INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) KEY (19/10/2024)

INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) 2025 Daily KEY

 
 
 
 
Exclusive for Subscribers Daily: Section 6A Citizenship Act and Chatrapati Shivaji for the UPSC Exam? Why are topics like Gender Budget 2024-25 and QUAD important for both preliminary and main exams? Discover more insights in the UPSC Exam Notes for October 19, 2024

 

🚨 UPSC EXAM NOTES presents the July edition of our comprehensive monthly guide. Access it  to enhance your preparation. We value your input - share your thoughts and recommendations in the comments section or via email at Support@upscexamnotes.com 🚨

Critical Topics and Their Significance for the UPSC CSE Examination on October 19, 2024

Daily Insights and Initiatives for UPSC Exam Notes: Comprehensive explanations and high-quality material provided regularly for students

 

Section 6A of the Citizenship Act, 1955

For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of antional and international Importance

For Mains Examination: GS II - Indian Polity & Governance

Context:

In a landmark ruling, the Supreme Court on Thursday upheld the constitutional validity of Section 6A of the Citizenship Act, 1955, which granted citizenship to immigrants who entered Assam before January 1, 1966, and called for stricter implementation of laws against illegal immigration and judicial monitoring of the implementation of immigration and citizenship legislations

 

Read about:

What is Section 6A of the Citizenship Act, 1955?

What are the questions surrounding Section 6A?

What is the Assam Accord?

Key takeaways:

  • The bench held that immigrants entering Assam on or after March 25, 1971, are not eligible for protection under Section 6A, and are therefore deemed illegal immigrants.
  • Chief Justice of India (CJI) DY Chandrachud clarified that Section 6A does not violate Articles 6 and 7 of the Constitution, which set a specific cut-off date of January 26, 1950, for granting citizenship to migrants from East and West Pakistan at the time of the Constitution's commencement.
  • He stated that the legislative purpose of Section 6A aimed to balance the humanitarian concerns of Indian-origin migrants with the economic and cultural needs of Indian states.
  • Although other states have longer borders with Bangladesh, Assam faces a more significant impact from migration in terms of numbers and resources.
  • Therefore, the criteria for migration to Assam are reasonable. The March 25, 1971, cut-off date is justified, as it coincides with the eve of the Pakistani Army's Operation Searchlight, launched on March 26, 1971, to suppress the Bangladeshi nationalist movement. Migrants arriving before this event were regarded as part of the Indian partition, and the chosen criteria are logically aligned with Section 6A’s purpose.
  • The bench explained that undocumented migrants could have been registered as citizens under Section 5(1)(a) of the Citizenship Act before its amendment in 2003, which then excluded ‘illegal immigrants.’ Thus, the petitioner’s argument that Section 6A is unconstitutional because it allegedly encourages migration to Assam for citizenship purposes is incorrect.
  • The ruling also stated that Section 6A aligns with constitutional principles, without violating the concepts of fraternity or Articles 6, 7, 9, 14, 21, 29, 326, and 355 of the Constitution of India. It does not conflict with the Immigrants (Expulsion from Assam) Act, 1950, or international law principles.
  • Regarding Section 6A, introduced under the Assam Accord with a specific cut-off date, the Court affirmed its validity, noting that citizenship should not be narrowly interpreted to label one group as citizens and another as ‘illegal immigrants.’
  • Agreeing with the majority opinion, CJI Chandrachud emphasized that while the Constitution protects the right to preserve culture, this right must be understood within the framework of India’s multicultural and pluralistic identity.
  • The petitioners argued that Section 6A infringes on Article 29 by allowing residents from Bangladesh, who have a different cultural background, to live in Assam and gain citizenship, thereby impacting the preservation of Assamese culture. The Court, however, dismissed this argument
 
Follow Up Question
 

1.What is the position of the Right to Property in India? (UPSC  2021)

(a) Legal right available to citizens only

(b) Legal right available to any person

(c) Fundamental Rights available to citizens only

(d) Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right

Answer (b)

The Right to Property in India is not a Fundamental Right. It was originally a Fundamental Right under Article 31 but was removed by the 44th Amendment Act of 1978 and is now a legal right under Article 300A of the Constitution. It is available to any person, not just citizens.

 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination: Chatrapati Shivaji, Maratha Empire
 
For Mains Examination: GS I - Modern Indian History
 
Context:
 
The Jawaharlal Nehru University (JNU) is planning to start a ‘Centre of Excellence’ named after Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj, which will draw lessons from his era to understand the “concept of Akhand Bharat” and his “struggle for Hindavi Swaraj”
 
Read about:
 
Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj
 
Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj and Maratha Empire
 
Key takeaways:
 
  • As per the NCERT textbook, Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj (1630) founded the Maratha kingdom. This kingdom emerged as a formidable regional power, challenging Mughal rule. Shivaji (1630–1680) established a stable domain with the aid of influential warrior families known as deshmukhs. The core of the Maratha military comprised groups of mobile peasant-pastoralists (kunbis). Shivaji leveraged these forces to contest the Mughals' influence in the region. Following his death, real power in the Maratha state transitioned to a family of Chitpavan Brahmins, who served as Peshwas (chief ministers) to Shivaji’s successors, with Poona becoming the kingdom's capital.

  • In his book Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj (2002), historian PN Deshpande describes Shivaji’s military strategies as both tactical and deliberate, characterized by surprise attacks and relentless offensives that kept his enemies unsettled. Despite having a smaller army, Shivaji Maharaj effectively used guerrilla warfare, consistently outmaneuvering his opponents, which earned him both respect and fear. This strategy is noted in foreign accounts, especially during the raids on Surat.

  • The concept of Akhand Bharat has been long envisioned by the Sangh Parivar as an Indian nation that spans from the time of the Ramayana, covering a vast region from present-day Afghanistan to Myanmar, and from Tibet to Sri Lanka. A map titled “Punyabhoomi Bharat” by Suruchi Prakashan, associated with the RSS, names various regions differently, such as Afghanistan as “Upganathan,” Kabul as “Kubha Nagar,” Peshawar as “Purushpur,” Multan as “Moolsthan,” Tibet as “Trivishtap,” Sri Lanka as “Singhaldweep,” and Myanmar as “Brahmadesh.”

  • In 1944, during the Muslim League's push for a separate Pakistan, historian Radha Kumud Mookerji introduced the idea of Akhand Bharat in his address at an “Akhand Bharat Conference.” He described the Hindu homeland as extending across all of India, from Kashmir to the southern tip, from Nanga Parvat and Amarnath to Madurai and Rameshwaram, and from Dwarka to Puri. Mookerji emphasized that Akhand Bharat was defined by nature itself as a unified geographical entity with clear boundaries, leaving no room for doubt or ambiguity

 
 
Follow Up Question
 

1.Which of the following statements about Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj is/are correct?

  1. Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj was known for employing guerrilla warfare tactics against the Mughals.
  2. He established the Maratha kingdom with the support of the Deshmukhs and Kunbis.
  3. After Shivaji's death, the Maratha kingdom's capital shifted from Raigad to Poona under the Peshwas.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer (d)
 
  • Statement 1 is correct. Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj is renowned for using guerrilla warfare tactics, allowing his smaller forces to outmaneuver larger Mughal armies.
  • Statement 2 is correct. He established the Maratha kingdom with the assistance of Deshmukhs (local warrior leaders) and Kunbis (peasant-pastoralist groups), who formed the backbone of his military.
  • Statement 3 is correct. After Shivaji’s death, the Maratha kingdom's effective power eventually shifted to the Peshwas, and Poona became the political center of the Maratha Empire
 
 

Analysing the Gender Budget of 2024-25

For Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international importance

For Mains Examination: GS III - Indian Government Budget 2024-25

 

Context:

The Gender Budget Statement consistently reported an average share of 5% of the total budgetary allocations, with marginal ups and downs. This year is special as the share of allocations to pro-women schemes stands at approximately 6.8% of the total budget expenditure for 2024-25

Read about:

What is Gender budget statement?

What is Key highlights of the Budget 2024-25

 

Key takeaways:

Women-led development has been a central focus in this year's Budget announcements by the Finance Minister (FM). This dedication to empowering women is evident in the budgetary allocations to women-centric programs, as outlined in the Gender Budget Statement (GBS). Notably, the Gender Budget has, for the first time, reached 1% of GDP estimates for 2024-25, with total allocations exceeding ₹3 lakh crore for these programs.

Reasons for the Increase

Since its introduction in 2005-06, the GBS has typically reflected an average of 5% of total budgetary allocations, with minor fluctuations. However, this year stands out as the allocation for women-focused schemes has risen to about 6.8% of the total budget for 2024-25, marking a significant and positive shift from the norm.

The rise in Gender Budget allocations can be attributed to two main factors. One is the introduction of Part ‘C’ in the GBS, which includes programs with less than 30% allocation for women. For example, the PM Kisan scheme in the agriculture sector has been included in Part C with an allocation of ₹15,000 crore, accounting for 25% of the program's total budget. The second factor is the increase in Part A of the GBS, which reports expenditures in schemes with 100% allocation for women.

Previously, Part A constituted 15-17% of the overall GBS allocations until the BE 2022-23. Since BE 2023-24, there has been a significant rise in Part A allocations, boosting the share of women-centric schemes with full allocations to nearly 40%. This change largely resulted from reclassifying the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (PMAY)—both rural and urban—from Part B to Part A. Part B covers programs with 30-99% allocation for women, and previously, only a portion of PMAY was reported there. Starting last year, the entire ₹80,670 crore allocation for PMAY in 2024-25BE has been included under Part A, thus increasing the overall allocations. However, this may not be entirely accurate, as not all beneficiaries of PMAY are women.

Instances of Over-Reporting and Under-Reporting

Over-reporting can be seen in cases like the PM Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP), which supports entrepreneurs in establishing micro-businesses in the non-farm sector. The GBS reported ₹920 crore, or 40% of the total PMEGP allocation, without any explanation for this figure.

Conversely, under-reporting can undervalue the amount spent on women's needs. For instance, this year, the entire allocation for the National Rural Livelihoods Mission (NRLM) is correctly reflected in Part A of the GBS, showing that 100% of its outlay is dedicated to women and girls—a move that should have been made earlier. In 2023-24BE, only 50% of the scheme’s total outlay was reflected in Part B. Although the GBS accurately reported increased allocations for the Ministry of Electronics & IT this year, it overlooked the inclusion of pro-women allocations in schemes for women entrepreneurs such as PM Vishwakarma, SVANidhi, and Stand-Up India.

In another example, the Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme (MGNREGS), which has the third-highest allocation among schemes for women in the GBS, is listed under Part B with ₹28,888.67 crore, representing 33.6% of its total outlay. It’s important to note that women accounted for 59.3% of all person-days under MGNREGA as of December 2023, and they should have received a proportionate share of the MGNREGA budget, yet only 33.6% is reflected in the GBS.

What Comes Next?

These discrepancies can be minimized by providing explanations for the entries in the GBS. Doing so would not only improve accounting accuracy but also facilitate gender audits and enhance gender outcomes in government programs. The inclusion of a third part in the GBS reflects years of expert advocacy for better reporting, but the anomalies indicate that the GBS still lacks a systematic and scientific approach.

While there are clear efforts to reduce misreporting and improve the quality of the GBS, there is still a long way to go. Including rationales for the reported allocations is crucial to ensure that detailed reporting is not just about increasing the reported amounts for women’s development. It should guarantee that actual spending on women is effective across all government programs, which should be carefully planned and designed to meet women’s needs from the outset. Gender-responsive budgeting remains a powerful tool to address gender disparities in the economy

 

Follow Up Question

1.With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the House whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc., conferred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation? (UPSC 2018)
A. Committee on Government Assurances
B. Committee on Subordinate Legislation
C. Rules Committee
D. Business Advisory Committee
 
Answer (B)
 

The Committee on Subordinate Legislation is a Parliamentary Committee in India that is specifically tasked with examining whether the powers delegated by Parliament to the Executive to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc., are being properly exercised.

This committee scrutinizes all such delegated legislation to ensure that:

  • The executive does not exceed the scope of the authority delegated to it by Parliament.
  • The rules and regulations made by the Executive are consistent with the objectives of the parent law.
  • The delegated legislation does not infringe upon the rights of citizens or the jurisdiction of the legislature.

The committee then reports its findings to the House, recommending corrective actions if necessary. This ensures that the Executive remains accountable to Parliament in the exercise of its delegated powers

 

In signal to China, Modi says Quad ‘not against anyone but we are here to stay’

For Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international importance

For Mains Examination: GS II - International organisation & International Organisation

Context:

Underlining that leaders of the Quad grouping — India, US, Japan, and Australia — were meeting amid global “tensions and conflicts”, Prime Minister Narendra Modi said that they “are not against anyone”, and all of them “support a rules-based international order, respect for sovereignty and territorial integrity, and the peaceful resolution of all issues”

 

Read about:

What is QUAD?

What is QUAD +?

Key takeaways:

The QUAD, or Quadrilateral Security Dialogue, is a strategic partnership involving four nations: the United States, India, Japan, and Australia. It was established to promote a free, open, and inclusive Indo-Pacific region, countering growing regional challenges, particularly from China's expanding influence. Initially proposed in 2007, the group became more active around 2017 with a focus on cooperation in areas such as:

  • Maritime Security: Ensuring the stability and security of the Indo-Pacific maritime routes, which are crucial for global trade.

  • Defense and Military Cooperation: Conducting joint military exercises like the Malabar Exercise to enhance interoperability and collective security.

  • Economic and Infrastructure Development: Collaborating on infrastructure projects and sustainable development initiatives in the Indo-Pacific region to offer alternatives to China's Belt and Road Initiative.

  • Technology and Supply Chains: Focusing on resilient supply chains for essential technologies such as semiconductors, and 5G, and on combating cyber threats.

  • Global Challenges: Addressing common global concerns such as climate change, COVID-19 pandemic response, disaster relief, and space cooperation

 

Follow Up Question

1.Which of the following statements about the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QUAD) is/are correct?

  1. QUAD is a formal military alliance between the United States, India, Japan, and Australia.
  2. The primary objective of QUAD is to promote a free, open, and inclusive Indo-Pacific region.
  3. QUAD was established in 2007 and became more active after 2017.

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

a) 1 and 2 only
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only
d) 1, 2, and 3

Answer (b)
 
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: QUAD is not a formal military alliance; it is a strategic partnership focusing on multiple areas, including security, but without formal military commitments.
  • Statement 2 is correct: The main goal of QUAD is to ensure a free, open, and inclusive Indo-Pacific region.
  • Statement 3 is correct: QUAD was initially proposed in 2007, and its activities became more prominent after 2017
 
 
For Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international importance
 
For Mains Examination: GS II - International Relations and Important events
 
Context:
Vietnam and the Philippines are both at odds with China over its sweeping territorial claims and growing military presence in the South China Sea
 
Read about:
 
What is South China Sea Dispute?
 
What is the dispute between the Philippines and China over the South China Sea?
 
Key takeaways:
 
  • At the end of August, Vietnam and the Philippines agreed to strengthen their defense ties and enhance cooperation on maritime security. This development followed a meeting between Vietnam's Defense Minister, Phan Van Giang, and his Philippine counterpart, Gilberto Teodoro, in Manila.
  • The two officials signed "letters of intent" to improve maritime operations and disaster response coordination. This agreement comes in the context of heightened tensions between the Philippines and China over territorial disputes in the South China Sea.
  • The South China Sea dispute centers on Beijing's claim to almost the entire region, which sees over $3 trillion in trade flow annually and is believed to hold significant oil, gas, and fish resources.
  • Other countries, including Vietnam, Brunei, Malaysia, the Philippines, and Taiwan, challenge China's claims. In 2016, the Permanent Court of Arbitration ruled against China’s broad claims, though Beijing dismissed the ruling.
  • Tensions have escalated between China and the Philippines over contested shoals in the South China Sea, with both nations accusing each other of deliberately ramming coast guard ships in recent confrontations, including a violent incident in June where a Filipino sailor was injured.
  • These clashes have hindered efforts by both countries to restore trust and improve maritime dispute management through new communication channels.
  • In this tense environment, the United States has reiterated its commitment to defending the Philippines in the South China Sea under a 1951 mutual defense treaty.
  • The agreement with Vietnam is also notable for the Philippines, as China has been working to divide ASEAN.
  • According to Abuza, the only viable way forward for Southeast Asian claimants is through small-scale cooperation based on shared interests, as China prefers dealing with each country individually to avoid a multilateral approach
 
Follow Up Question
 
1.Which one of the following statements best reflects the issue with Senkaku Islands, sometimes mentioned in the news? (UPSC CSE 2022)
A. It is generally believed that they are artificial islands made by a country around South China Sea.
B. China and Japan engage in maritime disputes over these islands in East China Sea.
C. A permanent American military base has been set up there to help Taiwan to increase its defence capabilities.
D. Though International Court of Justice declared them as no man's land, some South-East Asian countries claim them.
 
Answer (B)
 
The Senkaku Islands, located in the East China Sea, are the subject of a territorial dispute between China and Japan. Both nations claim sovereignty over the islands, which are believed to be rich in natural resources and hold strategic significance. The issue has led to heightened tensions between the two countries in recent years
 

India tops plastic pollution rankings, emitting a fifth of global plastic waste

For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international importance

For Mains Examination: GS III - Environment & ecology

Context:

India is now the biggest plastic polluter in the world, releasing 9.3 million tonnes (Mt) annually. This amounts to roughly one-fifth of global plastic emissions.

 

Read about:

What is a microplastic?

What is nanoparticle?

Key takeaways:

 

Microplastics refer to tiny plastic particles, usually less than 5 millimeters in diameter, that result from the breakdown of larger plastic items or are produced as small particles in products like cosmetics, clothing, and industrial processes. They are a major environmental concern due to their persistence, widespread distribution, and impact on ecosystems

Key Aspects of Microplastics:

  • Primary microplastics: These are manufactured as small particles, such as microbeads in personal care products or fibers from synthetic textiles.
  • Secondary microplastics: These originate from the degradation of larger plastic products like bottles, bags, and fishing nets due to exposure to sunlight, ocean waves, and other environmental factors
  • Marine pollution: Microplastics have been found in oceans, rivers, and even in polar regions, severely affecting marine life. Fish, birds, and marine mammals often mistake them for food, leading to ingestion and potential poisoning.
  • Soil contamination: Microplastics are also found in agricultural soils due to the use of plastic mulch and sewage sludge. This can affect soil health and potentially enter the food chain.
  • Microplastics have been found in drinking water, food, and even the air. While the full extent of their impact on human health is still under research, there are concerns about toxicity and the chemicals associated with plastics entering the human body
  • Some countries have introduced bans on products containing microplastics, such as microbeads in cosmetics.
  • International efforts are underway to reduce plastic pollution, including commitments to reduce single-use plastics and improve waste management systems
 
Nanoparticles 
 
Nanoparticles are tiny particles that measure between 1 and 100 nanometers in size. Due to their small size and large surface area, nanoparticles exhibit unique physical and chemical properties, making them useful in various fields such as medicine, electronics, energy, and environmental science. However, their widespread use also raises concerns about environmental and health risks.
 

Types of Nanoparticles:

  • Natural nanoparticles: These occur naturally in the environment, such as volcanic ash, ocean spray, and combustion by-products.
  • Engineered nanoparticles: These are intentionally designed and manufactured for specific applications, including in medicine, electronics, and cosmetics. Examples include carbon nanotubes, gold nanoparticles, and titanium dioxide nanoparticles.
  • Incidental nanoparticles: These are by-products of industrial processes, such as those produced during fuel combustion or manufacturing

Environmental and Health Concerns:

  • Toxicity: Due to their small size, nanoparticles can easily enter living organisms and tissues, potentially causing harm. Some nanoparticles may induce oxidative stress, inflammation, or other toxic effects in humans, animals, and plants.
  • Environmental impact: Nanoparticles can accumulate in ecosystems, leading to unknown long-term environmental consequences. Their persistence and behavior in soil, water, and air need more research to understand their full ecological impact.
  • Regulation: There is a need for strict regulation of the use and disposal of nanoparticles to mitigate potential risks. Governments and international organizations are still working on standard guidelines for nanoparticle safety
 
Follow Up Question
 
1.Consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE 2022)
 
1. Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature.
2. Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics.
3. Nanoparticles of same commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 Only
B. 3 Only
C. 1 and 2
D. 2 and 3
 
Answer (D)
 
  • Statement 1: Other than those made by humans, nanoparticles do not exist in nature – This statement is incorrect. Nanoparticles occur naturally in the environment, such as volcanic ash, ocean spray, and even in biological processes.

  • Statement 2: Nanoparticles of some metallic oxides are used in the manufacture of some cosmetics – This statement is correct. Nanoparticles like titanium dioxide (TiOâ‚‚) and zinc oxide (ZnO) are commonly used in sunscreens and other cosmetics for their UV-blocking properties.

  • Statement 3: Nanoparticles of some commercial products which enter the environment are unsafe for humans – This statement is correct. There are concerns about the safety of nanoparticles in the environment, as they can be toxic to humans and ecosystems depending on their composition and exposure levels. Some nanoparticles can cause oxidative stress, inflammation, and other health issues

 
 
 
Subject and Subject Wise Notes for the Sunday Exam (Free)
 
Subject Topic Description
History Modern Indian History Company rule and Crown rule 1773 - 1947
History  Modern Indian History Fall of Mughals
History Modern Indian History Establishment of British rule in India
History Modern Indian History Economic Policies of the British
 

 

UPSC EXAM NOTES will be conducting both Prelims and Mains exams every Sunday as part of the Integrated Mains and Prelims (IMPM) Program. This program provides a comprehensive approach to UPSC exam preparation, ensuring that candidates are well-prepared for both stages of the exam.

Program Highlights:

  • Daily Study Keys: Each day, we will provide keys that outline what to read, focusing on the most relevant topics and current affairs.
  • Subject Notes: In addition to daily keys, we will supply detailed subject notes to help you build a strong foundation in all necessary areas.
  • Sunday Exams: Every Sunday, a combined exam will be held, encompassing the daily keys' content and subject notes, along with a culmination of current affairs from various sources. These exams will cover both Prelims and Mains syllabi.
  • Format: Exams will be available in both online and offline formats to cater to different preferences and situations.

Duration: The IMPM plan is a one-year program, ensuring continuous and structured preparation over 12 months. With regular testing and consistent study guidance, this program is designed to maximize your chances of success in the UPSC exams

 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 

Share to Social