INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) KEY (10/04/2025)

INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) 2025 Daily KEY

 
 
 
 
Exclusive for Subscribers Daily:

Repo rate and Wildfires and its significance for the UPSC Exam? Why are topics like Tirhankar Circuit, Governor assent to the bills important for both preliminary and main exams? Discover more insights in the UPSC Exam Notes for April 10, 2025

 

🚨 UPSC EXAM NOTES presents the March edition of our comprehensive monthly guide. Access it  to enhance your preparation. We value your input - share your thoughts and recommendations in the comments section or via email at Support@upscexamnotes.com 🚨

Critical Topics and Their Significance for the UPSC CSE Examination on April 10, 2025

Daily Insights and Initiatives for UPSC Exam Notes: Comprehensive explanations and high-quality material provided regularly for students

 

RBI cuts repo rate by 0.25%, trims GDP growth forecast

For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international Significance

For Mains Examination: GS III - Economy

Context:

The Reserve Bank of India slashed the repo rate by 25 basis points to 6% on Wednesday, with its Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) voting unanimously to reduce the policy rate in a bid to support growth and bring down the interest burden on home, auto, and other loan borrowers. However, this will also reduce the interest earned on savings by depositors.

 

Read about:

Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)

Reverse repo rate

 

Key takeaways:

 

The Repo Rate and Reverse Repo Rate are key monetary policy tools used by central banks (like the Reserve Bank of India - RBI) to control liquidity and inflation in the economy. Here's a breakdown:

1. Repo Rate (Repurchase Rate)

  • Definition: The rate at which the central bank (RBI) lends money to commercial banks for short-term needs (against government securities as collateral).

  • Purpose: Controls inflation and boosts economic growth.

    • If inflation is high, RBI increases the repo rate → borrowing becomes costlier → reduces money supply → lowers inflation.

    • If growth is slow, RBI decreases the repo rate → cheaper loans → more spending & investment → boosts growth.

  • Current Repo Rate (as of RBI's latest policy, June 2024)6.50% (unchanged since February 2023).

2. Reverse Repo Rate

  • Definition: The rate at which the central bank borrows money from commercial banks (banks park excess funds with RBI and earn interest).

  • Purpose: Manages liquidity in the banking system.

    • A higher reverse repo rate encourages banks to deposit more funds with RBI → reduces money supply.

    • A lower reverse repo rate discourages banks from parking money with RBI → increases lending in the market.

  • Current Reverse Repo Rate3.35% (since the RBI merged it with the Standing Deposit Facility - SDF rate).

Key Differences

Feature Repo Rate Reverse Repo Rate
Transaction RBI lends to banks RBI borrows from banks
Collateral Banks pledge securities No collateral (now part of SDF)
Impact Controls inflation & growth Controls excess liquidity
Current Rate 6.50% 3.35% (SDF rate)

 

Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) Rate

 

  • The Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) is an important monetary policy tool used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to regulate liquidity in the banking system. CRR refers to the minimum percentage of a commercial bank’s total net demand and time liabilities (NDTL) that must be maintained in the form of cash reserves with the RBI.
  • This means that a portion of the bank's deposits cannot be used for lending, investment, or any other commercial activity. It is kept with the RBI to ensure that banks always have a certain level of liquidity.
  • The primary objective of maintaining CRR is to control the money supply, ensure liquidity, and safeguard the banking system. By adjusting the CRR, the RBI can influence the amount of funds banks have at their disposal.
  • For instance, when the RBI increases the CRR, banks are required to deposit a higher portion of their funds with the central bank. This leads to a reduction in the available funds for lending or investment, effectively reducing liquidity in the economy. Such a measure is usually adopted to curb inflationary pressures.
  • On the other hand, when the RBI lowers the CRR, it releases more funds into the banking system, increasing liquidity. Banks then have more capital to extend as credit to businesses and consumers, thereby stimulating economic activity. Hence, CRR acts as a powerful tool to manage both inflation and economic growth.
  • It is important to distinguish CRR from another similar regulatory requirement, the Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR).
  • While CRR requires banks to hold cash reserves with the RBI, SLR mandates banks to maintain a certain proportion of their NDTL in the form of liquid assets like cash, gold, or approved government securities, but these are kept with the banks themselves, not with the RBI.
  • Both tools are used for different aspects of financial regulation—CRR primarily for monetary control, and SLR for ensuring solvency and credit discipline.
  • As of April 2024, the current Cash Reserve Ratio stands at 4.50%, indicating that commercial banks must park 4.5% of their total deposits in cash with the RBI

 

Follow Up Question

1.Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)? (UPSC 2017) 

1. It decides the RBI's benchmark interest rates.
2. It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year.
3. It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1 only     

B.  1 and 2 only     

C. 3 only     

D. 2 and 3 only

Answer (A)
 
Statement 1: It decides the RBI's benchmark interest rates.
Correct.
The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is responsible for setting the repo rate, which is the benchmark interest rate in India. This is the rate at which the RBI lends to commercial banks. The MPC meets at least four times a year to review and set the policy rate to achieve the inflation target set by the government

Statement 2: It is a 12-member body including the Governor of RBI and is reconstituted every year.
Incorrect.
The MPC is a 6-member committee, not 12. It comprises:

  • 3 members from the RBI (including the Governor as Chairperson, the Deputy Governor in charge of monetary policy, and one RBI officer nominated by the Central Board),

  • 3 external members appointed by the Government of India.

Also, it is not reconstituted every year; the external members have a four-year term and are not eligible for reappointment

Statement 3: It functions under the chairmanship of the Union Finance Minister.
Incorrect.
The MPC is headed by the Governor of the RBI, not the Finance Minister. The Finance Ministry has no direct role in the MPC’s decision-making process to ensure its independence

 

As wildfires scorch the earth, the Arctic biome rejects more carbon

For Preliminary Examination:  Wildfires, Forest fires

For Mains Examination:  GS I - World Geography

Context:

Multiple states in the U.S. were recently in the grip of tornadoes, wildfires, and dust storms. The fires that scorched parts of Texas and Oklahoma burnt through almost 300 homes, reliving the horrors a similar blaze inflicted on Los Angeles in January this year

Read about:

Forest fires

Wildfires

 

Key takeaways:

 

  • As per the latest India State of Forest Report released on December 21, 2024, the states of Uttarakhand, Odisha, and Chhattisgarh witnessed the highest number of forest fires that year. Notably, Uttarakhand alone experienced 5,315 fire incidents between November 2022 and June 2023.
  • Despite these numbers, the report highlighted a gradual decrease in fire hotspots across India, with the figures falling from 2.23 lakh in 2021–2022 to 2.03 lakh in 2023–2024.
  • Simultaneously, the country has been undergoing record-breaking land temperatures in recent years. A 2023 study by IIT-Kharagpur and the Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology, Pune, found that in northwestern, northeastern, and central parts of India, land surface temperatures are increasing by 0.1°C to 0.3°C per decade during the pre-monsoon period, and by 0.2°C to 0.4°C per decade post-monsoon.
  • This warming trend has led to earlier, slower-moving, and longer-lasting heatwaves, accompanied by extended dry periods, all of which contribute to an environment highly prone to wildfires.

The Arctic Boreal Zone: From Carbon Sink to Carbon Source

  • Traditionally, oceans, forests, and soil have served as vital carbon sinks, absorbing more carbon dioxide than they emit. Among these, the Arctic Boreal Zone (ABZ)—home to tundras, coniferous forests, and wetlands around the Arctic Circle—has played a crucial role in carbon sequestration through its permafrost layers. In fact, the ABZ’s coniferous forests represent the largest terrestrial biome on the planet.
  • However, recent research published in Nature Climate Change reveals that the rising severity of wildfires has altered this role dramatically. Now, over 30% of the ABZ has transitioned from absorbing carbon to emitting it.
  • The international study, based on data from 200 global monitoring sites between 1990 and 2020, showed that although the ABZ remained a net carbon sink between 2001 and 2020, a third of the region has become a net emitter of COâ‚‚ during that period.
  • According to Anna Virkkala from the Woodwell Climate Research Center in the U.S., despite some northern ecosystems still functioning as carbon sinks, the increasing number and intensity of fires have offset this balance, reversing long-term carbon absorption trends.
  • The study identified Alaska (44%), northern Europe (25%), and Siberia (13%) as major contributors to these new emissions. It also pointed out a worrying trend: carbon released during the non-summer months in the ABZ now exceeds the amount absorbed during the summer (June–August), indicating a significant shift in seasonal carbon dynamics.

Drivers of the Shift: Permafrost Thaw and Feedback Loops

  • The transformation of the ABZ from a carbon sink to a source is believed to have started before 1990. Major wildfire events, such as the 2003 Eastern Siberia fires in Russia and the 2012 Timmins wildfire in Canada, played a pivotal role. In both cases, carbon emissions far exceeded the annual carbon uptake capacity of the ABZ.
  • A critical factor in this shift is the thawing of permafrost in the tundra, driven by global warming. Rising temperatures in colder regions dry out the soil, change vegetation types, and cause organic matter in the soil to decompose, releasing significant amounts of COâ‚‚.
  • This change has set off a dangerous feedback loop: as wildfires become more intense and frequent, they burn through long-standing carbon stores, releasing COâ‚‚ into the atmosphere. This, in turn, intensifies global warming, which further increases the likelihood and intensity of wildfires, creating a vicious cycle.
  • The study’s conclusions align with findings from the 2024 Arctic Report Card issued by the US National Oceanic and Atmospheric Administration (NOAA), which confirmed that frequent fires are turning the Arctic tundra into a net carbon emitter, exacerbated by heavy pollution from fossil fuel combustion
 
 
Follow Up Question
 
1.The vegetation of savannah consists of grassland with scattered small trees, but extensive areas have no trees. The forest development in such areas is generally kept in check by one or more or a combination of some conditions. Which of the following are such conditions? (UPSC 2021)
1. Burrowing animals and termites
2. Fire
3. Grazing herbivores
4. Seasonal rainfall
5. Soil properties
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1 and 2       
B. 4 and 5   
C.  2, 3 and 4     
D. 1, 3 and 5
 
Answer (C)
 

Savannah vegetation is characterized by grasslands with scattered trees, and several environmental factors limit forest development in these regions:

  • Fire: Frequent natural or human-induced fires prevent tree growth and help maintain open grassland ecosystems.

  • Grazing Herbivores: Large herbivores feed on young saplings and prevent trees from establishing, thereby maintaining the savannah landscape.

  • Seasonal Rainfall: Savannahs typically receive moderate rainfall with a pronounced dry season, which limits the water availability required for dense forest growth

  • Burrowing animals and termites (1): While these organisms affect the soil ecosystem, they do not significantly limit tree growth at a scale that defines savannah ecosystems.

  • Soil properties (5): Although soil can influence vegetation types, it is not the primary reason why savannahs remain treeless or have sparse tree growth.

Hence, options 2, 3, and 4 are the most relevant limiting factors

 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination:  Jainism, Buddhism, Thirthankars
 
For Mains Examination: GS I - Art & Culture
 
Context:
 
Mahavir Jayanti, also referred to as Mahaveer Janma Kalyanak, is celebrated to commemorate the birth anniversary of Lord Mahavira, the 24th and the last ‘Thirthankara’ of Jainism. This year it is celebrated on 10th April.
 
Read about:
 
Thirthankaras
 
Tirhankar Circuit
 
 
Key takeaways:
 
Sects of Jainism
 

Jainism, one of the oldest religions of India, is broadly divided into two major sectsDigambara and Shvetambara. These sects emerged due to historical, geographical, and doctrinal differences, particularly after a famine in the 3rd century BCE that caused a migration of monks from the Ganga valley to southern India.

Digambara (Sky-clad)

  • The term "Digambara" literally means "sky-clad" or "those who wear the sky", indicating their practice of complete nudity, symbolizing renunciation.

  • They believe that liberation (moksha) can only be attained by completely renouncing all possessions, including clothes.

  • According to Digambara tradition, women must be reborn as men before they can attain salvation.

  • They believe that Mahavira never married, and that he practiced strict austerity, including nudity, throughout his life.

  • The canon of Digambaras is different; they believe that the original teachings of Mahavira were lost and do not accept the Shvetambara texts.

  • Digambara monks are extremely austere and live a life of strict discipline and detachment.

Shvetambara (White-clad)

  • "Shvetambara" means "white-clad", referring to the white clothes worn by monks and nuns of this sect.

  • They allow clothing and basic possessions, such as a bowl and a broom made of wool.

  • Shvetambaras believe that women can attain liberation in their present form.

  • According to this sect, Mahavira was married and lived a worldly life before renouncing it.

  • The Shvetambara canon includes the Agamas, considered to be the preserved teachings of Mahavira, compiled during councils held at Pataliputra and later at Valabhi.

  • They are generally more liberal in their practices compared to the Digambaras

 
Mahavir Jain
 
 
  • Mahavira, also known as Vardhamana, was the 24th and last Tirthankara (spiritual teacher) of Jainism. He is regarded as a reformer who revitalized and spread the teachings of earlier Tirthankaras, especially that of his predecessor, Parshvanatha.
  • Born in 599 BCE in Kundagrama near Vaishali (in present-day Bihar), Mahavira belonged to the Kshatriya class. His father, Siddhartha, was a ruler of a small kingdom, and his mother, Trishala, was a Lichchhavi princess. Despite his royal upbringing, Mahavira displayed a deep sense of detachment from worldly pleasures from an early age.
  • At the age of 30, Mahavira renounced his princely life and began a long journey of spiritual quest. He gave up all material possessions and practiced intense asceticism, including fasting and meditative silence, to gain self-realization.
  • For the next 12 years, he wandered as a homeless ascetic, enduring hardships and self-discipline, eventually attaining Kevala Jnana or supreme knowledge under a sal tree.
  • After enlightenment, Mahavira spent the next 30 years travelling extensively across the Indian subcontinent to spread his teachings.
  • He emphasized a life based on five key principles: Ahimsa (non-violence), Satya (truth), Asteya (non-stealing), Brahmacharya (chastity), and Aparigraha (non-possession). These principles became the core of Jain philosophy and ethics.
  • He preached that liberation or moksha from the cycle of birth and rebirth could be achieved through right faith, right knowledge, and right conduct—known as the Triratna or Three Jewels of Jainism.
  • Mahavira's approach was inclusive; he welcomed people from all social backgrounds, including women and the lower castes, which was revolutionary for his time.
  • His teachings attracted a significant following, laying the foundation for the organized Jain sangha (community).
  • He advocated for compassion not only towards human beings but also towards all forms of life, which explains Jainism's deep commitment to vegetarianism and environmental ethics.
  • Mahavira attained nirvana (liberation) at the age of 72 at Pavapuri in present-day Bihar. His death is celebrated as Diwali by Jains, marking the day of his liberation. His life and philosophy continue to inspire millions, and he remains a central figure in Jain religious thought and practice
 
Follow Up Question
 
1.With reference to the religious practices in India, the “Sthanakvasi” sect belongs to (2018)

(a) Buddhism

(b) Jainism

(c) Vaishnavism

(d) Shaivism

Answer (b)
 

The Sthanakvasi sect is a reformist sect within Shvetambara Jainism. This sect emerged in the 17th century as a reaction against idol worship and temple rituals. Followers of Sthanakvasi believe in practicing Jain principles through meditation, discipline, and ethical living, without the need for temple-based worship or images of the Tirthankaras.

They emphasize internal purification over external rituals, and their places of worship are called sthanaks, which are simple halls without idols

 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international Significance
 
For Mains Examination: GS II - Indian Polity & Governance
 
Context:
 
 In a decision with significant ramifications, the Supreme Court Tuesday declared as illegal and erroneous the action of Tamil Nadu Governor R N Ravi in reserving 10 Bills for consideration of the President in November 2024 after they had already been reconsidered by the state Assembly
 
Read about:
 
What are the important constitutional provisions related to the Governor?
 
 If the governor withholds his assent to the bill, then what happens?
 
 
Key takeaways:
 
 

Governor’s Role in Granting Assent to Bills under the Constitution

  • The authority of the Governor concerning Bills passed by a State Legislature is outlined in Article 200 of the Indian Constitution, while Article 163 defines the broader powers of the Governor. These provisions, when read together, help outline the Governor's constitutional responsibilities in this regard.
  • When a Bill is approved by the State Legislature, it must be presented to the Governor, who has four options: to give assent to the Bill, withhold assent, return the Bill for reconsideration (if it is not a Money Bill), or reserve it for the President's consideration.
  • Article 200 specifies: when a Bill is passed by the Legislative Assembly (or both Houses in states with a bicameral legislature), it shall be presented to the Governor, who is required to either approve, reject, or refer it to the President.
  • However, delays in making a decision can lead to a situation where the Governor effectively blocks the Bill's progress, a situation criticized as a form of "pocket veto." The Tamil Nadu government raised this issue, arguing that such prolonged inaction by the Governor disrupted democratic governance.
  • While the Governor has some discretionary powers, they must be exercised with justifiable constitutional reasoning—not on a personal or arbitrary basis. The word “shall” in Article 200 emphasizes that the Governor is expected to act within a mandated framework, rather than exercising open-ended discretion.
  • In the Nabam Rebia case (2016) concerning the Arunachal Pradesh Assembly, the Supreme Court touched upon these constitutional interpretations. Building upon this in a 2023 decision, and more explicitly in a recent ruling, the Supreme Court went further to establish a timeframe within which Governors must act on Bills.
  • Justices J B Pardiwala and R Mahadevan stated that any action taken by the President following undue delay would also not hold. Using the powers granted under Article 142, the Court declared 10 Bills as having received assent due to the excessive delay by the Governor, and criticized the lack of regard shown toward previous judicial directions.
  • The Court clarified that under Article 200, the Governor's choices are limited to either approving, withholding, or reserving a Bill for the President, and this reservation can only happen initially. The idea of a “pocket veto” or “absolute veto” has no basis in the constitutional structure.
  • The bench emphasized that a Governor should serve as a facilitator and unifier in times of conflict, rather than stalling the functioning of the state. All decisions must uphold the dignity of the constitutional office.
  • In its ruling, the Court reinforced that the Governor is bound by the advice of the Council of Ministers under Article 200, except in the limited exceptions defined by Article 200’s second proviso and Article 163(1)
 
 
Follow Up Question
 
1.With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements: ( UPSC 2019)
1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A. 1 only       

B. 2 only         

C. Both 1 and 2         

D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer (C)
 

Statement 1: "The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year." — Correct

  • Article 176(1) of the Constitution mandates that the Governor shall address the Legislative Assembly (or both Houses in case of a bicameral legislature) at the commencement of the first session each year, outlining the policies and programs of the state government. This is a customary and constitutional practice.

Statement 2: "When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter." — Correct

  • In the absence of a specific rule in the Rules of Procedure of a State Legislative Assembly, the procedure followed by the Lok Sabha may be used as a guide. This is a recognized convention and helps maintain parliamentary decorum and consistency

 
 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international importance
 
For Mains Examination: GS III - Environment & ecology
 
Context:
 
There was a palpable and building sense of unease at the residence of Arun Dutta Kadale upon enquiring about his mahogany plantation. Spread over 1 hectare (ha) at Navingar village in Maharashtra’s Pune district, the plantation is part of an agroforestry project that generates carbon credits. Kadale hopes to earn Rs 61,750 a year from these carbon credits
 
Read about:
 
Carbon adjustment mechanism
 
Carbon markets and Carbon credits
 
Key takeaways:
 
Carbon markets are systems designed to reduce greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions by assigning a price to carbon dioxide (COâ‚‚) or its equivalent (COâ‚‚e), turning emissions into a tradable commodity. They incentivize emission reductions by allowing entities to buy and sell carbon credits or allowances, aligning economic activity with climate goals. There are two main types: compliance markets (regulated by governments) and voluntary markets (driven by private entities or individuals). As of March 23, 2025, carbon markets are a critical tool for meeting global climate targets, such as those under the Paris Agreement
 

Key Concepts of Carbon Markets

  • Cap-and-Trade System:

    • A central authority (usually a government or regulatory body) sets a cap on the total amount of GHG emissions allowed.

    • Emission allowances (permits) are distributed or auctioned to companies, giving them the right to emit a certain amount of COâ‚‚ or other GHGs.

    • Companies that reduce their emissions below their allowance can sell their excess permits to others that need them.

  • Carbon Credits:

    • A carbon credit represents the right to emit one ton of COâ‚‚ or an equivalent amount of other GHGs.

    • Credits can be generated through projects that reduce or remove emissions (e.g., renewable energy, reforestation, or energy efficiency initiatives).

    • These credits can be traded in carbon markets.

  • Compliance vs. Voluntary Markets:

    • Compliance Markets: Operate under government-mandated regulations (e.g., the European Union Emissions Trading System or California's Cap-and-Trade Program). Companies are legally required to participate.

    • Voluntary Markets: Allow companies and individuals to purchase carbon credits voluntarily to offset their emissions, often for corporate social responsibility (CSR) or sustainability goals.

  • Carbon Offset Projects:

    • Projects that reduce, avoid, or remove emissions (e.g., renewable energy, afforestation, methane capture) generate carbon credits.

    • These credits can be sold to entities looking to offset their emissions

 
 
Follow Up Question
 
1.With reference to carbon nanotubes, consider the following statements (UPSC 2020)
1. They can be used as carriers of drugs and antigens in the human body.
2. They can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of the human body.
3. They can be used in biochemical sensors.
4. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable.
Which of the statements given above are correct?  
A. 1 and 2 only       
B.  2, 3 and 4 only       
C. 1, 3 and 4 only         
D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
 
Answer (D)
 
  1. They can be used as carriers of drugs and antigens in the human body.
    • Fact: CNTs have a high surface area and can be functionalized (chemically modified) to carry drugs, vaccines, or antigens. Their nanoscale size allows penetration into cells, making them promising for targeted drug delivery (e.g., cancer treatment) and immunotherapy.
    • Evidence: Studies (e.g., National Institutes of Health research, pre-2020) confirm CNTs as drug nanocarriers, with applications like delivering doxorubicin to tumor cells.
    • Verdict: Correct. CNTs are widely explored for this purpose.
  2. They can be made into artificial blood capillaries for an injured part of the human body.
    • Fact: CNTs mimic blood capillaries’ nanoscale dimensions (diameters of 1–100 nm) and have high tensile strength, making them candidates for tissue engineering. Research has explored CNT scaffolds to support vascular regeneration or as artificial vessel mimics.
    • Evidence: Pre-2020 studies (e.g., in Biomaterials, 2010s) showed CNT-based composites promoting angiogenesis (blood vessel growth) in injured tissues, though full artificial capillaries were experimental, not yet standard by 2020.
    • Verdict: Correct. Feasible and supported by research, though still emerging in 2020.
  3. They can be used in biochemical sensors.
    • Fact: CNTs’ electrical conductivity and sensitivity to molecular interactions make them ideal for biosensors. They detect biochemical changes (e.g., glucose, proteins) by altering conductance when molecules bind to their surface.
    • Evidence: Widely documented by 2020 (e.g., CNT-based glucose sensors for diabetes monitoring), with applications in medical diagnostics and environmental monitoring.
    • Verdict: Correct. A well-established use of CNTs.
  4. Carbon nanotubes are biodegradable.
    • Fact: CNTs are made of carbon-carbon bonds (like graphite or diamond), which are highly stable and resistant to natural degradation. However, certain functionalized CNTs can be broken down by enzymes (e.g., myeloperoxidase in neutrophils) or oxidative processes in specific conditions, but this is not inherent biodegradability.
    • Evidence: Pre-2020 research (e.g., Nature Nanotechnology, 2008) showed some biodegradation under lab conditions, but CNTs are generally considered non-biodegradable in the body or environment without intervention. By 2020, the consensus leaned toward limited biodegradability, requiring further study.
    • Verdict: Incorrect (for UPSC 2020 context). While partial degradation is possible, CNTs are not broadly classified as biodegradable.
 
 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international importance
 
For Mains Examination: GS II - Governance
 
Context:
 
Supreme Court guidelines to eradicate ragging from 15 years ago that haven’t gone much beyond tokenism on college campuses; government regulations that remain on paper; a regulatory system that, authorities say, is undermined by complaints that are either “frivolous” or difficult to track down — and the challenge of coming up with a widely accepted legal definition of ragging itself.
 
Read about:
 
What is ragging?
 
Why ragging is of serious concern in educational institutions?
 
Key takeaways:
 
  • Ragging involves any behavior by a student or group of students, whether through spoken or written words or actions, that results in teasing, rude treatment, or misconduct towards others.
  • It also includes engaging in disorderly or disruptive activities that cause distress, hardship, or psychological or physical harm, instilling fear or discomfort among fellow students.
  • Ragging can be broadly classified into three types. The first category includes common practices such as making newcomers introduce themselves, addressing seniors with formal titles like ‘Sir’ or ‘Ma’am,’ following prescribed dress codes, avoiding direct eye contact with seniors, and performing tasks like singing or dancing.
  • These activities are often not labeled as ragging but rather as a form of "interaction" or a harmless tradition meant to integrate new students into the institution’s culture while reinforcing seniority-based hierarchies.
  • The second type is explicitly recognized as ragging and includes forced consumption of alcohol or tobacco, coerced interactions with the opposite gender, use of abusive language, and ragging of a sexual nature.
  • Such actions often stem from a desire to break free from childhood restrictions, enact personal fantasies, or conform to gender stereotypes, particularly the notion of masculinity.
  • The third and most severe category involves physical abuse, coercion, and violent assaults. While sometimes used as a means of proving physical strength, it is more commonly intended to intimidate, humiliate, and assert dominance over newcomers.
  • In a 2001 ruling, the Supreme Court addressed the issue of ragging, describing it as a widespread problem in educational institutions. A public interest litigation on the matter was filed by Vishwa Jagriti Mission against the central government.
  • The Court broadly defined ragging as any disorderly conduct—whether verbal, written, or physical—that leads to teasing, rude behavior, or mistreatment of students. It also includes any action that causes distress, fear, embarrassment, or psychological harm to freshers or junior students, compelling them to act in ways they normally would not. The underlying motive behind ragging is often the pursuit of sadistic pleasure or the assertion of power and superiority by seniors over their juniors.
  • The Court issued several key anti-ragging directives, including the formation of proctorial committees to prevent and address ragging incidents internally. It also stated that cases involving serious misconduct or criminal offenses should be reported to the police.
  • In 2009, the Supreme Court revisited the issue, appointing a committee led by former CBI Director R.K. Raghavan to examine the problem further.
  • The committee’s recommendations were later formalized by the University Grants Commission (UGC).
  • An investigation by The Indian Express revealed that the establishment of a dedicated UGC helpline in 2009 contributed to a significant increase in reported ragging complaints.
  • Records obtained through the Right to Information (RTI) Act show that from January 2012 to October 2023, 78 students were listed under "suicide/death cases allegedly due to ragging." While this figure is small compared to the 4.14 crore students in higher education, it highlights the deeper issue of an unaccountable and opaque system for addressing ragging.
  • Over the past decade, the UGC helpline recorded more than 8,000 ragging complaints, with incidents surging by 208% between 2012 and 2022. Complaints rose from 358 in 2012 to a peak of 1,115 in 2019, followed by 1,103 cases in 2022 and 756 cases by October 2023.
  • Among the 78 ragging-related deaths reported during this period, Maharashtra accounted for the highest number (10), followed by Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu (7 each), Telangana (6), Andhra Pradesh (5), and Madhya Pradesh (4).
  • The highest number of ragging complaints came from Uttar Pradesh (1,202), followed by Madhya Pradesh (795), West Bengal (728), Odisha (517), Bihar (476), and Maharashtra (393).
  • The institutions with the most complaints included Banaras Hindu University (BHU) with 72 cases, Maulana Azad National Institute of Technology in Bhopal (53), and MKCG Medical College in Berhampur, Odisha (49)
 
Follow Up Question 
 
1.Which of the following bodies in India is responsible for monitoring and implementing anti-ragging measures in higher education institutions?

a) Bar Council of India
b) National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)
c) University Grants Commission (UGC)
d) Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)
 
Answer (c)
 

The University Grants Commission (UGC) is the primary regulatory body responsible for monitoring and implementing anti-ragging measures in higher education institutions across India. Following the Supreme Court’s directives, the UGC issued strict anti-ragging regulations in 2009, which include measures such as:

  • Setting up anti-ragging committees in institutions
  • Establishing a 24x7 anti-ragging helpline
  • Imposing penalties on institutions failing to curb ragging
  • Conducting awareness campaigns

The other options are incorrect because:

  • Bar Council of India (BCI) regulates legal education and the legal profession.
  • National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) focuses on accrediting and assessing educational institutions for quality standards.
  • Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) oversees school-level education and has no role in higher education institutions
 
 
Subject and Subject Wise Notes for the Sunday Exam (Free)
 
Subject Topic Description
Polity Centre and State relations Centre State and interstate relations
Environment & Ecology Marine Ecosystem Marine Ecosystem
Economy Consumer Rights Consumer Rights
Ancient History Buddhism Buddhism
 

 

UPSC EXAM NOTES will be conducting both Prelims and Mains exams every Sunday as part of the Integrated Mains and Prelims (IMPM) Program. This program provides a comprehensive approach to UPSC exam preparation, ensuring that candidates are well-prepared for both stages of the exam.

Program Highlights:

  • Daily Study Keys: Each day, we will provide keys that outline what to read, focusing on the most relevant topics and current affairs.
  • Subject Notes: In addition to daily keys, we will supply detailed subject notes to help you build a strong foundation in all necessary areas.
  • Sunday Exams: Every Sunday, a combined exam will be held, encompassing the daily keys' content and subject notes, along with a culmination of current affairs from various sources. These exams will cover both Prelims and Mains syllabi.
  • Format: Exams will be available in both online and offline formats to cater to different preferences and situations.

Duration: The IMPM plan is a one-year program, ensuring continuous and structured preparation over 12 months. With regular testing and consistent study guidance, this program is designed to maximize your chances of success in the UPSC exams

 
 

Share to Social