INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) KEY (09/04/2025)

INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) 2025 Daily KEY

 
 
 
 
Exclusive for Subscribers Daily:

Quantum Computer and Active Mobility and its significance for the UPSC Exam? Why are topics like Online Gaming, Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) important for both preliminary and main exams? Discover more insights in the UPSC Exam Notes for April 09, 2025

 

🚨 UPSC EXAM NOTES presents the March edition of our comprehensive monthly guide. Access it  to enhance your preparation. We value your input - share your thoughts and recommendations in the comments section or via email at Support@upscexamnotes.com 🚨

Critical Topics and Their Significance for the UPSC CSE Examination on April 09, 2025

Daily Insights and Initiatives for UPSC Exam Notes: Comprehensive explanations and high-quality material provided regularly for students

 

Scientists demonstrate clear quantum advantage using simple game

For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international Significance

For Mains Examination: GS III - Science & Technology

Context:

Previous attempts at showing quantum supremacy have used complicated problems. Google used random circuit sampling for its Sycamore processor, andChinese researchers used the Gaussian boson sampling problem for the Jiuzhang computer. Both require specialised equipment to perform, making it difficult to verify the results

 

Read about:

National Quantum Computing Mission

Quantum Computer

 

Key takeaways:

 

  • For years, scientists have been seeking a task where quantum computers outperform classical computers, a benchmark known as quantum supremacy.
  • Recently, researchers from the University of Oxford and Universidad de Sevilla achieved this milestone using a relatively simple game-based approach. Their findings, published in Physical Review Letters in February, are based on a problem involving odd-cycle graphs.
  • The challenge is to colour a circle with an odd number of points using only two colours in such a way that no two adjacent points share the same colour—an outcome that is mathematically impossible.
  • The researchers turned this puzzle into a test for quantum supremacy, moving away from earlier, more complex demonstrations. For instance, Google used a task known as random circuit sampling to demonstrate its Sycamore processor’s capabilities in 2019, while Chinese researchers employed Gaussian boson sampling on the Jiuzhang quantum computer. These methods, however, require intricate math and specialised tools, making external validation difficult.

The Colouring Challenge

  • In the adapted experiment, the odd-cycle graph problem is used in a game format. Imagine a circle with three points—trying to colour them using only red and blue such that adjacent points don’t match will always lead to a contradiction.
  • In this game, two players, Alice and Bob, who cannot communicate, respond to questions from a referee about the colours of points on the circle. To win, their responses must meet two criteria: they must give the same answer for the same point, and different answers for adjacent points.
  • In a classical scenario, even with an agreed strategy beforehand, the best possible win rate for a 3-point circle is 83.3%.

Quantum Implementation

  • In the quantum version, researchers used two strontium atoms placed two metres apart and entangled them using laser beams. Entangled particles behave in a way that classical physics cannot explain—measuring one instantly affects the other.
  • A central computer (referee) sent queries to separate control systems representing Alice and Bob. Upon receiving a question, each system used quantum operations (rotations determined by the specific point on the circle) to manipulate their atom and derive a result—either 0 or 1, which was then translated into red or blue.
  • The experiment was conducted over 101,000 rounds, covering odd cycles with 3 to 27 points, in just under a minute. The researchers also conducted rigorous tests to confirm the quantum nature of the correlations.

Proving Quantum Advantage

  • The results were striking. For the 3-point scenario alone, the quantum strategy achieved a significantly higher win rate than 83.3%, demonstrating quantum supremacy up to 19-point circles. The overall win rate was 97.8%, with the 2.2% error attributed to noise during entanglement.
  • Additionally, their test revealed the strongest correlation ever observed between two separate quantum systems, further validating the quantum nature of the experiment.

Significance of the Study

  • This research presents a far simpler pathway to demonstrating quantum supremacy. While Google needed 53 superconducting qubits for its Sycamore processor, this experiment used only two entangled qubits, making it far less complex and resource-intensive.
  • The method has practical implications. It could be useful in coordination problems where parties cannot communicate, such as the rendezvous task—determining a common meeting point without sharing information.
  • Unlike classical systems that rely on exhaustive search methods, quantum entanglement enables faster, more efficient problem-solving. For example, identifying one correct option out of a million would take up to a million steps for a classical computer, whereas a quantum computer using Grover’s algorithm could do it in roughly 1,000 steps
 
Follow Up Question
 

1.Which one of the following is the context in which the term "qubit" is mentioned? (UPSC 2022)

A. Cloud Services

B. Quantum Computing

C. Visible Light Communication Technologies

D. Wireless Communication Technologies

 

Answer (B)
 
A qubit (quantum bit) is the fundamental unit of information in quantum computing, analogous to a bit in classical computing. Unlike a classical bit, which can be either 0 or 1, a qubit can exist in a superposition of both states, enabling quantum computers to perform complex computations much more efficiently in certain scenarios
 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international Significance
 
For Mains Examination: GS II - Governance
 
Context:
 
Sporadic reports of accidental deaths and injuries of pedestrians, cyclists, street-hawkers, and others in the metro cities of India are on the rise. While urban development in various metro cities include patches of dedicated service lanes for pedestrians and cyclists, motor vehicles tend to ply on them as well. As a result, the risk of accidents are as high on these pathways as on the main roads with vehicular traffic. In such a grim situation, active mobility is the need of the hour
 
Read about:
 
Active Mobility
 
Significance of active mobility
 
Key takeaways:
 
 
  • Active mobility involves human-powered modes of transportation, as opposed to vehicles driven by motors. Common examples include walking, cycling, skateboarding, and other non-motorised options used primarily for daily commuting rather than leisure.
  • In India, active mobility has started gaining prominence due to growing issues such as traffic congestion, urban air pollution, health challenges, and an alarming rise in pedestrian fatalities.
  • This focus aligns with broader sustainable transport initiatives, both national—like the National Transit Oriented Development (NTOD) policy and the Smart Cities Mission (SCM)—and global efforts such as the Paris Agreement, which urges reductions in greenhouse gas emissions and encourages eco-friendly transport.
  • In Bengaluru, Sathya Sankaran, the city’s first Bicycle Mayor, has played a key role in promoting infrastructure that supports non-motorised transport since 2018. His advocacy helped shape the Karnataka Active Mobility Bill, 2022. In 2020, the state reported the highest pedestrian fatality rate in India at 13%, prompting the bill’s creation.
  • The legislation aims to legally safeguard the rights of pedestrians and cyclists, encouraging inclusive access to public spaces. Other cities are also stepping up: Delhi is expanding its cycle lanes under the Delhi EV policy, Pune has rolled out a Comprehensive Bicycle Plan with over 300 km of cycling paths, Chennai is revamping its roads for better walkability under the SCM, and Kochi has introduced a Public Bicycle Sharing (PBS) initiative to improve last-mile connectivity
  • According to the World Health Organization (WHO), active mobility yields a wide range of economic, social, environmental, and health-related advantages. Financially, it cuts down household spending on fuel and transport while reducing medical costs through improved physical well-being. Economically, it supports local businesses as pedestrian zones tend to attract more visitors.
  • Environmentally, walking and cycling produce negligible carbon emissions, making them far more sustainable than motorised transport. These methods also contribute to energy conservation and can significantly help lower the 12% of India's carbon emissions that come from road transport.
  • Urban areas with robust walking and cycling networks report cleaner air and less congested traffic.
  • On the health front, active transport can reduce the risk of lifestyle diseases, enhance cardiovascular fitness, and boost mental health, making cities more livable and eco-conscious.
  • Despite its many benefits, active mobility remains underutilised, largely due to urban infrastructure that fails to support it. Most Indian roads lack proper provisions for safe walking and cycling—in fact, by 2021, over 85% of roadways did not meet the minimum safety standards for non-motorised transport.
  • Compounding this issue is the easy availability of inexpensive motorised alternatives, as well as climatic extremes and long commuting distances that dissuade people from using active modes.
  • Social attitudes also present major obstacles. In many areas, motor vehicles like cars and motorcycles are viewed as status symbols, while non-motorised transport is often seen as inferior.
  • With over 12,000 new cars sold daily in India (as per the Society of Indian Automobile Manufacturers), the number of private vehicles is surging. This leads to intensified congestion and, combined with poor enforcement of traffic laws, makes walking and cycling even more unsafe.
 
 
Follow Up Question
 
1."Active mobility is an essential component of sustainable urban transport, yet remains underutilised in Indian cities."
Critically examine the factors contributing to the underdevelopment of active mobility infrastructure in India. Also, discuss the measures taken by the government to promote it and suggest a roadmap for its effective integration into urban planning. (250 words)
 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international Significance
 
For Mains Examination: GS II - Governance
 
Context:
 
The Centre is in advanced stages of finalising a move that could bring online real-money gaming companies such as Dream11, Games24x7, and Winzo under the ambit of anti-money laundering laws and subject them to stricter obligations such as know-your-customer (KYC) requirements, and tracking and reporting suspicious transactions
 
Read about:
 
What is Online Gaming?
 
 What is the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA)?
 
 
Key takeaways:
 
 
  • A March 2025 report by FICCI and EY revealed that Indian online gaming platforms generated nearly $2.7 billion in revenue in 2024, primarily by taking a percentage of user winnings.
  • The report also highlighted that over 155 million Indians participated in real-money gaming—including fantasy sports, rummy, poker, and other transaction-based games—in 2024, reflecting a 10% growth from the previous year. On average, around 110 million users engaged with these platforms daily.
  • Industry insiders from domestic gaming firms have expressed concerns that while local companies will comply with PMLA (Prevention of Money Laundering Act) regulations, offshore betting and gambling apps may evade these rules—a concern previously raised when the 28% GST was introduced.
  • The government has intensified its crackdown on non-compliant gaming operators. Earlier this month, officials informed Parliament that the IT Ministry had blocked over 1,400 betting and gambling websites between 2022 and February 2025. Additionally, the DGGI (Directorate General of GST Intelligence) restricted access to more than 350 illegal offshore gaming platforms.
  • Despite efforts to regulate the sector through amendments to the IT Rules, progress has stalled due to a lack of enforcement mechanisms. In April 2023, the government introduced rules allowing self-regulatory bodies (SRBs) to oversee online games, but some proposals were rejected over fears of industry influence and conflict of interest.
  • Currently, the Madras High Court is reviewing challenges to Tamil Nadu’s online gaming ban. In a submission, the IT Ministry admitted that its rules remain "unenforceable" since no SRBs have been officially recognized.

Potential PMLA Classification for Gaming Companies

A proposal led by the Finance Ministry—now under inter-ministerial discussion—could classify real-money gaming firms as "reporting entities" under the PMLA, 2002. This would impose strict compliance requirements, including:

  • Maintaining transaction records and client identity proofs.

  • Reporting suspicious activities to the Financial Intelligence Unit-India (FIU-IND).

  • Adhering to anti-money laundering (AML) and counter-terrorism financing (CFT) norms, aligning with FATF (Financial Action Task Force) standards.

A similar measure was applied to cryptocurrency firms in 2023, designating them as reporting entities. If finalized, this would be the second major regulatory action against gaming companies after the 28% GST on player deposits

 

 

Follow Up Question

 

1.Which one of the following is not correct in respect of Directorate of Enforcement? (CDS  2021)
A. It is a specialized financial investigation agency under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
B. It enforces the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999.
C. It enforces the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002.
D. It enforces the Prohibition of Benami Property Transaction Act, 1988.

 

Answer (D)
 

The Directorate of Enforcement (ED) is a financial investigation agency under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. Its key responsibilities include:

  • Enforcing the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), 1999 (Option B is correct).

  • Enforcing the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), 2002 (Option C is correct).

However, the Prohibition of Benami Property Transactions Act (PBPTA), 1988, is not enforced by the ED. Instead, it is handled by the Income Tax Department under the Benami Transactions (Prohibition) Act, 1988 (amended in 2016).

Thus, Option D is incorrect in respect of the Directorate of Enforcement

 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination:   Governor's powers, Governor's assent to bills
 
For Mains Examination: GS II - Indian Polity & Governance
 
Context:
 
In a significant ruling on the powers of a Governor, the Supreme Court on Tuesday set aside Tamil Nadu Governor R N Ravi’s decision to withhold assent to 10 pending Bills, terming it illegal and erroneous in law
 
Read about:
 
What does the Constitution say about the Governor’s role?
 
Governor's discrete powers
 
 
Key takeaways:
 
 

The Indian Constitution outlines the role of the Governor regarding legislative matters through Article 163 and Article 200. While Article 163 defines the general functions of the Governor, Article 200 directly addresses the Governor’s options when a Bill passed by the State Legislature is presented for assent. The Governor may:

  1. Give assent,

  2. Withhold assent,

  3. Return the Bill for reconsideration (except in the case of money Bills), or

  4. Reserve the Bill for the President’s consideration.

Article 200 explicitly states: “When a Bill has been passed by the Legislative Assembly of a State or, in the case of a State having a Legislative Council, by both Houses, it shall be presented to the Governor who shall either give assent, withhold assent, or reserve the Bill for the President.”

A key proviso of Article 200 allows the Governor to return a non-money Bill to the legislature with a message suggesting reconsideration in whole or in part. If the legislature passes the Bill again, with or without amendments, the Governor is constitutionally required to give assent.

Ambiguity and Delays in Assent

A critical issue arises from the lack of a specified timeframe in the phrase “as soon as possible,” which allows some Governors to indefinitely delay action on Bills. This delay can effectively serve as a “pocket veto,” which has been a point of contention in several states, such as Tamil Nadu and Punjab.

Although some Governors claim to exercise discretionary powers in such situations, constitutional principles mandate that discretion must be guided by reason and not personal preference. The use of the word “shall” in Article 200 indicates a compulsory duty, reinforcing that the Governor must act within constitutional boundaries.

Judicial Precedents

In the 2016 Arunachal Pradesh case (Nabam Rebia v. Deputy Speaker), the Supreme Court affirmed that a Governor cannot delay indefinitely and must return the Bill with specific recommendations for amendment if required.

In 2023, during the Punjab case, the Apex Court addressed a dispute where the Governor had refused assent to certain Bills, citing procedural concerns. The Court ruled in favor of the state, emphasizing that the Governor cannot obstruct the legislative process and must adhere to the procedure outlined in Article 200.

2024 Tamil Nadu Case: Key Supreme Court Verdict

In its recent judgment, the Supreme Court reiterated its earlier position but added specific time constraints to the Governor’s decision-making process:

  • If a Bill is returned to the Governor after legislative reconsideration, they must grant assent within a maximum of one month.

  • If the Governor opts to reserve the Bill for Presidential consideration, this decision must be made within three months of initial presentation, unless the Bill has changed substantially.

Invoking its special powers under Article 142, the Court gave deemed assent to ten Bills that had been delayed by the Tamil Nadu Governor, citing excessive delay and disregard for constitutional norms. Article 142 empowers the Supreme Court to provide complete justice even when existing laws fall short.

Implications for Other States

This ruling, alongside the 2023 verdict, sets a precedent for similar disputes in other states. For instance, Kerala has challenged the delay in the assent of several Bills, with some pending for over two years. The matter is currently before a two-judge bench of the Supreme Court and is expected to be influenced by these earlier decisions

 
 Follow Up Question
 
1.With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements: ( UPSC 2019)
1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only       

B. 2 only         

C. Both 1 and 2         

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (C)
 
  • Statement 1: The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
    Correct.
    As per Article 176(1) of the Constitution, the Governor addresses the Legislative Assembly (or both Houses, in case of a bicameral legislature) at the commencement of the first session of the year and also the first session after each general election, outlining the government's policies and agenda.

  • Statement 2: When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.
    Correct.
    In practice, if the State Legislature has not framed specific rules on a matter, the procedure followed in the Lok Sabha is often adopted as a guiding principle. This is based on convention and is also provided for in the Rules of Procedure of many State Assemblies

 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international Significance
 
For Mains Examination: GS III - Environment & Ecology
 
Context:
The European Space Agency’s (ESA’s) new mission, which will map the world’s forests, will launch later this month. Known as the Biomass mission, it will provide information about the state of the planet’s forests and how they are changing, which will help expand the knowledge about the role forests play in the carbon cycle.
 
Read about:
 
European Space Agency’s (ESA’s)
 
Sun-synchronous orbit (SSO)
 
 
Key takeaways:
 

The European Space Agency (ESA) is set to launch a new mission aimed at mapping the world's forests later this month. Named the Biomass mission, it seeks to enhance understanding of global forest conditions and their role in the carbon cycle. By providing insights into how forests are evolving, the mission will contribute to a broader comprehension of their impact on carbon storage and climate change.

Scheduled for launch on April 29, Biomass will be carried by the Vega C rocket from Europe’s spaceport in French Guiana. Once deployed, it will enter a sun-synchronous orbit (SSO) at an altitude of approximately 666 km, ensuring consistent observation of the Earth's surface in alignment with the Sun.

Purpose of the Biomass Mission

  • Forests play a crucial role in carbon storage, acting as significant carbon sinks. Scientists estimate that forests absorb approximately 16 billion metric tonnes of COâ‚‚ annually and collectively hold 861 gigatonnes of carbon in their branches, leaves, roots, and soil.
  • However, data on above-ground biomass—the total mass of living organisms above the forest floor—and forest height is limited on a large scale. This lack of comprehensive data restricts our understanding of forests' overall contribution to the carbon cycle and their impact on climate regulation. The Biomass mission aims to bridge this knowledge gap by providing detailed forest measurements.
  • In addition, the mission will track changes in carbon levels as deforestation continues to rise. According to the World Resources Institute, 3.7 million hectares of tropical forests were lost in 2023, equivalent to ten soccer fields of forest disappearing per minute. This deforestation contributed approximately 6% of global COâ‚‚ emissions that year.

How the Biomass Mission Will Monitor Forests

  • To achieve its objectives, the satellite will use synthetic aperture radar (SAR), a remote sensing technique that employs radar waves to map Earth's surface.
  • The P-band SAR sensor, which operates at a wavelength of 70 cm, will provide a unique ability to penetrate forest canopies.
  • This capability will allow it to assess carbon stored in tree branches and on the forest floor, offering a more precise estimate of biomass levels.
  • Importantly, Biomass is the first satellite to be equipped with a P-band SAR sensor. It features a large 12-meter antenna, which will unfold as the satellite begins scanning Earth’s surface.

Overview of the Earth Explorer Programme

  • The Earth Explorer programme is designed to collect critical data on various aspects of the planet, including the Earth’s interior, frozen regions (cryosphere), water bodies (hydrosphere), atmosphere, ionosphere (which contains charged particles), and the land surface.
  • The programme's first mission, the Gravity Field and Steady-State Ocean Circulation Explorer (GOCE), was launched in 2009 and remained operational until 2013. It significantly advanced research in ocean circulation and the physics of Earth’s interior.
  • The most recent addition to this series is the Earth Cloud Aerosol and Radiation Explorer (EarthCARE) mission, launched in May 2024. EarthCARE is expected to enhance scientific knowledge of Earth’s radiative balance, which plays a key role in climate studies
 
 
Follow Up Question
 
1.How does National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) help in protecting Indian agriculture? (UPSC 2012)
1. NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous and traditional genetic resources.
2. NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific research on genetic modification of crop plants.
3. Application for Intellectual Property Rights related to genetic/biological resources cannot be made without the approval of the NBA.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
 
Answer (C)
 
  • NBA checks the biopiracy and protects the indigenous and traditional genetic resources.
    Correct – One of the key roles of the National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) is to prevent biopiracy and ensure that indigenous biological resources and associated knowledge are protected under the Biological Diversity Act, 2002.

  • NBA directly monitors and supervises the scientific research on genetic modification of crop plants.
    Incorrect – While the NBA regulates access to biological resources, genetic modification research is monitored by bodies like the Genetic Engineering Appraisal Committee (GEAC) under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change. NBA does not directly supervise scientific research on GM crops.

  • Application for Intellectual Property Rights related to genetic/biological resources cannot be made without the approval of the NBA.
    Correct – As per the Biological Diversity Act, prior approval from the NBA is mandatory before applying for any IPR (like patents) based on Indian biological resources

 
 
 
 
For preliminary Examination: Western ghats, Eastern Ghats, Tropical Evergreen Forest
 
For Mains Examination: GS I - Indian Geography
 
Context:
 
Through old and contemporary works, writers have sought to capture the alarming changes sweeping through the Sahyadri; they serve as a wake-up call to save the ecosystem, scarred by encroachment, displacement of tribal people, and skewed policies, from further ruin
 
 
Read about:
 
Tropical evergreen forest
 
Western ghats and Landslides
 
Key takeaways:
 
 
  • The Western Ghats, also known as the Sahyadri Hills, are a mountain range that stretches along the western coast of India, passing through six states: Gujarat, Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu.
  • This range is renowned for its remarkable biodiversity and unique ecosystems, making it one of the world’s most ecologically significant regions.
  • The Western Ghats are home to a rich variety of flora and fauna, many of which are endemic to the region, and have earned recognition as a UNESCO World Heritage Site for their environmental importance.
  • Historically, the Western Ghats were celebrated for their breathtaking natural beauty. The region is dotted with lush green forests, cascading waterfalls, and a diverse range of plant and animal life.
  • The region’s varied climate and topography support a wide array of ecosystems, from tropical rainforests in the lower elevations to montane grasslands and shola forests at higher altitudes. The Western Ghats also play a critical role in regulating the monsoon weather system and maintaining water sources for much of peninsular India.
  • However, despite its ecological significance, the Western Ghats face numerous challenges. Climate change has altered weather patterns, affecting the region's delicate balance.
  • Deforestation due to industrialization, urbanization, and agriculture has led to the loss of vital habitats.
  • Traditional communities, particularly tribal populations, who have depended on the forests for their livelihoods, are facing the decline of their way of life as their lands are encroached upon.
  • Additionally, urban sprawl and infrastructure development continue to put pressure on the ecosystem. These combined threats have left the Western Ghats in a vulnerable state, requiring urgent attention and conservation efforts to preserve its unique biodiversity and cultural heritage
 
Western Ghats: a living archive of culture, memory, and resilience
 
  • The Western Ghats are not just an ecological treasure trove, but also a living archive of culture, memory, and resilience for the diverse communities that have called this region home for centuries.
  • This mountain range, with its sweeping landscapes and deep forests, has nurtured a unique blend of traditions, practices, and beliefs that are intricately tied to the land. The indigenous and local communities of the Western Ghats have developed a deep connection with their environment, relying on it not only for sustenance but for cultural identity.
  • For these communities, the Western Ghats are much more than a geographical feature; they are a repository of cultural practices passed down through generations.
  • From the rituals associated with sacred groves, to the traditional agricultural practices that harmonize with the natural rhythms of the region, the Ghats serve as a living testament to the sustainable relationship between people and nature. The wisdom embedded in these practices offers valuable insights into living in harmony with the environment, even in the face of modern challenges.
  • Moreover, the Western Ghats also represent resilience. Communities living in the region have endured countless adversities—be it the ravages of natural disasters, political upheaval, or external pressures like land encroachment and development.
  • Despite these challenges, these communities have continued to safeguard their traditional knowledge and cultural heritage, ensuring its transmission to future generations.
  • The rich oral traditions, folk art, music, and dance of the Western Ghats further reflect this resilience, offering glimpses into the memories and experiences of those who have lived in these mountains for generations.
  • In the face of climate change, deforestation, and modernization, the cultural heritage of the Western Ghats remains a source of strength and pride for the people who live there.
  • The region’s preservation as a living archive of culture, memory, and resilience is not just an environmental concern—it is a vital effort to protect the ways of life that have sustained generations of people and the ecosystem for centuries.
  • This ongoing connection between nature and culture in the Western Ghats highlights the importance of preserving both natural and cultural heritage, ensuring that the mountains continue to thrive as a symbol of both ecological and human resilience
 
Follow Up Question
 

1.Which of the following statements in respect of landslides are correct? (NDA 2022)

1. These occur only on gentle slopes during rain.
2. They generally occur in clay-rich soil.
3. Earthquakes trigger landslides.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

A. 1 and 2         

B. 2 and 3           

C. 1 and 3             

D. 1, 2 and 3

Answer (B)
 
  • "These occur only on gentle slopes during rain."
    This statement is incorrect. Landslides can occur on both steep and gentle slopes, although they are more common on steeper terrain. While rainfall can trigger landslides, they are not restricted to gentle slopes.

  • "They generally occur in clay-rich soil."
    This statement is correct. Clay-rich soils are more prone to landslides because they have low permeability, which means they do not drain water easily. The saturation of clay soil during rainfall can lead to instability, increasing the risk of a landslide.

  • "Earthquakes trigger landslides."
    This statement is correct. Earthquakes can destabilize slopes and trigger landslides, particularly in areas where the soil is already loose or saturated. Seismic activity can cause the ground to shift, leading to landslides

 
 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international importance
 
For Mains Examination: GS II - Indian Polity
 
Context:
 
After meeting on Thursday (March 20) evening, the Supreme Court collegium unanimously decided to transfer Delhi High Court judge Justice Yashwant Varma back to the Allahabad High Court, where he originally came from. This came after a large sum of cash was allegedly recovered from Justice Varma’s residence after a fire.
 
Read about:
 
Supreme Court of India
 
Supreme Court collegium
 
 
Key takeaways:
 

What is the Collegium System?

The collegium system refers to the process by which judges of India's higher judiciary—comprising the Supreme Court and High Courts—are appointed and transferred. This system is not explicitly mentioned in the Constitution or enacted through any specific parliamentary law. Instead, it has evolved over time through landmark Supreme Court rulings, collectively known as the “Judges Cases.”

The Supreme Court collegium consists of five members: the Chief Justice of India (CJI) and the four most senior judges of the apex court. In the High Courts, the collegium comprises the Chief Justice of the respective High Court and its two senior-most judges.

Since the composition of the collegium changes periodically, its members serve only for the duration of their seniority before retirement.

How Does the Collegium System Function?

The Supreme Court collegium recommends appointments for judges to the apex court, while High Court collegiums propose names for judges to their respective courts. However, the recommendations of High Court collegiums require approval from the Supreme Court collegium before proceeding further.

Once finalized, these recommendations are sent to the government, which primarily conducts an Intelligence Bureau (IB) inquiry into the suggested candidates. While the government can raise objections or request clarifications, it is constitutionally obligated to approve the names if the collegium reiterates its recommendations.

Criticism of the Collegium System

The collegium system has faced criticism for its lack of transparency and absence of a structured framework. Since it operates without a formal secretariat or official selection criteria, decisions are made behind closed doors without any publicly accessible records.

Additionally, the selection process remains opaque, with no official minutes of collegium meetings. Lawyers and potential candidates often remain uninformed about whether their names have been considered for judicial elevation. This opacity has been a longstanding point of contention between the judiciary and the government.

Proposed Alternatives to the Collegium System

In 2000, the Justice M N Venkatachaliah Commission, established under Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee, recommended replacing the collegium system with a National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC).

The proposed NJAC would include:

  • The Chief Justice of India (CJI)

  • The two senior-most Supreme Court judges

  • The Union Law Minister

  • An eminent person nominated by the President in consultation with the CJI

 
 
Follow Up Question
 
1.With reference to the Indian judiciary, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2021)
1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with the prior permission of the President of India.
2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgment as the Supreme Court does.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.  1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
 
Answer (C)
 
  • Retired Supreme Court Judges Acting as Judges (Statement 1 - Correct)

    • According to Article 128 of the Indian Constitution, a retired judge of the Supreme Court can be requested to act as a judge of the Supreme Court by the Chief Justice of India (CJI). However, this requires the prior approval of the President of India. The retired judge must also consent to perform these duties.

  • High Court's Power of Review (Statement 2 - Correct)

    • Article 226 and Article 215 of the Constitution empower High Courts to review their own judgments under certain circumstances, similar to the Supreme Court’s power of review under Article 137.

    • The High Courts have inherent jurisdiction to correct their own mistakes, provided that a review petition is filed as per the prescribed rules and legal grounds

 
 
Subject and Subject Wise Notes for the Sunday Exam (Free)
 
Subject Topic Description
Polity Centre and State relations Centre State and interstate relations
Environment & Ecology Marine Ecosystem Marine Ecosystem
Economy Consumer Rights Consumer Rights
Ancient History Buddhism Buddhism
 

 

UPSC EXAM NOTES will be conducting both Prelims and Mains exams every Sunday as part of the Integrated Mains and Prelims (IMPM) Program. This program provides a comprehensive approach to UPSC exam preparation, ensuring that candidates are well-prepared for both stages of the exam.

Program Highlights:

  • Daily Study Keys: Each day, we will provide keys that outline what to read, focusing on the most relevant topics and current affairs.
  • Subject Notes: In addition to daily keys, we will supply detailed subject notes to help you build a strong foundation in all necessary areas.
  • Sunday Exams: Every Sunday, a combined exam will be held, encompassing the daily keys' content and subject notes, along with a culmination of current affairs from various sources. These exams will cover both Prelims and Mains syllabi.
  • Format: Exams will be available in both online and offline formats to cater to different preferences and situations.

Duration: The IMPM plan is a one-year program, ensuring continuous and structured preparation over 12 months. With regular testing and consistent study guidance, this program is designed to maximize your chances of success in the UPSC exams

 

Share to Social