INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) KEY (20/02/2025)

INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) 2025 Daily KEY

 
 
 
 
Exclusive for Subscribers Daily: Earthquake in Delhi and Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) for the UPSC Exam? Why are topics like Mission Shakti and Lok Adalat and Chief Election Commissioner , Global Warming important for both preliminary and main exams? Discover more insights in the UPSC Exam Notes for February 20, 2025

 

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Critical Topics and Their Significance for the UPSC CSE Examination on February 20, 2025

Daily Insights and Initiatives for UPSC Exam Notes: Comprehensive explanations and high-quality material provided regularly for students

 

On building resilient telecom infrastructure

For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international importance

For Mains Examination: GS III - Disaster Management

Context:

The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI), a multilateral organisation launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in 2019, put out a report earlier this month studying Indian telecom networks’ preparedness in the event of disasters. The report suggests ways in which State governments can better prepare for calamities that may impact telecom networks

 

Read about:

 International Conference on Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (ICDRI)

What is the International Solar Alliance (ISA)?

 

Key takeaways:

 

  • The Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI), a multilateral organization established by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in 2019, recently released a report assessing the preparedness of India’s telecom networks in disaster scenarios.
  • The report outlines strategies for State governments to strengthen their response to calamities that could impact telecom infrastructure.
  • Telecom networks play a vital role in disaster management by enabling swift communication between the State and National Disaster Management Authorities, local municipalities, and different levels of government—an essential factor in protecting lives and property.
  • However, these networks are particularly vulnerable due to above-ground cabling, towers that may not withstand extreme wind speeds, and their dependence on an uninterrupted power supply, which is often disrupted by disasters like cyclones and earthquakes.
  • Coastal regions face additional risks, as they serve as landing points for undersea cables connecting India to the global internet. If these landing stations are damaged, major network disruptions can occur as telecom operators struggle to reroute traffic.
  • Repairing undersea cables is a time-intensive process, requiring specialized vessels to reach the affected areas and reconnect the severed cables. However, since power failures are a primary cause of disruptions, maintaining or restoring electricity to telecom towers and network operating centers can significantly enhance resilience.
  • Most telecom operators do not assume round-the-clock power availability—except potentially in Mumbai—and instead rely on battery and fuel backups.
  • To build a more resilient telecom network, the CDRI report suggests several measures, including improved data collection, better coordination among officials, and the strengthening of power infrastructure—an area of significant focus for CDRI.
  • It also recommends designing telecom towers to withstand stronger winds, particularly in coastal areas prone to hurricanes.
  • Additionally, the report advocates for a "dig-once" policy, which encourages the simultaneous construction of underground utilities such as water and gas pipelines, drainage systems, and fiber optic cables to minimize the risk of damage during future infrastructure projects. Pre-existing damage to underground cables can further exacerbate network failures when other components of the system collapse.
  • Enhancing telecom resilience requires both large-scale structural improvements and smaller, cost-effective interventions that can have a significant impact. For example, during heavy rains, diesel generators can fail even in knee-deep flooding.
  • A simple yet effective solution is installing these generators at a higher elevation on telecom towers, ensuring backup power remains functional even in flood conditions
 
Follow Up Question
 
1.Select the correct statement about Sendai Framework. (MPSC 2019)
(a) This framework was passed by United Nations Organisation's conference at Sendai (Japan) on 18th March 2015.
(b) This framework is regarding measures for Disaster Risk Reduction.
(c) This is an onward step of the Hyogo Framework about disaster management.
(d) The provisions in this framework are binding on member countries.
A. (a), (b) statements are correct.
B. (b), (c) statements are correct.
C. (a), (b), (c) statements are correct.
D. All of the above statements are correct.

 

Answer (C)
 
  • (a) Correct – The Sendai Framework was adopted at the Third UN World Conference on Disaster Risk Reduction (WCDRR) in Sendai, Japan, on 18th March 2015.
  • (b) Correct – It is a framework focused on Disaster Risk Reduction (DRR), aiming to reduce disaster risks and losses in lives, livelihoods, and health.
  • (c) Correct – The Sendai Framework (2015-2030) succeeds the Hyogo Framework for Action (2005-2015), making it an onward step in global disaster risk management.
  • (d) Incorrect – The provisions of the Sendai Framework are not legally binding on member countries. It is a voluntary, non-binding agreement that encourages nations to integrate disaster risk reduction into their policies

 

What is the importance of Nari Adalats under Mission Shakti?

For Preliminary Examination: Mission Shakti, Shiv Shakti

For Mains Examination: GS II - Indian Polity & Governance

Context:

Recently, the Women and Child Development Minister Annpurna Devi has informed that the government has written to states inviting proposals to establish ‘Nari Adalats’. The ministry intends to extend the scheme, already running on a pilot basis in Assam and J&K, to other states, said the minister

Read about:

Mission Shakti, Nari Adalat

Lok Adalat

 

Key takeaways:

 

The Nari Adalat scheme, introduced by the Ministry of Women and Child Development (WCD), focuses on resolving women's grievances at the gram panchayat level through community-led interventions. Under this initiative, groups of women work towards ensuring justice for those whose rights have been denied. The Nari Adalat consists of approximately seven to eleven members, known as ‘nyaya sakhis,’ who are selected by the gram panchayat.

Initially launched as a pilot project in 2023, the scheme has been implemented in 50 gram panchayats each in Jammu & Kashmir and Assam. To support its execution, the WCD Ministry allocated over ₹20 lakh to each state during the 2023-24 financial year. By December 2024, Nari Adalats had convened 1,062 meetings, addressing 497 registered cases.

Nari Adalat operates as a component of Mission Shakti, a comprehensive initiative designed by the WCD Ministry for women’s safety, security, and empowerment during the 15th Finance Commission period (2021-22 to 2025-26). The Mission Shakti framework is divided into two key verticals:

  1. Sambal, which focuses on safety and security.
  2. Samarthya, which emphasizes empowerment.

As per the ministry’s official website, Mission Shakti aims to provide holistic development and empowerment for all women and girls, including those from marginalized and vulnerable backgrounds. This includes individuals who are differently-abled, socially and economically disadvantaged, or in need of care and protection. The initiative offers both short-term and long-term services, along with vital information to support women’s overall well-being.

Nari Adalat also serves as a local-level Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) mechanism, providing an efficient, community-driven approach to resolving disputes. ADR refers to a set of methods such as arbitration, mediation, and conciliation, which offer quicker and more effective solutions compared to traditional litigation. Given that court proceedings are often lengthy and result in delayed justice, ADR methods provide a less adversarial and more accessible alternative, ensuring timely dispute resolution while fostering a more inclusive justice system

 

Lok Adalat

 

  • Lok Adalats serve as an alternative dispute resolution mechanism aimed at facilitating the amicable settlement of cases. These forums provide litigants with swift justice at minimal cost. According to the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987, the decisions rendered by Lok Adalats are legally binding and cannot be appealed.
  • As per the National Legal Services Authority (NALSA), awards granted by Lok Adalats hold the same legal weight as a civil court decree, making them final and enforceable. While there is no provision for an appeal, dissatisfied parties retain the right to pursue fresh litigation by filing a case in an appropriate court following due legal procedures.
  • One of the key benefits of approaching a Lok Adalat is that no court fee is required. If a case that was initially filed in a regular court is later referred to a Lok Adalat and successfully settled, the original court fee is refunded to the parties involved.
  • In 2023, while marking 75 years of the Supreme Court of India, a week-long special Lok Adalat was organized. Chief Justice D.Y. Chandrachud emphasized that Lok Adalats offer an informal, technology-driven, voluntary, and consensual platform for dispute resolution.
  • Lok Adalats primarily handle cases where a settlement is possible, including disputes related to matrimony, property, motor accident claims, land acquisition, compensation, service matters, and labor issues.
  • The Supreme Court has highlighted that Lok Adalats form a crucial part of India’s judicial system, reinforcing alternative dispute resolution mechanisms to promote speedy and harmonious settlements
 
Follow Up Question
 

1.Which of the following statements regarding Lok Adalats in India is/are correct?

  1. Lok Adalats function as an alternative dispute resolution mechanism and their decisions are legally binding as per the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
  2. There is no provision for an appeal against the award of a Lok Adalat, but dissatisfied parties can initiate fresh litigation by filing a case in an appropriate court.
  3. Court fees must be paid when filing a case in a Lok Adalat, and refunds are not applicable even if the case is settled.
  4. Lok Adalats primarily handle cases related to matrimonial disputes, property disputes, motor accident claims, and labor matters.

Select the correct answer using the code below:
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 1, 2, and 4 only
C) 2 and 3 only
D) 1, 2, 3, and 4

Answer (B)
 
  • Statement 1 is correct: Lok Adalats are an alternative dispute resolution forum whose decisions are legally binding as per the Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987.
  • Statement 2 is correct: There is no appeal provision against a Lok Adalat’s award, but dissatisfied parties can file a fresh case in a court of appropriate jurisdiction.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: No court fee is required for filing a case in a Lok Adalat, and if a pending case is settled in Lok Adalat, the original court fee is refunded.
  • Statement 4 is correct: Lok Adalats commonly resolve matrimonial, property, motor accident, land acquisition, compensation, service, and labor disputes
 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international importance
 
For Mains Examination: GS II - Indian Polity & Governance
 
Context:
 Prime Minister Narendra Modi, Home Minister Amit Shah and Leader of Opposition Rahul Gandhi met Monday evening (February 17) to appoint former IAS officer Gyanesh Kumar as the new Chief Election Commissioner of India. Kumar succeeded Rajiv Kumar, who retired on Tuesday.
 
Read about:
 
What is the new selection process for the Chief Election Commissioner?
 
How were the Election Commissioners appointed earlier?
 
 
Key takeaways:
 
 
  • The Election Commission (EC) consists of three members: a Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and two Election Commissioners. While all three hold equal authority, the CEC is considered the "first among equals," similar to the Chief Justice of India.

  • Previously, there was no specific legislation enacted by Parliament for appointing the CEC and ECs. Instead, the President made these appointments based on the Prime Minister’s recommendation. Traditionally, the senior-most Election Commissioner was chosen as the next CEC, with seniority typically determined by the order of their appointment to the Commission.

  • For example, when Rajiv Kumar served as CEC, Gyanesh Kumar and Sukhbir Singh Sandhu held positions as Election Commissioners. Both were appointed on March 14, 2024, and belonged to the IAS batch of 1988. The question of seniority arose, but sources from the government and the Commission indicated that Gyanesh Kumar was considered senior because his name was listed first in the appointment notification issued by the Union Law and Justice Ministry. Under the previous system, the President would have appointed him as the next CEC after Rajiv Kumar’s tenure. However, the process has changed with new regulations.

  • The appointment of the latest CEC followed the Chief Election Commissioner And Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service And Term of Office) Act, 2023. This law specifies the selection process for both the CEC and ECs.

  • According to the Act, a search committee led by the Law Minister (currently Arjun Ram Meghwal) and two senior bureaucrats from the central government prepares a list of five potential candidates. This list is then reviewed by a Selection Committee comprising the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition, and a Cabinet Minister chosen by the PM

 

Evolution of the Appointment Process of the Chief Election Commissioner in India

The appointment of the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) in India has undergone significant changes over time. Initially, the process was largely based on executive discretion, but legislative reforms and judicial interventions have gradually introduced more structured mechanisms to ensure transparency and independence.

1. Initial Phase (1950-1991): Executive Discretion

  • When the Election Commission was established in 1950 under Article 324 of the Constitution, the appointment of the CEC was solely at the discretion of the President, who acted on the advice of the Prime Minister.
  • No formal law or structured process governed the selection, and traditionally, the senior-most Election Commissioner (if any) was elevated to the position of CEC.
  • The Election Commission was initially a single-member body with only a Chief Election Commissioner until 1989.

2. Expansion and Institutionalization (1991-2000)

  • In 1989, the V.P. Singh government introduced two additional Election Commissioners, making the EC a three-member body. However, this decision was reversed in 1990 by the Chandrasekhar government.
  • In 1993, under Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao, the three-member format was restored permanently. The CEC was to function alongside two Election Commissioners, ensuring a more collective decision-making process.
  • Despite these structural changes, the appointment process remained largely the same, with the Prime Minister advising the President.

3. Supreme Court's Role in Strengthening the Process

  • Over the years, concerns were raised about the excessive influence of the executive in appointing the CEC, potentially compromising the Election Commission’s independence.
  • In 2015, the Supreme Court recommended establishing a collegium system for appointments, similar to that used for selecting judges. However, no immediate legislative action followed.
  • In March 2023, the Supreme Court ruled that the appointment of the CEC and ECs should be made by a panel comprising the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition, and the Chief Justice of India. This decision aimed to reduce executive control and enhance impartiality.

4. The Chief Election Commissioner and Other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act, 2023

  • To override the Supreme Court’s 2023 ruling, the government introduced and passed a new law in December 2023, which altered the selection process.
  • The Act established a structured two-step appointment process:
    1. A search committee led by the Law Minister and two senior bureaucrats prepares a shortlist of five candidates.
    2. A selection committee—comprising the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition, and a Cabinet Minister (instead of the Chief Justice of India)—finalizes the appointment.
  • Critics argue that this law restores executive dominance in the selection process, reducing the checks and balances introduced by the judiciary
 
Follow Up Question
 
1.Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2017)
1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 only
 
Answer (D)
 
  • The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.

    • Incorrect. The Election Commission of India (ECI) is a three-member body, consisting of one Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and two Election Commissioners (ECs).
  • Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.

    • Incorrect. The Election Commission of India (ECI), an independent constitutional body, is responsible for deciding the election schedule, not the Ministry of Home Affairs.
  • Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.

    • Correct. Under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, the Election Commission adjudicates disputes related to the recognition of political parties, including splits and mergers.

Correct Answer:

✅ D. 3 only

 
 
For Preliminary Examination:  Global Warming, Greenhouse effect
 
For Mains Examination: GS III - Environment & Ecology
 
Context:
 

Global warming has reached Greenland, with a new study showing that remote high elevations of its ice sheet are facing the warmest decade in the last thousand years.

 

Read about:

Greenhouse effect

Global Warming

 

Key takeaways

 

  • Global warming has made its way to Greenland, with a recent study revealing that the remote high-altitude areas of its ice sheet have experienced the warmest decade in the past thousand years. According to research published in the journal Nature, the period from 2001 to 2011 was 1.5 degrees Celsius warmer than the 20th-century average.
  • An ice sheet is a vast expanse of glacial ice covering more than 50,000 square kilometers. These sheets hold approximately 99% of the Earth's freshwater and are sometimes referred to as continental glaciers, as noted by National Geographic.
  • Currently, only two ice sheets exist on Earth—the Antarctic ice sheet and the Greenland ice sheet. Like other glaciers, ice sheets develop through the accumulation of snow over time.
  • As layers of snow build up and undergo partial melting, they compact and harden. Data from NASA satellites indicate that both the Antarctic and Greenland ice sheets have been losing mass since 2002.
  • This ice loss is primarily caused by rising temperatures on the Earth's surface and in the oceans. According to NASA, meltwater from these ice sheets has contributed to approximately one-third of the global average sea level rise since 1993.
  • Due to its vast size, its role in reflecting solar radiation, and its ability to store freshwater, the Greenland ice sheet plays a crucial role in the global climate system.
  • However, the impact of global warming on its central region remains uncertain due to the lack of long-term observational data. Instrument-based air temperature records are often too short to capture significant trends, and while climate models can estimate long-term changes, they tend to struggle with accurately reflecting regional climate variations.
  • To better understand Greenland’s past climate, researchers from the Alfred Wegener Institute drilled into the ice sheet to analyze historical climate conditions. The deeper they drilled, the more evidence they found of how past environmental temperatures influenced the ice.
  • According to AntarcticGlaciers.org, a knowledge-sharing platform by the University of Cambridge, ice sheets provide a window into the past by preserving records of snowfall, air temperature, and atmospheric composition. By analyzing greenhouse gas concentrations in ice core layers, scientists can compare modern levels of carbon dioxide and methane to historical values and assess their relationship with temperature changes.
  • An ice core is a cylindrical sample extracted from an ice sheet or high-altitude glacier. The study highlighted that the ice cores retrieved by the Alfred Wegener Institute researchers were of exceptional length and quality.
  • Their analysis allowed them to reconstruct temperature patterns and melting rates in central and northern Greenland from the year 1000 AD up to 2011 with remarkable precision
 
Follow Up Question
 
1.In the context of mitigating the impending global warming due to anthropogenic emissions of carbon dioxide, which of the following can be the potential sites for carbon sequestration? (UPSC 2017)
1. Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams
2. Depleted oil and gas reservoirs
3. Subterranean deep saline formations
Select the correct answer using the code given below: 
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2, and 3 only
 
Answer (D)
 

Carbon sequestration refers to the process of capturing and storing atmospheric carbon dioxide (COâ‚‚) to mitigate global warming. Several geological formations can serve as potential sites for long-term carbon storage.

  • Abandoned and uneconomic coal seams – ✅ Correct

    • Deep, unmineable coal seams can be used for COâ‚‚ sequestration because COâ‚‚ can be injected and adsorbed onto the coal surface, effectively trapping it underground.
    • Some methods also involve enhanced coalbed methane recovery, where injecting COâ‚‚ helps release methane, which can be utilized as fuel.
  • Depleted oil and gas reservoirs – ✅ Correct

    • These reservoirs have proven capacity to store gases for millions of years, making them ideal sites for carbon sequestration.
    • COâ‚‚ injection into depleted reservoirs can also aid in enhanced oil recovery (EOR), improving oil extraction efficiency.
  • Subterranean deep saline formations – ✅ Correct

    • Deep saline aquifers are among the most promising sites for long-term COâ‚‚ storage because they are vast and widespread.
    • Injected COâ‚‚ dissolves into the saline water or reacts with minerals to form stable carbonates, preventing leakage
 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international importance
 
For Mains Examination: GS III - Environment & Ecology
 
Context:
The National Green Tribunal Wednesday rapped the Uttar Pradesh Pollution Control Board (UPPCB) and the Uttar Pradesh government for not submitting adequate details on faecal coliform and other water quality parameters, such as oxygen levels, in the river Ganga in Prayagraj.
 
Read about:
 
Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
 
National green Table (NGT)
 
Key takeaways:
 

The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has expressed concern over elevated levels of faecal bacteria in the Ganga at Prayagraj, based on findings from a report submitted by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB).

The report, dated February 3, highlights a significant increase in faecal coliform bacteria during the Maha Kumbh Mela. According to the CPCB’s observations:

  • Water quality in the river did not meet the required standards for bathing in terms of biochemical oxygen demand (BOD) during tests conducted on January 12-13.
  • At multiple monitoring sites, the water also failed to meet the primary quality standards for bathing due to excessive levels of faecal coliform bacteria.

The report attributes the surge in bacterial contamination to the large number of devotees bathing in the Ganga during the Maha Kumbh, particularly on auspicious days. Although sewage treatment plants (STPs) in the region were functioning, pollution levels spiked during Shahi Snans and other major rituals.

A tribunal bench, led by Justice Prakash Shrivastava, former Chief Justice of the Calcutta High Court, examined the findings and summoned officials from the Uttar Pradesh Pollution Control Board (UPPCB) to appear virtually on Wednesday. These officials are expected to outline the actions taken to address the worsening pollution.

Earlier, the tribunal had instructed the UPPCB to provide a detailed compliance report. However, the board only submitted water test results confirming high faecal contamination. Consequently, the NGT has granted additional time for a more comprehensive report and directed key officials to attend the next hearing scheduled for February 19

 

Follow Up Question

1.How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)? (UPSC 2018)
1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by the executive order of the Government.
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
 
Answer (B)
 
  • The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by the executive order of the Government.

    • ❌ Incorrect. The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010, making it a statutory body.
    • However, the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) was not created by an executive order; rather, it was established under the Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974, making it a statutory body as well.
    • Since both are statutory bodies, statement 1 is incorrect.
  • The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts, whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.

    • ✅ Correct. The NGT is a specialized judicial body that adjudicates environmental disputes, ensuring quick resolution of cases and reducing the caseload of higher courts.
    • The CPCB, on the other hand, is a regulatory body responsible for monitoring pollution levels, enforcing environmental laws, and improving water and air quality across the country.
    • Since this distinction is accurate, statement 2 is correct
 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international importance
 
For Mains Examination: GS I - Geography
 
Context:
 
Early on February 17, 2025 , an earthquake jolted the people of Delhi out of their beds and homes. The tremor was accompanied by a booming sound, adding to fear and panic. However, the earthquake registered only a magnitude of 4.3, surprising many who claimed they had never felt such a strong jolt before.
 
Read about:
 
P-Wave
 
S- Wave
 
Key takeaways:
 
 

The 4.3-magnitude earthquake that struck Delhi felt particularly strong due to two key factors: its epicenter and its depth.

The epicenter was located within Delhi, specifically in Dwarka, which contributed to the intensity of the tremors. Additionally, the quake was shallow, occurring just 5 kilometers beneath the surface. Since shallow earthquakes have less depth for seismic waves to travel before reaching the surface, they tend to produce stronger and more noticeable shaking.

Why Did the Earthquake Occur?

Delhi is prone to shallow earthquakes, typically occurring at depths between 0 and 70 km. Two major factors could have triggered this recent tremor:

  • Delhi’s High Seismic Risk

    • Delhi lies in Seismic Zone 4, where moderate earthquakes (magnitude 5 to 6) are relatively common.
    • The region’s seismic activity is driven by the collision of the Indian and Eurasian tectonic plates, which has been ongoing for over 50 million years. This movement builds up stress that is released periodically through earthquakes.
  • Impact of Groundwater Extraction

    • Studies suggest that pumping out groundwater can contribute to earthquakes by reducing pressure in underlying rock layers.
    • Research has linked Delhi’s seismic activity to human activities like urbanization and irrigation, which alter local aquifers.
    • A 2020 study in Scientific Reports found that earthquakes in Delhi follow a pattern that aligns with seasonal and long-term variations in groundwater levels.

Historical Context & Global Comparisons

Delhi has experienced moderate earthquakes in the past, including those in 1720, 1831, 1956, and 1960, along with multiple smaller tremors. A 2021 study revealed that most of these quakes occurred within the upper 25 km of the Earth’s crust, categorizing them as shallow earthquakes.

The connection between groundwater depletion and earthquakes has been observed globally. Notable examples include:

  • Dead Sea Fault (2013 & 2018): Earthquake swarms were linked to groundwater withdrawal.
  • Morocco (2023): A 6.8-magnitude earthquake in the High Atlas Mountains was associated with groundwater extraction.
 
Follow Up Question
 
1.Delhi lies in a high seismic risk zone, and factors such as tectonic movements and human activities like groundwater extraction contribute to its earthquake vulnerability. Discuss the causes, impacts, and necessary mitigation measures to enhance earthquake resilience in urban areas." (250 words, 15 marks)
 
 
Subject and Subject Wise Notes for the Sunday Exam (Free)
 
Subject Topic Description
Polity Fundamental Duties Fundamental Duties
Environment & Ecology Biodiversity in India Biodiversity
History Modern Indian History Constitutional Development in India
History Modern Indian History Peasants, Tribal and other movements
 

 

UPSC EXAM NOTES will be conducting both Prelims and Mains exams every Sunday as part of the Integrated Mains and Prelims (IMPM) Program. This program provides a comprehensive approach to UPSC exam preparation, ensuring that candidates are well-prepared for both stages of the exam.

Program Highlights:

  • Daily Study Keys: Each day, we will provide keys that outline what to read, focusing on the most relevant topics and current affairs.
  • Subject Notes: In addition to daily keys, we will supply detailed subject notes to help you build a strong foundation in all necessary areas.
  • Sunday Exams: Every Sunday, a combined exam will be held, encompassing the daily keys' content and subject notes, along with a culmination of current affairs from various sources. These exams will cover both Prelims and Mains syllabi.
  • Format: Exams will be available in both online and offline formats to cater to different preferences and situations.

Duration: The IMPM plan is a one-year program, ensuring continuous and structured preparation over 12 months. With regular testing and consistent study guidance, this program is designed to maximize your chances of success in the UPSC exams

 
Previous IMPM Keys
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 

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