INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) 2025 Daily KEY
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Right to Vote in India and Cryogenic engine its significance for the UPSC Exam? Why are topics like Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM), Special Intensive Revision, Quantum advantage important for both preliminary and main exams? Discover more insights in the UPSC Exam Notes for November 08, 2025 |
Uncontested polls: Centre says right to vote different from freedom of voting
For Preliminary Examination: Current eents of national and international Significance like Right to Vote in India
For Mains Examination: GS II - Indian Polity
Context:
The Centre has argued in the Supreme Court that the ‘right to vote’ in an election is different from the ‘freedom of voting’, and while one is a mere statutory right, the second is a part of the fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression.
Read about:
What is Right to Vote in India?
Article 19(1)(a)
Key takeaways:
The Right to Vote in India is one of the most essential features of its democratic framework. It symbolizes the sovereignty of the people and serves as the foundation of the representative system of government envisioned by the Constitution. Though often regarded as a fundamental democratic right, in legal terms, the right to vote in India is not a Fundamental Right but a statutory right granted under the provisions of the Representation of the People Act, 1951
Constitutional Basis
- The Constitution of India, under Article 326, provides for elections to the House of the People (Lok Sabha) and the Legislative Assemblies of States on the basis of adult suffrage.
- This means that every Indian citizen who is 18 years or older has the right to vote, regardless of religion, caste, gender, education, or economic status, as long as they are not disqualified under any law made by Parliament.
- The concept of universal adult franchise was a revolutionary step at the time of Independence. Unlike many Western democracies that extended voting rights gradually, India conferred the right to vote on all adult citizens from the very beginning, reflecting the framers’ belief in political equality and inclusive participation.
Statutory Nature of the Right
- While the Constitution sets the principle, the Representation of the People Act (RPA), 1951 gives the right to vote its operational form. It lays down who can be registered as a voter, how electoral rolls are prepared, and under what conditions a person can be disqualified from voting.
- The Supreme Court of India in cases such as Jyoti Basu v. Debi Ghosal (1982) and People’s Union for Civil Liberties (PUCL) v. Union of India (2013) has clarified that the right to vote is not a Fundamental or Constitutional Right, but a statutory right created and regulated by legislation.
- However, once the law grants that right, its exercise becomes a constitutional obligation, ensuring the democratic functioning of the State
Eligibility and Disqualification
Every Indian citizen aged 18 years or above, who is ordinarily resident in a constituency, is entitled to be registered as a voter. However, certain conditions can disqualify a person, such as:
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Unsoundness of mind,
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Non-citizenship,
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Disqualification due to electoral offences or corrupt practices, and
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Disqualification under any law made by Parliament.
- The Union government has informed the Supreme Court that the “right to vote” and the “freedom of voting” are conceptually distinct. According to its argument, while the act of voting itself is merely a statutory right granted by law, the freedom to make one’s choice while voting is protected under the fundamental right to freedom of speech and expression guaranteed by Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution.
- The matter was listed for hearing before a Bench headed by Justice Surya Kant, though the Bench did not convene as scheduled.
- The Centre’s submission came in response to a petition challenging the constitutionality of Section 53(2) of the Representation of the People Act, 1951, and Rule 11 read with Forms 21 and 21B of the Conduct of Elections Rules, 1961.
- The petitioner contended that these provisions—dealing with uncontested elections—violate the fundamental right to free speech by denying voters the opportunity to express dissent through the ballot.
- Under Section 53(2), when the number of contesting candidates is equal to the number of available seats, the Returning Officer (RO) must declare all such candidates duly elected, using Form 21 for general elections or Form 21B for by-elections. The Centre clarified that the “None of the Above” (NOTA) option cannot be treated as a candidate within the meaning of Section 79(b) of the Act. It further argued that elections cannot be left unresolved merely because voters choose NOTA, as doing so would undermine the purpose of the electoral process.
- In a separate affidavit, the Election Commission of India (ECI) supported this stance, stating that recognizing NOTA as a contesting candidate would require legislative amendments to both the 1951 Act and the 1961 Rules.
- The ECI also noted that from 1951 to 2024, there have been only nine uncontested elections in the country’s electoral history, underscoring the rarity of such situations
Discuss this distinction in the context of uncontested elections and the role of the “NOTA” option under the Representation of the People Act, 1951. (250 words)
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Note: This is a refrence approach to the Question and Model Answer Only
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Answer (B)
The Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) system was first used by the Election Commission of India (ECI) in the Noksen Assembly Constituency of Nagaland during the bye-election held in September 2013. VVPAT allows voters to verify that their vote has been recorded correctly by displaying a printed slip showing the symbol and name of the candidate they voted for, for about seven seconds before it drops into a sealed box. It was later used widely across all constituencies in the 2019 Lok Sabha elections to enhance transparency and voter confidence in Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) |
- The Small Satellite Launch Vehicle (SSLV) developed by ISRO is a compact, three-stage rocket powered by solid fuel in all its main stages. It also features a Velocity Trimming Module (VTM) — a liquid propulsion-based system used in the final phase of flight to fine-tune the rocket’s speed and precisely position satellites in orbit.
- The Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV), introduced in 1994, represents the third generation of Indian launch vehicles. Having completed over 50 successful missions, it has earned the title of “ISRO’s workhorse” for its reliability in deploying satellites into Low Earth Orbit (LEO) — typically below 2,000 kilometres altitude.
- For launching heavier payloads into higher orbits, ISRO developed the Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV). These rockets are used primarily to place communication satellites into Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO) — a transitional path leading to Geostationary Earth Orbit (GEO), located roughly 35,786 kilometres above the equator.
- Since placing satellites in such distant orbits demands greater energy, GSLVs employ cryogenic engines, which use liquid hydrogen and liquid oxygen as propellants. These engines provide significantly higher thrust than earlier liquid-fuel engines, making them ideal for long-distance missions.
- As per NASA, to reach a geosynchronous orbit, a spacecraft first enters an elliptical GTO, with its farthest point (apoapsis) near 37,000 km from Earth. Once it reaches that point, the spacecraft fires an apogee motor to circularize its orbit — a process that determines the final geostationary position.
- One of ISRO’s recent communication satellites, CMS-03, weighing 4,410 kg, was placed in a transfer orbit of 29,970 km × 170 km. Historically, ISRO had to rely on foreign launch providers — such as Arianespace or SpaceX — for placing such heavy satellites in orbit.
- However, this situation is changing with the rise of Launch Vehicle Mark-3 (LVM-3), previously known as GSLV Mk-III. This rocket is capable of carrying up to 8,000 kg to Low Earth Orbit and about 4,000 kg to Geosynchronous Orbit.
- It uses a combination of solid, liquid, and cryogenic engines, and a modified version will power India’s Gaganyaan mission, which aims to send humans into space.
- In earlier missions, India’s heaviest satellites — such as GSAT-11 (5,854 kg) and GSAT-24 (4,181 kg) — were launched by Arianespace, while the 4,700-kg GSAT-20 was deployed by SpaceX.
- To launch heavier payloads domestically, ISRO has been optimizing the LVM-3 by slightly lowering the orbit altitude, thereby compensating for mass beyond its 4,000-kg GTO limit.
- To further enhance payload capacity, ISRO is upgrading the cryogenic upper stage, which contributes nearly half of the velocity needed to achieve GTO. The current C25 stage carries 28,000 kg of propellant and produces 20 tonnes of thrust. The upcoming C32 version will carry 32,000 kg of propellant and deliver 22 tonnes of thrust.
- Additionally, ISRO plans to replace the second-stage liquid engine with a semi-cryogenic engine that uses refined kerosene and liquid oxygen.
- This innovation is expected to boost efficiency, lower costs, and increase payload capacity — enabling the rocket to carry up to 10,000 kg to LEO, compared to the present limit of 8,000 kg.
- In the long term, ISRO is working on an ambitious Lunar Module Launch Vehicle (LMLV) — a next-generation heavy-lift system designed to transport up to 80,000 kg into Low Earth Orbit. This vehicle will form the foundation for future human missions to the Moon, marking a major leap in India’s space exploration capabilities
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Note: This is a refrence approach to the Question and Model Answer Only
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Answer (A)
Statement 1: ✅ Correct
Statement 2: ⌠Incorrect
Statement 3: ⌠Incorrect
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Indian iron and steel exporters face the highest CBAM levy
For Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international Significance
For Mains Examination: GS III - Environment and Ecology
Context:
Indian exporters of iron and steel to EU may have to pay about €301 million (approximately ₹3,000 crore) in Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) fees, the highest among all countries exporting similar products to the EU, an analysis by European non-profit think-tank Sandberg has found
Read about:
Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM)
Greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions
Key takeaways
- The Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) is a policy tool introduced by the European Union (EU) to address the issue of “carbon leakage” — a situation where industries shift production to countries with weaker climate regulations to avoid the costs of reducing greenhouse gas emissions.
- Essentially, CBAM ensures that imported goods into the EU face a carbon price equivalent to what EU producers pay under the EU’s Emissions Trading System (ETS).
- Under the EU’s climate policies, industries within the region are required to purchase carbon credits for every tonne of carbon dioxide they emit. This system creates a financial incentive to adopt cleaner technologies and reduce emissions.
- However, if foreign producers exporting to the EU are not subject to similar carbon pricing in their home countries, they gain a cost advantage. The CBAM aims to neutralize this imbalance by imposing a carbon tariff on such imports.
- The mechanism initially covers carbon-intensive sectors such as iron and steel, cement, aluminum, fertilizers, electricity, and hydrogen—areas that are both energy-intensive and highly traded globally. Importers in the EU will need to report the embedded emissions of their products and purchase corresponding CBAM certificates to cover these emissions. The price of these certificates will mirror the price of carbon within the EU’s ETS.
- For developing countries, including India, CBAM raises significant concerns. It could act as a trade barrier by making exports to the EU more expensive if domestic producers cannot demonstrate low carbon footprints. This may also pressure developing economies to adopt stricter climate measures and carbon accounting mechanisms to maintain export competitiveness.
- In essence, the CBAM represents a major step in linking global trade with climate policy. While it supports the EU’s goal of achieving net-zero emissions by 2050, it also introduces new dynamics in international trade, prompting debates on climate justice, fairness, and the responsibilities of developed versus developing nations in combating global warming
Additional Information
- According to a recent analysis by the European think tank Sandberg, Indian exporters of iron and steel to the European Union (EU) may incur approximately €301 million (about ₹3,000 crore) in charges under the Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM)—the highest liability among all nations exporting similar products to the bloc.
- The CBAM functions as a carbon levy imposed on European importers who purchase goods from countries where production generates higher carbon emissions per tonne than comparable goods produced within the EU.
- Sandberg’s newly released online calculator estimates that Russia will face the second-highest CBAM costs at €240 million, followed by Ukraine (€198 million) and China (€194 million).
- The study further reveals that when India’s exports of aluminium and cement are included alongside iron and steel, its total CBAM liability amounts to around €330 million, equivalent to roughly 1.05% of the value of all traded goods.
- However, it also highlights a potential opportunity — Indian industries could increase revenues by about €510 million if they adopt cleaner and more energy-efficient technologies, thereby offsetting nearly €180 million in net costs.
- India has, however, consistently voiced opposition to the CBAM, with several industry associations labelling it a form of “non-tariff barrier” that could adversely affect the competitiveness of Indian exports in European markets
Follow Up Question
Mains
1.“The European Union’s Carbon Border Adjustment Mechanism (CBAM) represents a new intersection between climate policy and international trade.”
Critically examine the implications of CBAM for India’s exports and its alignment with the principles of climate justice and the WTO framework. Suggest measures India can adopt to mitigate its economic and environmental impact.
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Note: This is just a model answer and a Model Structure model
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1.Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as ‘General Data Protection Regulation’ in April, 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May, 2018? (UPSC CSE 2019)
(a) Australia
(b) Canada
(c) The European Union
(d) The United States of America
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Answer (c)
The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) is a comprehensive data protection law adopted by the European Union (EU) in April 2016, and it came into effect on 25th May 2018. It establishes strict rules on how personal data of EU citizens can be collected, processed, stored, and transferred — both within the EU and by entities outside it that handle EU residents’ data. The GDPR gives individuals greater control over their personal information through rights such as:
It also mandates organizations to obtain explicit consent for data processing and to report data breaches promptly. The regulation has become a global benchmark for privacy and data protection laws, influencing similar frameworks in several countries, including India’s Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 |
- Article 324(1) of the Indian Constitution empowers the Election Commission of India (ECI) with the authority to exercise superintendence, direction, and control over the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of elections for Parliament and state legislatures.
- Additionally, under Section 21(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, the Commission may, at any point, order a special revision of electoral rolls for any constituency or part thereof, in a manner it deems appropriate.
- According to the Registration of Electors’ Rules, 1960, the revision of electoral rolls may be carried out either intensively, summarily, or through a combination of both methods, depending on the ECI’s directions.
- An intensive revision involves preparing the rolls afresh, while a summary revision focuses on updating and correcting the existing lists. During the current exercise, individuals who cannot be traced back to the last major revision held between 2002 and 2005 will need to produce documents verifying their eligibility to remain on the electoral list.
- The special revision is being undertaken across several regions, including Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Chhattisgarh, Goa, Gujarat, Kerala, Lakshadweep, Madhya Pradesh, Puducherry, Rajasthan, Tamil Nadu, Uttar Pradesh, and West Bengal.
- The ECI expanded the acceptable document list from 11 to 13, now including Aadhaar and the Bihar SIR roll extract. Persons born after July 1, 1987, must provide eligibility documents for themselves and their parents.
- The second phase of the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) will begin on November 4, involving over 5.33 lakh Booth Level Officers (BLOs) conducting door-to-door verification. The draft rolls will be published on December 9, incorporating all received applications.
- Assam has been temporarily excluded due to ongoing proceedings related to the National Register of Citizens (NRC) under Supreme Court supervision. Chief Election Commissioner Gyanesh Kumar clarified that Assam’s electoral roll revision will be conducted separately due to distinct legal provisions under the Citizenship Act.
- The ECI justified the SIR by noting persistent concerns from political parties about inaccuracies in voter lists. The last such nationwide exercise occurred in 2004, and since then, issues such as migration, duplicate registrations, non-deletion of deceased voters, and wrongful inclusions have compromised the integrity of electoral rolls.
- Meanwhile, the June 24 order initiating the nationwide SIR—beginning with Bihar—has been challenged in the Supreme Court, with petitions questioning the ECI’s authority to verify citizenship and the procedures followed during the revision process
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Note: This is for reference Only - Reference Mains Structure and Reference midel Answer Only
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Answer (D)
The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
⌠Incorrect. The Election Commission of India — not the Ministry of Home Affairs — is responsible for deciding the election schedule and supervising the entire electoral process for Parliament and State Legislatures under Article 324(1) Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
✅ Correct. Under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, the ECI has the power to decide disputes related to splits and mergers of recognized political parties and to determine which faction is entitled to use the party’s name or symbol |
What is Google’s ‘quantum advantage’ leap?
For Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international Significance
For Mains Examination: GS III - Science and technology
Context:
In two papers published in Nature on October 22, researchers from Google, MIT, Stanford, and Caltech reported what they called a verifiable display of quantum advantage using the company’s Willow quantum processor. That is, the teams said they have shown that Willow clearly outperforms existing supercomputers on solving a specific problem
Read about:
What is quantum advantage?
Decoded Quantum Interferometry (DQI)
Key takeaways:
How does a quantum computer work?
- Think of ripples spreading across a pond: when two wave crests meet, they combine to form a larger wave, but when a crest meets a trough, they cancel each other out. This phenomenon, known as interference, is key to quantum computing.
- At the quantum scale, particles exhibit wave-like behavior, and their wave functions—which describe the probabilities of different outcomes—can be controlled to interfere constructively or destructively.
- By managing these interferences, scientists enhance the likelihood of obtaining the correct solution while suppressing incorrect ones. This is the fundamental operating principle of a quantum computer.
- In one study, researchers created a quantum algorithm to handle optimization problems, where the aim is to identify the best outcome among many options. They called this method Decoded Quantum Interferometry (DQI).
- It uses a quantum version of the Fourier transform to manipulate the wave-like behavior of particles acting as quantum bits (qubits). In DQI, waves representing good solutions strengthen one another through constructive interference, while those representing poor solutions cancel out.
- When measured, the quantum system is thus more likely to reveal a high-quality solution. The algorithm efficiently solved the optimal polynomial intersection problem, outperforming classical computers
What is scrambling?
- The second study examined how information disperses—or gets “scrambled”—in complex quantum systems. Imagine adding a drop of blue dye into a clear swimming pool.
- Initially, the dye is localized, but as it spreads, the color becomes faint and uniform throughout the pool. The information about the dye’s exact position is no longer visible, yet it’s not lost—it’s simply distributed across every water molecule.
- Similarly, in a quantum system, information initially contained in a single qubit spreads across all interacting qubits, becoming hidden within their intricate relationships.
- To measure this scrambling, scientists designed an experiment resembling echoes in a warehouse. When someone shouts, the sound waves bounce off every surface, dispersing information.
- A moment later, striking a bell alters part of the echo, imprinting it with a distinct tone. When the experiment is “rewound,” normal echoes cancel out, but those with the bell’s imprint remain as faint, distorted sounds.
- This residual echo, called the Out-of-Time-Order Correlator (OTOC), reveals how widely the original information has spread within the system. By studying these subtle signals, researchers can quantify how quantum information mixes and evolves
How do you demonstrate quantum advantage?
- In another experiment, scientists used highly complex quantum circuits that would have taken a top supercomputer over three years to simulate, but the Willow quantum processor completed them in about two hours.
- This highlights quantum advantage—where a quantum computer outperforms the fastest classical systems.
- However, researchers have not yet proved mathematically that no classical shortcut could solve these problems equally fast. Further work is needed to confirm that such challenges are inherently difficult for non-quantum computers.
- While these studies show impressive progress, their tasks remain laboratory demonstrations rather than practical applications.
- Real-world breakthroughs in fields like physics or chemistry will require advances in error correction, scalability, and the development of thousands of stable qubits—an achievement still several years away
(250 words)
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Note: This is for reference Only - Reference Mains Structure and Reference midel Answer Only
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A. Cloud Services
B. Quantum Computing
C. Visible Light Communication Technologies
D. Wireless Communication Technologies
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Answer (B)
Other options (Incorrect):
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Subject Wise Topics
| Topic | Description |
| 1. Fundamental Rights (Polity) | https://upscexamnotes.com/topic-wise-articles/article.php?subtopic=3 |
| 2. Doctrine of Lapse (Modern Indian History) | https://upscexamnotes.com/topic-wise-articles/article.php?subtopic=386 |
| 3. Monetary Policy (Economy) | https://upscexamnotes.com/topic-wise-articles/article.php?subtopic=182 |
| 4. Environment Pollution (Environmnet and Ecology) | https://upscexamnotes.com/topic-wise-articles/article.php?subtopic=158 |
| 5. Physical features of India | https://upscexamnotes.com/topic-wise-articles/article.php?subtopic=572 |