INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) KEY (08/04/2025)

INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) 2025 Daily KEY

 
 
 
 
Exclusive for Subscribers Daily:

Raisina Dialogue and Waqf (Amendment) Bill and its significance for the UPSC Exam? Why are topics like Total internal refraction, Buddhist Circuit important for both preliminary and main exams? Discover more insights in the UPSC Exam Notes for April 08, 2025

 

🚨 UPSC EXAM NOTES presents the March edition of our comprehensive monthly guide. Access it  to enhance your preparation. We value your input - share your thoughts and recommendations in the comments section or via email at Support@upscexamnotes.com 🚨

Critical Topics and Their Significance for the UPSC CSE Examination on April 08, 2025

Daily Insights and Initiatives for UPSC Exam Notes: Comprehensive explanations and high-quality material provided regularly for students

 

The magic of a mirror: how is it able to show your reflection?

For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international Significance

For Mains Examination: GS III - Science & Technology

Context:

Dressing up is probably one of the most annoying things. You stand in front of a mirror and try to find the right combination of clothes of various colours hoping you look more tolerable to people. This is probably one trait that distinguishes us from other animals: we spend a few good minutes every morning staring at a mirror.

 

Read about:

Total internal refraction

Electrons

 

Key takeaways:

 

A mirror is an object with a smooth, polished surface that reflects light, forming an image of whatever is in front of it. Most modern mirrors consist of a thin layer of reflective material, such as silver or aluminum, applied to the back of a piece of glass.

Here's a breakdown of how mirrors work:

  • Reflection of Light: When light strikes a mirror's surface, it doesn't pass through. Instead, it bounces off, or reflects.
  • Smooth Surface: The key to a good mirror is its smooth surface. Rough surfaces scatter light in many directions (diffuse reflection), which doesn't create a clear image. Mirrors have a very smooth surface at a microscopic level, allowing for specular reflection, where light rays bounce off in a predictable way.
  • Angle of Incidence Equals Angle of Reflection: The law of reflection states that the angle at which a light ray hits the mirror (the angle of incidence) is equal to the angle at which it bounces off (the angle of reflection).
  • Image Formation: When you stand in front of a mirror, light rays from your body travel to the mirror and reflect back to your eyes. Your brain interprets these reflected light rays as coming from a point behind the mirror, creating the illusion of an image.
  • Virtual Image: The image formed by a typical flat mirror (called a plane mirror) is a virtual image. This means the light rays don't actually meet behind the mirror; your brain just perceives them as originating from there. Virtual images are upright and appear to be the same distance behind the mirror as the object is in front.
  • Lateral Inversion (Left-Right Reversal): Plane mirrors also produce an image that is reversed from left to right. If you raise your right hand, your reflection appears to raise its left hand. This is because the mirror reverses the front-to-back orientation
 

Types of Mirrors:

While plane mirrors are the most common, there are other types of mirrors with curved surfaces that create different types of images:

  • Concave Mirrors: These curve inward like the inside of a spoon. They can magnify objects when close up and can focus light to create real, inverted images at a distance. They are used in applications like shaving mirrors, telescopes, and headlights.  
  • Convex Mirrors:
     
    These curve outward like the back of a spoon. They always produce virtual, upright, and smaller images, providing a wider field of view. They are commonly used as rearview mirrors in vehicles and security mirrors
 
How do light and electrons interact?
 
  • Light is an electromagnetic wave. A wave is any disturbance that moves periodically in time and can go from one point to another. For instance, when you drop a stone in a pond, you generate waves of water. When you speak, you generate waves of air, or sound waves.
  • When light falls on us — that’s an electromagnetic wave, a periodic wave of electric and magnetic fields. Electric fields create forces that make electrons move, such as in your watch.
  • Magnetic forces are the ones that keep your refrigerator magnets stuck on the door. But these forces don’t change with time. When they start changing periodically in time they generate light, an electromagnetic wave.
  • Electrons behave very funnily when light falls on them. Just like we move periodically when someone pushes us on a swing, when light falls on electrons, these electrons start moving periodically in time, as if they are dancing.
  • But the way they dance in metal and insulators are different. Since in a metal, all electrons are in a soup, they dance in a group like a flash mob. But in an insulator, every electron just dances individually on its own, inside its atomic home.
  • The type of electron dance decides whether light can go through a material. When light falls on a metal, all these electrons team up and start dancing together. This obstructs the light so much that it can’t go through the metal and just bounces back.
  • On the other hand, in an insulator, since every shy electron just dances a bit in its atomic home, most of the light goes through.
  • This is why insulators such as glass let some light go through while metals usually don’t.
  • This is also the reason why you can see your face very clearly on a steel plate or spoon. The light from your face is reflected fully by the plate and enters your eye.
  • But on a day when you just look at a window, most of the light from your face just goes through the glass to the other side, making it hard to see yourself.
  • Moreover there is light from the outside that enters the glass into your eye, making you see the outside world. In the night, however, there is little ambient light, so just the light from your well-lit room reflects a bit from the glass and you can see yourself
 
Follow Up Question
 

1.Which of the following conditions are necessary for Total Internal Reflection to occur?

  1. Light must travel from a denser medium to a rarer medium.

  2. The angle of incidence must be greater than the critical angle.

  3. Light must travel from a rarer medium to a denser medium.

  4. The refractive index of the second medium must be higher than the first.

Select the correct option:

A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1 and 3 only
C) 2 and 4 only
D) 3 and 4 only

 

Answer (A)
 

Total Internal Reflection (TIR) occurs when:

  • Condition 1: Light moves from a denser medium (higher refractive index) to a rarer medium (lower refractive index).

  • Condition 2: The angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle for that pair of media.

Option 3 and 4 are incorrect because:

  • TIR does not occur when light travels from a rarer to a denser medium.

  • The refractive index of the second medium must be lower, not higher, for TIR

 

Buddhist Sites

For Preliminary Examination: Buddhism, Jainism

For Mains Examination: GS I - Art & Culture

Context:

In the past two months, large-scale demonstrations have erupted across India, demanding that the control over the Mahabodhi temple in Bodh Gaya, Bihar, be handed over to Buddhists. These protests are the latest chapter in a decades-old dispute over who controls one of the holiest sites in Buddhism. Buddhists want the repeal of the Bodh Gaya Temple Act, 1949 (BGTA), under which the temple is currently governed.

 

Read about:

Bodh Gaya Temple Act, 1949

Buddhist Circuit

 

Key takeaways:

Lumbini (Nepal)

  • Lumbini, situated near Gorakhpur across the border in Nepal’s Rupandehi district, is recognized as the birthplace of Lord Buddha in 623 BC. This sacred site lies in the Terai plains of southern Nepal.

  • Emperor Ashoka of ancient India erected a commemorative pillar at Lumbini. The area, rich in archaeological relics related to the Buddha’s birth, is now being developed into a prominent Buddhist pilgrimage destination.

  • Although Lumbini had faded from collective memory for centuries, it was rediscovered in 1896 through archaeological excavations. UNESCO designated it as a World Heritage Site in 1997.

Mahabodhi Temple (Bodh Gaya, Bihar)

  • Located in Bodh Gaya, Bihar, the Mahabodhi Temple is one of the holiest places in Buddhism. It commemorates the spot where Prince Siddhartha achieved enlightenment and became the Buddha around 589 BCE.

  • Emperor Ashoka is credited with constructing a modest shrine at this location in the 3rd century BCE. Today, the Vajrasana or "Diamond Throne" under the Bodhi tree is a surviving feature from that era. Later, the Shunga dynasty added to the structure between the 2nd and 1st centuries BCE.

  • The Chinese pilgrim Faxian, who visited in the 5th century CE, noted three monasteries in the vicinity. The present temple structure, with its pyramid-like shape, was likely built during the Gupta period in the 6th century CE.

  • This UNESCO World Heritage Site includes a towering temple with intricate carvings and a descendant of the original Bodhi tree. It draws global pilgrims who come to reflect and honor the Buddha.

Sarnath (near Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh)

  • Sarnath is where the Buddha delivered his first sermon, known as the Dhammachakra Pravartan, following his enlightenment.

  • The site features the Dhamek Stupa, built by Ashoka, as well as numerous monasteries and temples. The Sarnath Archaeological Museum preserves a range of significant artefacts from the Buddhist period.

Kushinagar (Uttar Pradesh)

  • Kushinagar marks the location where the Buddha attained Mahaparinirvana (final liberation) around 483 BC. The Mahaparinirvana Temple, housing a reclining statue of the Buddha, and the Ramabhar Stupa, believed to be his cremation site, are major landmarks.

  • This town aligns with ancient Kushinara, once the capital of the Malla republic—one of the 16 Mahajanapadas from the 6th to 4th centuries BC. Over time, it came under the rule of various dynasties including the Mauryas, Shungas, Kushanas, Guptas, Harshavardhana, and Palas.

  • In 1876, Alexander Cunningham and ACL Carlleyle conducted the first archaeological excavations here, uncovering the reclining Buddha statue and the main stupa. Kushinagar is notable as one of the rare sites where the Buddha is depicted in a reclining posture.

Buddhist Circuit

  • In 2016, the Ministry of Tourism launched the Buddhist Circuit as India’s first transnational tourism route, connecting sacred Buddhist sites across India, Nepal, and Sri Lanka. This initiative allows visitors to follow the life and teachings of the Buddha.

  • Key destinations on the circuit trace the Buddha’s journey from birth to Mahaparinirvana. These include Bodh Gaya, Vaishali, Rajgir, and Kushinagar in Bihar; Sarnath and Shravasti in Uttar Pradesh; and Kapilavastu and Lumbini in Nepal.

  • Prince Siddhartha Gautama was born around 563 BC in Lumbini and spent his early years in Kapilavastu. He attained enlightenment beneath the Bodhi Tree in Bodh Gaya and delivered his first sermon in Sarnath. His teachings continued in places like Rajgir—where a forest monastery was built for him by King Bimbisara—and Shravasti, where he spent a significant part of his monastic life. His final discourse was given in Vaishali

 

 Follow Up Question

 

1.With reference to the history of philosophical thought in India, consider the following statements regarding Sankhya school: (UPSC 2013)
1. Sankhya does not accept the theory of rebirth or transmigration of the soul.
2. Sankhya holds that it is self-knowledge that leads to liberation and not any exterior influence or agent.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
 A. 1 only   
B. 2 only       
C. Both 1 and 2     
D. Neither 1 nor 2
 
Answer (B)
 
"Sankhya does not accept the theory of rebirth or transmigration of the soul."
Incorrect.
The Sankhya school does accept the theory of rebirth or transmigration. It believes in the existence of Purusha (soul) and Prakriti (matter), and that bondage and liberation involve the cycle of birth and rebirth due to ignorance
"Sankhya holds that it is self-knowledge that leads to liberation and not any exterior influence or agent."
Correct.
Sankhya philosophy teaches that liberation (moksha) is attained through the discrimination between Purusha and Prakriti — that is, through self-knowledge. No external deity or agent is necessary for liberation.

 

 

Reducing GDP discrepancies

For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international Significance

For Mains Examination: GS III - Economy

Context:

India´s gross domestic product (GDP) estimates have long been the subject of controversy.

For this reason, it is encouraging to seea recent news report that the governmentt is planning to improve GDP measurement by using data from the goods and services tax (GST).

 

Read about:

goods and services tax (GST)

gross domestic product (GDP)

 

Key takeaways:

 

  • India’s GDP estimation methods have often been surrounded by debate. Hence, it’s encouraging to note a recent news report indicating that the government is considering enhancing GDP measurement by incorporating data from the Goods and Services Tax (GST) system.
  • Should this initiative be adopted, it would mark a significant advancement and reflect positively on the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (MoSPI).
  • To understand why, consider the basics of GDP measurement: statistical agencies must choose whether to estimate GDP from the production side or the expenditure side. In theory, both approaches should yield the same outcome since every good produced is either consumed or stored (with inventory also treated as expenditure).
  • However, in a complex and vast economy like India’s, tracking production and expenditure accurately is a challenge, leading to discrepancies between the two approaches.
  • At that point, a statistical body has to decide how to handle the gap. While some countries average the two estimates, MoSPI has opted to rely solely on production-side data for its official GDP figures, arguing that this method is more dependable. Nevertheless, MoSPI also publishes estimates based on the expenditure side.
  • A comparison of these two sets of figures, especially over the years since the current methodology was adopted, reveals significant inconsistencies that highlight underlying issues in GDP computation.
  • Two trends stand out in the data. First, the divergence between production- and expenditure-based growth figures can be substantial. In FY 2016–17 and FY 2017–18, the discrepancy was responsible for about 20% of the reported GDP growth. In FY 2020 and FY 2024, this figure rose to around 50%, implying that half of the recorded GDP growth during those years came from the discrepancy alone—clearly a red flag.
  • Second, these discrepancies are predominantly positive, meaning production-based growth figures are often higher than those calculated from the expenditure side. In fact, eight of the last ten years (excluding the anomalous COVID-19 period) have shown this pattern, indicating persistent issues in matching expenditure data to production-side growth.
  • One might assume the problem lies in recording expenditure accurately. However, this appears unlikely, as the gap is mainly present in real (inflation-adjusted) terms, while nominal discrepancies are smaller and more balanced between positive and negative values. This suggests that the problem lies in converting nominal GDP to real GDP.
  • The core issue appears to be the deflator MoSPI uses for the production side—it relies heavily on volatile global commodity prices. When international oil prices drop, as they often did in the past decade (except in 2022, following the Russia-Ukraine conflict), the deflator is underestimated. This leads to an overstatement of real GDP, as nominal figures are deflated too little.
  • In essence, the overestimation of real production-side growth has driven the persistent, one-sided discrepancies between the two GDP metrics.
  • That said, improvements are also needed on the expenditure side. Even nominal figures show meaningful gaps, sometimes equivalent to 1% of GDP growth. One of the biggest hurdles is accurately capturing consumption, which is spread across countless retail outlets and increasingly occurs online. While the deflators used for the expenditure side are more robust, they too need refinement.
  • Improving this area is crucial because consumption constitutes a major share of aggregate demand—56% of GDP, according to recent estimates.
  • This is where GST data could prove invaluable. Since GST applies to nearly all significant consumption transactions, it allows for broad and detailed tracking of spending. It also better captures transactions in smaller businesses that may not be fully represented in MoSPI’s current data systems.
  • Furthermore, GST data can be segmented in useful ways—by type of good or service (durables, non-durables, services), or by source (domestic vs. imports). It can even help estimate less visible activities like dining out.
  • Another benefit is that GST data is both timely (with about a one-month lag) and high-frequency (monthly), which can significantly enhance the quality of quarterly GDP estimates.
  • GST data can also improve state-level GDP estimates (GSDP). These are typically more inaccurate than national estimates, as many sectoral GDP figures are calculated at the national level and then allocated to states using crude proxies. A better approach would be to allocate based on state-wise GST collections
 
Follow Up Question
 
1.With reference to Indian economy, consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE, 2015)
1. The rate of growth of Real Gross Domestic Product has steadily increased in the last decade.
2. The Gross Domestic Product at market prices (in rupees) has steadily increased in the last decade.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
 
Answer (b)
 

Statement 1: "The rate of growth of Real Gross Domestic Product has steadily increased in the last decade."
This is not correct.

  • The rate of growth of Real GDP (which is adjusted for inflation) has not steadily increased over the last decade.

  • Growth has fluctuated due to various factors such as global financial crises, domestic policy changes, demonetization (2016), the introduction of GST (2017), the COVID-19 pandemic, and global economic conditions.

  • Hence, the growth rate was not steady, and there were years with a decline in growth as well.

Statement 2: "The Gross Domestic Product at market prices (in rupees) has steadily increased in the last decade."
This is correct.

  • Despite fluctuations in growth rate, the nominal GDP (at market prices, not adjusted for inflation) has shown a steady increase over the years due to rising prices and expansion of economic activity.

  • Nominal GDP typically increases unless there is a major economic contraction, which did not occur consistently throughout the entire decade in question

 
 

 

What are the issues around delimitation?

For Preliminary Examination:   Current events of national and international importance

For Mains Examination: GS II - Polity & Governance

Context:

There has been a renewed debate about delimitation after the issue was raised by the Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu. The delimitation of constituencies for the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies is to be carried out on the basis of the first Census after 2026.

Read about: 

What is a Delimitation Commission?

Census Exercise

 

Key takeaways:

 

  • Delimitation refers to the process of determining the number of seats and defining the boundaries of territorial constituencies in each state for both the Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies.
  • This task is undertaken by the Delimitation Commission, which is established through an act of Parliament. Past delimitation exercises were conducted based on the Census figures of 1951, 1961, and 1971.
  • The total number of Lok Sabha seats was fixed at 543 following the 1971 Census, when the population stood at 54.8 crores. Since then, this figure has remained unchanged to promote population control initiatives.
  • However, a revision is scheduled to take place after the first Census conducted post-2026. With the 2021 Census delayed due to the COVID-19 pandemic, discussions have emerged linking it to the upcoming delimitation process.

Key Issues in Delimitation

Over the past five decades, India's population growth has been uneven across states. Northern states such as Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, and Rajasthan have experienced significantly higher growth rates compared to southern states like Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh. Two possible approaches to delimitation are being considered:

  1. Retaining the current number of 543 seats while redistributing them among states.
  2. Expanding the Lok Sabha to 848 seats, proportionally increasing representation across states.

Union Home Minister Amit Shah recently assured that no state would lose its existing seat share and that any increase would be implemented on a pro-rata basis. However, the criteria for this proportional allocation—whether based on the current seat distribution or projected population—is unclear.

If future seat allocation follows projected population figures, southern states, along with smaller northern states like Punjab, Himachal Pradesh, and Uttarakhand, as well as northeastern states, may receive fewer seats compared to larger northern states. This could potentially disrupt the federal balance, diminishing political influence for regions that have successfully controlled their population. Currently, southern states hold a 24% share of Lok Sabha seats, which could drop by 5% under such a system.

Possible Solutions

  • Democracy is based on the principle of one citizen, one vote, one value. However, this principle has already been adjusted since 1976, when delimitation was first postponed to encourage population control.
  • In contrast, the United States has maintained a fixed number of 435 seats in its House of Representatives since 1913, despite its population nearly quadrupling from 9.4 crores in 1911 to an estimated 34 crores in 2024.
  • The primary role of a Member of Parliament (MP) is to legislate on matters in the Union List and oversee the functioning of the Union Government, while most central schemes are executed by state administrations.
  • Despite India's population rising from 55 crores to 145 crores over the past five decades, the Lok Sabha has functioned effectively with 543 MPs. With the country’s population expected to peak at 165-170 crores in the next three decades before gradually declining, maintaining the current number of Lok Sabha seats could be a viable option. This would preserve existing state-wise representation and uphold the federal structure.
  • To safeguard regional political interests, MPs and political leaders from southern states, smaller northern states, and the northeastern region should advocate for capping Lok Sabha seats at 543. Meanwhile, to ensure adequate local representation, state assemblies could increase the number of MLAs in proportion to projected population growth
 
Follow Up Question
 
1.With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2012)
1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
A. 1 only             
B. 2 only           
C. Both 1 and 2               
D. Neither 1 nor 2
 
Answer (C)
 
  • The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of LawCorrect.

    • The Delimitation Commission is established under an act of Parliament and its orders have the force of law.
    • As per the provisions of the Delimitation Act, the final orders of the Commission cannot be questioned or challenged in any court.
  • When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the ordersCorrect.

    • Once the Delimitation Commission finalizes its orders, they are laid before the Lok Sabha and the respective State Legislative Assemblies. However, these bodies have no power to amend or modify the orders.
    • The orders are considered final and automatically come into effect
 
 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international importance
 
For Mains Examination: GS II - International relations and organisations
 
Context:
 
A month after this year’s explosive Munich Security Conference, where U.S. Vice President J.D. Vance put Europe on notice, Delhi is set to host the annual Raisina Dialogue from March 17-19, where U.S. President Donald Trump’s seismic foreign policy shifts are expected to be the big conversation points again.
 
Read about:
 
What is Raisina dialogue?
 
 
Key takeaways:
 
  • The 10th edition of the annual Raisina Dialogue is set to be inaugurated on Monday by Prime Minister Narendra Modi, with New Zealand Prime Minister Christopher Luxon as the chief guest delivering the keynote address. The event's theme, "Kalachakra" (wheel of time), reflects its focus on global shifts and evolving geopolitical dynamics.
  • A significant U.S. delegation is anticipated to take center stage, given the complexities in American foreign policy under former President Donald Trump. Key issues include the Ukraine conflict, U.S.-Russia negotiations, new tariff policies affecting global trade (including India), strained ties with NATO and European allies, uncertainties surrounding U.S. strategy in the Indo-Pacific, and evolving positions on China and Taiwan.
  • Amid these geopolitical challenges, U.S. Director of National Intelligence Tulsi Gabbard is leading a delegation to Delhi for an intelligence chiefs’ conference, hosted by National Security Adviser Ajit Doval. She will also address the Raisina Dialogue.
  • Other notable U.S. speakers include Ricky Gill, Special Assistant to former President Trump and National Security Council official, as well as James Carafano, a key figure behind the Republican policy blueprint "Project 2025". They are expected to articulate and justify recent U.S. policy decisions.
  • Additionally, a Quad panel discussion featuring senior naval officials from India, Australia, Japan, and the U.S. is scheduled, aligning with India's preparations to host the upcoming Quad Leaders’ Summit. The summit is expected to bring new developments in maritime security cooperation
  • The Raisina Dialogue comes at a time of significant developments in the Russia-Ukraine conflict, including recent tensions between Donald Trump and Ukrainian President Volodymyr Zelenskyy in Washington, followed by rounds of U.S.-Russia and U.S.-Ukraine ceasefire discussions.
  • These geopolitical shifts are expected to be central to the dialogue, both in official sessions and on the sidelines. Notably, 11 out of the 20 Foreign Ministers attending the event are from Europe, including Ukraine’s Foreign Minister, Andrii Sybiha.
  • In 2024, European representation was even more prominent, with Greek Prime Minister Kyriakos Mitsotakis as the chief guest and 15 out of 21 Foreign Ministers advocating for India to reconsider its stance on Ukraine.
  • This year, discussions are likely to focus on diverging viewpoints between European leaders and U.S. representatives, particularly Tulsi Gabbard, who has previously supported closer U.S.-Russia relations. Russian Foreign Minister Sergey Lavrov, a regular speaker at past editions, will be absent this year. His last appearance at the 2023 Raisina Dialogue saw intense exchanges over Russia’s involvement in ceasefire negotiations.
  • Additionally, International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA) Chief Rafael Grossi is set to address key topics, including the Ukraine conflict and the potential revival of nuclear talks with Iran.
  • The speaker lineup at the Raisina Dialogue is often a reflection of India’s diplomatic engagements, highlighting not only who is attending but also those who are absent.
  • This year, the Foreign Ministers of Bhutan (D.N. Dhungyel), Nepal (Arzu Rana Deuba), the Maldives (Abdulla Khaleel), and Mauritius (Dhananjay Ramful) will be participating.
  • Due to strained ties with Pakistan, the Raisina Dialogue does not invite Pakistani representatives. However, it is notable that no officials from Bangladesh or the Yunus government are included in this year’s lineup.
  • Meanwhile, the presence of a speaker from China’s Fudan University signals a possible easing of tensions between India and China, following the meeting between Prime Minister Modi and Chinese President Xi Jinping in October.
  • Another potential diplomatic breakthrough could involve Canada, following a change in leadership. Daniel Rogers, Director of the Canadian Security Intelligence Service, is in Delhi and may attend, alongside former Canadian Prime Minister Stephen Harper and former Australian Prime Minister Tony Abbott, both of whom are regular participants.
  • Despite India’s ongoing diplomatic outreach to West Asia (GCC) and Southeast Asia (ASEAN), representation from these regions remains limited, a trend observed in recent years. The only ASEAN members attending are the Philippines’ Foreign Secretary Enrique Manalo and Thailand’s Foreign Minister Maris Sangiampongsa. Additionally, Foreign Ministers from Ghana, Cuba, Peru, and Antigua and Barbuda will represent the Global South at the dialogue
 
Follow Up Question
 

1.Consider the following pairs: (2020)

International agreement/set-up : Subject

1. Alma-Ata Declaration : Healthcare of the people

2. Hague Convention : Biological and chemical weapons

3. Talanoa Dialogue : Global climate change

4. Under2 Coalition : Child rights

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 4 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 2, 3 and 4 only

 

Answer (c)
 
  • Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people  Correct

    • The Alma-Ata Declaration (1978) was adopted at the International Conference on Primary Health Care, emphasizing health as a fundamental human right and promoting primary healthcare as key to achieving universal health coverage.
  • Hague Convention – Biological and chemical weapons  Incorrect

    • The Hague Conventions (1899 & 1907) deal primarily with the laws of war and war crimes, not specifically biological or chemical weapons.
    • The Biological Weapons Convention (BWC) and Chemical Weapons Convention (CWC) are separate international treaties addressing such weapons.
  • Talanoa Dialogue – Global climate change  Correct

    • The Talanoa Dialogue was introduced at the 2017 UN Climate Change Conference (COP23) as a facilitative dialogue to assess collective progress toward climate goals under the Paris Agreement.
  • Under2 Coalition – Child rights  Incorrect

    • The Under2 Coalition is a climate action initiative that brings together subnational governments (states, regions, provinces) committed to limiting global temperature rise below 2°C in line with the Paris Agreement.
    • It is not related to child rights
 
 
 

 

Slight dip in unemployment rate in urban areas

For Preliminary Examination:  Unemployment, Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS)

For Mains Examination: GS III - Economy

Context:

The unemployment rate in urban areas of the country was 6.4% for the period of October to December in 2024 for persons of age 15 and above, says the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) released by the Statistics and Programme Implementation Ministry here on Tuesday

 

Read about:

Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS)

What is Unemployment?

 

Key takeaways:

 

  • The Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS), published by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation on Tuesday, reported that the unemployment rate in urban areas for individuals aged 15 and above stood at 6.4% from October to December 2024.
  • Breaking it down by gender, the unemployment rate was 5.8% for men and 8.1% for women. Comparatively, the same period in 2023 saw an unemployment rate of 6.5%, while in the previous quarter (July–September 2024), it was also 6.4%. The unemployment rate among women in the corresponding quarter of 2023 was slightly higher at 8.6%.
  • Among states, Himachal Pradesh recorded the highest unemployment rate at 10.4%, while Gujarat had the lowest at 3%. The female unemployment rate was also highest in Himachal Pradesh at 24%, whereas Delhi had the lowest at 1.3%.
  • According to the PLFS, the unemployment rate is measured as the proportion of unemployed individuals in the labour force based on the Current Weekly Status (CWS), which considers employment or unemployment on an average weekly basis.
  • The Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR), which reflects the percentage of the population engaged in the labour force, stood at 39.6% across all age groups, marking a slight increase from 39.2% in the same quarter of the previous year.
  • The LFPR for women saw a marginal rise to 20% from 19.9% a year earlier but declined compared to the last quarter’s 20.3%. Bihar had the lowest LFPR, with an overall rate of 30.7% and 9.9% for women.
  • The survey, conducted among 1,70,487 individuals across 45,074 households, also highlighted an increase in the Worker Population Ratio (WPR) for urban residents aged 15 and above.
  • The WPR rose from 46.6% in the October–December 2023 period to 47.2% during the same period in 2024. For men in urban areas, it increased from 69.8% to 70.9% over the same timeframe.
  • Employment status was categorized into three broad groups: self-employed individuals, regular wage/salaried employees, and casual labourers. Among these, 39.9% were self-employed, 49.4% held regular jobs, and 10.7% were casual workers. Within the self-employed category, there were two sub-groups: own-account workers/employers and unpaid helpers in family enterprises.
  • Sector-wise, 5.5% of workers were engaged in agriculture, 31.8% in secondary industries such as mining, and 62.7% in the tertiary sector, which encompasses services

 

 Types of Unemployment

 

Unemployment can be categorized into several types based on its causes and characteristics. Here are the major types:

1. Cyclical Unemployment

  • Occurs due to fluctuations in the economy, especially during a recession.
  • When demand for goods and services falls, businesses reduce production, leading to job losses.
  • Example: Layoffs in the automobile industry during an economic downturn.

2. Structural Unemployment

  • Results from a mismatch between workers' skills and the skills demanded by employers.
  • Often caused by technological advancements or shifts in industries.
  • Example: A typewriter repair technician losing their job due to the rise of computers.

3. Frictional Unemployment

  • Temporary unemployment when individuals are between jobs or entering the workforce.
  • Occurs due to job search time, career shifts, or relocation.
  • Example: A software engineer resigning from one job to find a better opportunity.

4. Seasonal Unemployment

  • Happens when jobs are available only during certain seasons.
  • Common in agriculture, tourism, and construction industries.
  • Example: Ice cream vendors facing unemployment during winter.

5. Disguised Unemployment

  • A situation where more people are employed than required, leading to inefficiency.
  • Common in agricultural sectors in developing countries.
  • Example: A farm where five workers do a task that only two could complete efficiently.
 
Follow Up Question
 
1.Given below are two statements, one is labeled as Assertion (A) and the other as Reason (R). (UPPSC 2019)
Assertion (A): The labour force participation rate is falling sharply in recent years for females in India.
Reason (R): The decline in labour force participation rate is due to improved family income and an increase in education.
Select the correct answer from the codes given below:
Codes:
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
C. (A) is true, but (R) is false
D. (A) is false, but (R) is true
 
Answer (B)
 
  • The Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) for females in India has been declining in recent years, especially in rural areas. This supports Assertion (A).
  • One of the reasons for this decline is indeed the increase in household incomes, which reduces the necessity for women to work. Additionally, higher enrollment in education has led to a temporary withdrawal of young women from the workforce. This makes Reason (R) true.
  • However, (R) is not the only or the primary reason for the decline in female LFPR. Other crucial factors include:
    • Lack of employment opportunities in sectors where women traditionally work.
    • Structural and cultural barriers preventing women's participation in the workforce.
    • Safety concerns and workplace discrimination, discouraging women from seeking jobs.
    • Unpaid domestic responsibilities, which remain a major burden on women in India
 
 
Subject and Subject Wise Notes for the Sunday Exam (Free)
 
Subject Topic Description
Polity Centre and State relations Centre State and interstate relations
Environment & Ecology Marine Ecosystem Marine Ecosystem
Economy Consumer Rights Consumer Rights
Ancient History Buddhism Buddhism
 

 

UPSC EXAM NOTES will be conducting both Prelims and Mains exams every Sunday as part of the Integrated Mains and Prelims (IMPM) Program. This program provides a comprehensive approach to UPSC exam preparation, ensuring that candidates are well-prepared for both stages of the exam.

Program Highlights:

  • Daily Study Keys: Each day, we will provide keys that outline what to read, focusing on the most relevant topics and current affairs.
  • Subject Notes: In addition to daily keys, we will supply detailed subject notes to help you build a strong foundation in all necessary areas.
  • Sunday Exams: Every Sunday, a combined exam will be held, encompassing the daily keys' content and subject notes, along with a culmination of current affairs from various sources. These exams will cover both Prelims and Mains syllabi.
  • Format: Exams will be available in both online and offline formats to cater to different preferences and situations.

Duration: The IMPM plan is a one-year program, ensuring continuous and structured preparation over 12 months. With regular testing and consistent study guidance, this program is designed to maximize your chances of success in the UPSC exams

 

Share to Social