
  • Statement 3: Public stockholding for food security purposes.

    • This statement is correct. The Nairobi Package addressed the issue of public stockholding for food security purposes, affirming the commitment to find a permanent solution and ensuring that developing countries can continue to maintain their food security programs without the risk of violating WTO rules
 
 
Subject and Subject Wise Notes for the Sunday Exam (Free)
 
Subject Topic Description
History Modern Indian History National Movements between 1919 to 1939
History  Modern Indian History Governor generals of India
History Modern Indian History Doctrine of Lapse
History Modern Indian History Religious reform Movements
 

 

UPSC EXAM NOTES will be conducting both Prelims and Mains exams every Sunday as part of the Integrated Mains and Prelims (IMPM) Program. This program provides a comprehensive approach to UPSC exam preparation, ensuring that candidates are well-prepared for both stages of the exam.

Program Highlights:

  • Daily Study Keys: Each day, we will provide keys that outline what to read, focusing on the most relevant topics and current affairs.
  • Subject Notes: In addition to daily keys, we will supply detailed subject notes to help you build a strong foundation in all necessary areas.
  • Sunday Exams: Every Sunday, a combined exam will be held, encompassing the daily keys' content and subject notes, along with a culmination of current affairs from various sources. These exams will cover both Prelims and Mains syllabi.
  • Format: Exams will be available in both online and offline formats to cater to different preferences and situations.

Duration: The IMPM plan is a one-year program, ensuring continuous and structured preparation over 12 months. With regular testing and consistent study guidance, this program is designed to maximize your chances of success in the UPSC exams

 
 
 
 
 

Share to Social