INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) KEY (21/03/2025)

INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) 2025 Daily KEY

 
 
 
 
Exclusive for Subscribers Daily: Sub Categorisation of SC's and BioE3 scheme and its significance for the UPSC Exam? Why are topics like Central Consumer Protection Authority , Current Account Deficit (CAD) important for both preliminary and main exams? Discover more insights in the UPSC Exam Notes for March 21, 2025

 

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Critical Topics and Their Significance for the UPSC CSE Examination on March 21, 2025

Daily Insights and Initiatives for UPSC Exam Notes: Comprehensive explanations and high-quality material provided regularly for students

 

 
 
For Preliminary Examination:   Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, Sub Categorisation of Scheduled Castes
 
For Mains Examination: GS II - Indian Polity
 
Context:
 
The Andhra Pradesh Legislative Assembly on Thursday approved the report of the Commission on Sub-Classification of Scheduled Castes headed by Rajiv Ranjan Mishra, a retired IAS officer.
 
Read about:
 
What is sub Categorisation within castes?
 
What is subcategory of Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes (STs)?
 
Key takeaways:
 
  • In 1975, the Punjab government issued a notification dividing its 25% Scheduled Caste (SC) reservation into two distinct categories. The first category exclusively reserved seats for the Balmiki and Mazhbi Sikh communities, as they were considered among the most economically and educationally disadvantaged groups in the state. These communities were given priority access to reservations in education and public employment.

  • The second category comprised the remaining SC communities, who did not receive this preferential treatment. This was one of the earliest instances of sub-classification within an existing reservation system, aiming to extend additional benefits to certain groups beyond the general SC category.

  • Although this policy remained in effect for nearly 30 years, it encountered legal challenges in 2004 when a five-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court invalidated a similar law in Andhra Pradesh. In the case ‘E.V. Chinnaiah v. State of Andhra Pradesh,’ the Court struck down the Andhra Pradesh Scheduled Castes (Rationalisation of Reservations) Act, 2000, ruling that it violated the right to equality. The law had outlined a comprehensive list of SC communities and allocated specific reservation benefits to each group.

  • On August 1, 2024, a seven-judge Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court, in a 6-1 majority ruling, determined that Scheduled Castes are not a socially homogeneous group and that states have the authority to sub-classify them to ensure reservations benefit the most disadvantaged communities among them.

  • As per the Bill presented by Minister Damodar Rajanarasimh, the Scheduled Caste quota will now be divided into three groups:

    • Group I will receive 1% reservation within the 15% SC quota
    • Group II will be allotted 9% reservation
    • Group III will receive 5% reservation
  • Calling it a historic moment, Telangana Chief Minister A. Revanth Reddy acknowledged the long-standing struggle for SC sub-categorization, highlighting the sacrifices made by activists in the movement. He specifically referred to the Madiga Reservation Poratta Samithi (MRPS), an organization that had actively campaigned for sub-categorization, benefiting the Madiga community, which has now been allocated 9% reservation

 
Follow Up Question
 

1.Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: (UPSC CSE 2019)

1. PVTGs reside in 18 states and one Union Territory.

2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.

3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.

4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) 1, 3 and 4

 
Answer (c)
 
  • PVTGs reside in 18 states and 1 Union TerritoryCorrect 

    • As per government records, Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) are spread across 18 states and 1 Union Territory (Andaman & Nicobar Islands).
  • A stagnant or declining population is a criterion for PVTG statusCorrect 

    • The government identifies PVTGs based on four criteria:
      • Stagnant or declining population
      • Low level of literacy
      • Pre-agricultural level of technology
      • Economic backwardness
  • There are 95 PVTGs officially notifiedIncorrect 

    • Currently, 75 groups have been officially classified as PVTGs, not 95.
  • Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the PVTG listCorrect 

    • Both Irular (Tamil Nadu) and Konda Reddi (Andhra Pradesh & Telangana) tribes are officially recognized as PVTGs
 
 

Why are electoral reforms necessary?

For Preliminary Examination:  Electronic Voting Machine (EVM), VVPAT, Election Commission of India

For Mains Examination: GS II - Indian Polity & Governance

Context:

The Election Commission (EC) has invited political parties to discuss strengthening the election process. This is in wake of the allegations of manipulation of electoral rolls during the recently concluded assembly elections and issues raised with respect to duplicate Electoral Photo Identity Card (EPIC) numbers in different States.

 

Read about:

Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT)

Electronic Voting Machines (EVM)

 

Key takeaways:

 

The Election Commission (EC) has called upon political parties to deliberate on ways to enhance the electoral system, following claims of electoral roll tampering in the recent assembly elections and concerns about duplicate Electoral Photo Identity Card (EPIC) numbers across various states.

Legal Framework


  • Under Article 324 of the Indian Constitution, the EC is entrusted with overseeing, directing, and managing the preparation of electoral rolls and the execution of elections to Parliament and state legislatures.
  • The process of compiling electoral rolls is regulated by the Representation of the People Act, 1950, along with the Registration of Electors Rules, 1960.
  • The method of voting has evolved significantly since India’s first general election in 1952. Initially, in 1952 and 1957, voters placed blank ballots into separate boxes marked with candidates’ symbols. From the third election in 1962, ballots featuring candidates’ names and symbols were introduced.
  • Since the 2004 Lok Sabha elections, Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) have been universally adopted, and since 2019, these have been supplemented by Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) slips in all constituencies.

Challenges


  • Several concerns have emerged regarding the voting and counting processes. A Public Interest Litigation (PIL) seeking a return to paper ballots was rejected by the Supreme Court in April 2024. The same PIL also requested full verification of VVPAT slips against EVM counts—currently limited to five machines per assembly segment—which the court declined.
  • However, it permitted engineers from EVM manufacturers to inspect the burnt memory of microcontrollers in 5% of EVMs per segment if tampering is suspected, upon written request from candidates finishing second or third within seven days of results being announced.
  • Additionally, accusations of electoral roll manipulation surfaced before the Maharashtra and Delhi assembly elections, with opposition parties claiming fake voters were added to favor the ruling party.
  • Another issue involves identical EPIC numbers appearing across states like West Bengal, Gujarat, Haryana, and Punjab, prompting allegations from parties like the Trinamool Congress of fraudulent voter inclusion. The EC attributed this to a previously decentralized EPIC allocation system, now replaced by the centralized ERONET platform, and emphasized that voters can only cast ballots at their designated polling stations.
  • Beyond voting issues, campaign-related problems persist. Prominent campaigners frequently use offensive language, exploit caste or communal sentiments, and level baseless accusations.
  • Candidates across major parties often exceed expenditure limits, while party spending remains unregulated. Estimates suggest political parties spent nearly ₹1,00,000 crore during the 2024 Lok Sabha elections, fostering corruption. Additionally, a 2024 report by the Association of Democratic Reforms revealed that 46% of elected MPs (251 out of 543) face criminal cases, with 31% accused of serious crimes like rape and murder.

Proposed Reforms


  • The Supreme Court has affirmed that free and fair elections are integral to the Constitution’s basic structure. To strengthen the voting and counting process, the sample size for EVM-VVPAT verification should be scientifically determined by dividing states into regions, with full VVPAT counts triggered by any discrepancy.
  • The EC’s 2016 proposal for ‘totaliser’ machines to aggregate votes from 14 EVMs could enhance voter anonymity. Candidates should also leverage the Supreme Court’s provision to verify 5% of EVMs if tampering is suspected, addressing concerns or dispelling doubts.
  • To tackle fake voters and duplicate EPIC numbers, linking Aadhaar with EPIC cards could be explored after stakeholder consultations and privacy assurances, while the EC eliminates duplicate entries nationwide.
  • In campaigns, the EC should gain authority to strip ‘Star Campaigner’ status for serious Model Code of Conduct (MCC) breaches and penalize parties under the Symbols Order.
  • Election laws should cap both candidate and party spending, treating party aid as part of candidate limits. Finally, strict enforcement of public disclosures about criminal records by candidates and parties, via newspapers and electronic media, would empower voters to make informed decisions
 
Follow Up Question
 
1.Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2017)
1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 only
Answer (D)
 
  • "The Election Commission of India is a five-member body."
    This statement is incorrect. The Election Commission of India is not fixed as a five-member body. Article 324 of the Constitution provides for the appointment of a Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and such number of other Election Commissioners as the President may determine. Historically, the ECI has functioned as a single-member body (with only the CEC) or a multi-member body. Since 1993, it has typically been a three-member body (one CEC and two Election Commissioners), but this is not a constitutional requirement mandating five members. The number can vary based on the President’s discretion.
  • "Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections."
    This statement is incorrect. The Election Commission of India, under Article 324, has the authority to superintend, direct, and control the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice-President. This includes deciding the election schedule for both general elections and bye-elections. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs has no role in determining the election schedule.
  • "Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties."
    This statement is correct. Under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968, issued under Article 324 and the Representation of the People Act, 1951, the Election Commission has the power to adjudicate disputes arising from splits or mergers of recognized political parties. The ECI determines which faction retains the party’s symbol and recognition based on factors like majority support among elected members and organizational wings
 
 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international importance
 
For Mains Examination: GS II & III - Governance & Environment and Ecology
 
Context:
 
DEVELOPING PROTEINS in the laboratory to supplement the diet in households across the country is one of the areas in which the Department of Biotechnology is looking to fund research under the government’s recently launched BioE3 initiative
 
Read about:
 
BioE3 scheme
 
Salient features of BioE3 policy
 
Key takeaways:
 
 
  • The BioE3 Policy aims to establish a structured framework to facilitate the adoption of cutting-edge technologies and align innovative research efforts to advance biomanufacturing.

  • It provides guidelines and principles to support mechanisms that drive high-performance biomanufacturing across multiple sectors in the country.

  • The policy seeks to transform biomanufacturing by enhancing efficiency, sustainability, and quality, while also accelerating the development and production of high-value bio-based products.

  • It is aligned with India’s Green Growth vision, as highlighted in the Union Budget 2023–24, and supports the Prime Minister’s Lifestyle for Environment (LiFE) initiative, which advocates for a collective approach to sustainability.

  • Additionally, the policy aligns with India’s Net-Zero carbon economy goal. The Biomanufacturing and Biofoundry initiative, introduced in the Interim Budget 2024–25, is a key step in this direction.

  • A major focus of the policy is the development of "smart proteins", designed to mimic the taste and texture of traditional protein sources while ensuring climate resilience in food production.

  • The Department of Biotechnology has invited applications for research grants aimed at developing these proteins and addressing challenges in scaling up their production. The objective is to create an ecosystem that enables safe, affordable, and efficient protein manufacturing.

  • Research will concentrate on three primary methods of protein production.

    • Fermentation-derived proteins: These are extracted from microbial sources such as algae, bacteria, and fungi, which naturally produce protein alternatives to meat. However, the key challenge is to develop cost-effective biomanufacturing techniques that ensure commercial viability.

    • To overcome this challenge, research efforts will focus on recombinant microbial system design, optimizing metabolic pathways for higher yield, employing gene editing to enhance strain productivity, and minimizing by-products.

    • Additionally, researchers will work on refining processes to eliminate allergens and toxins while exploring the use of agricultural by-products and alternative sources instead of glucose for fermentation

 
Follow Up Question
 

1.According to India's National Policy on Biofuels, which of the following can be used as raw materials for the production of biofuels? (UPSC 2020)

1. Cassava

2. Damaged wheat grains

3. Groundnut seeds

4. Horse gram

5. Rotten potatoes

6. Sugar beet

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

A. 1, 2, 5 and 6 only

B. 1, 3, 4 and 6 only

C. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only

D. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

Answer (A)
 

According to India's National Policy on Biofuels, the following can be used as raw materials for biofuel production:

Cassava (1) – A starchy crop that can be used to produce bioethanol.
Damaged wheat grains (2) – Unfit for human consumption but useful for ethanol production.
Rotten potatoes (5) – Can be used for ethanol production.
Sugar beet (6) – A rich source of sugar, making it ideal for bioethanol production.

Groundnut seeds (3) and Horse gram (4) – These are not listed as approved feedstocks for biofuel production, as they are primarily used for food and fodder rather than energy production

 

Consumer Protection Act, 2019

For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international importance

For Mains Examination: GS II -  Government Policies & Interventions, Transparency & Accountability

Context:

The District Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission, Jaipur II, has issued notices to Bollywood actors Shah Rukh Khan, Ajay Devgn and Tiger Shroff as well as Vimal Pan Masala manufacturers, J B Industries, over an alleged misleading advertisement for the pan masala.

Read about:

What is the Consumer Protection Act, 2019? 

Central Consumer Protection Authority

 

Key takeaways:

 

The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 replaced the earlier Consumer Protection Act, 1986 and introduces stricter provisions against unfair trade practices. It identifies offences such as providing inaccurate details about the quality or quantity of goods and services, as well as misleading advertisements. The Act also outlines measures to be taken when products or services are deemed hazardous, unsafe, or harmful.

Under Section 2(28) of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, a "misleading advertisement" is defined in relation to any product or service if it:
(i) provides a false description of the product or service;
(ii) makes false promises or misleads consumers regarding the nature, substance, quantity, or quality of the product or service;
(iii) implies a representation that, if made by the manufacturer, seller, or service provider, would be considered an unfair trade practice; or
(iv) intentionally withholds crucial information

Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA)

The Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) is a regulatory body established under the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 to promote, protect, and enforce consumer rights in India. It functions under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food & Public Distribution and aims to address unfair trade practices, false or misleading advertisements, and consumer grievances.

Key Functions of CCPA:

  • Protect Consumer Rights – Ensure consumer interests are safeguarded against unfair trade practices and deceptive advertisements.
  • Regulate Advertisements – Take action against misleading ads and impose penalties on endorsers, manufacturers, and advertisers.
  • Product Safety Measures – Order product recalls, issue warnings, and impose restrictions if goods/services are found hazardous.
  • Investigate Consumer Grievances – Conduct inquiries and investigations into violations of consumer rights.
  • Impose Penalties – Levy fines and take legal action against manufacturers or service providers engaging in unfair practices

 Follow Up Question

1.Which of the following statements about the 'Consumer Protection Act 2019' is not true? (UGC NET 2020)
A.It has widened the definition of consumer
B.It provides for E-filing of complaints
C.It establishes Central Consumer Protection Authority
D.It ignores mediation as an alternate disputes resolution mechanism
 
Answer (D)
 

The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 introduced several new provisions to strengthen consumer rights and dispute resolution mechanisms.

  • Statement A (True): The Act expanded the definition of "consumer" to include those purchasing goods and services online, through teleshopping, and electronic transactions.
  • Statement B (True): It allows for E-filing of complaints, making the process more convenient for consumers.
  • Statement C (True): The Act established the Central Consumer Protection Authority (CCPA) to regulate unfair trade practices and misleading advertisements.
  • Statement D (False): The Act recognizes mediation as an alternative dispute resolution mechanism. It includes provisions for establishing a Consumer Mediation Cell at the district, state, and national levels to promote out-of-court settlements
 
 

 

Are freebies and welfare schemes different?

For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international importance

For Mains Examination: GS II - GS II - Governance

Context:

All three major political parties in the Delhi Assembly elections, won by the Bharatiya Janata Party, unveiled a barrage of freebies or subsidies to woo voters. The Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) pledged a ₹2,100 monthly allowance for all women, an additional ₹21,000 for pregnant women, and subsidised LPG cylinders at ₹500 for those from impoverished backgrounds.

 

Read about:

Can schemes such as the midday meal, the public distribution system, and child development services be considered as welfare?

How do targeted cash transfer programmes impact lives?

 

Key takeaways:

 

Electoral Sops or Welfare Politics?

  • The debate over electoral freebies versus welfare measures remains unresolved due to the lack of a clear definition of what qualifies as a freebie. Some view freebies as a form of bribery, which they argue influences voter decisions and discourages informed choices.
  • Others, however, believe this perspective undermines voter agency and delegitimizes welfare politics. The perception of a policy as a freebie or a genuine welfare measure often depends on context.
  • For instance, while some may consider free public transport an unnecessary handout, others see it as an essential social support system. Ironically, critics of transport subsidies may indirectly benefit from the availability of cheap labor, which is facilitated by affordable transportation.
  • Dr. K.K. Kailash, a Political Science professor at the University of Hyderabad, highlights how such measures enable people to travel for work, thereby sustaining economic activity.

Welfare as a Legal Right

  • The National Food Security Act (2013), introduced by the Congress-led UPA government, transformed various welfare programs—such as the mid-day meal scheme, the Public Distribution System (PDS), and child development initiatives—into legal entitlements. According to government data, the law benefits 75% of the rural population and 50% of the urban population, covering nearly 800 million people.
  • A 2023 study by the Centre for Financial Inclusion (CFI) found that well-structured cash transfer programs, particularly those directing funds to women on behalf of their households, not only empower women but also help reduce the risks of domestic violence.

Where to Draw the Line?

  • According to Dr. Kailash, welfare programs enhance human capabilities and promote freedom, aligning with Amartya Sen’s “capability approach” to development. For example, mid-day meal programs provide access to nutritious food, which boosts immunity and allows individuals to live healthier, more dignified lives.
  • Poor health, on the other hand, increases healthcare costs and puts additional pressure on public resources. Investing in nutrition and education from an early age yields long-term societal benefits.
  • Cash transfer schemes have gained political traction in Maharashtra, Jharkhand, and Haryana, reinforcing their role in electoral strategies. However, Dr. Kailash warns that while these schemes increase consumer spending and stimulate market activity, they do not create sustainable economic opportunities.
  • Over-reliance on freebie-driven politics poses significant fiscal risks, particularly for states burdened with high debt.
  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has highlighted a sharp rise in subsidy expenditure, urging states to rationalize subsidies to protect essential investments in infrastructure and public services.

The Judiciary’s Role

  • In August 2022, the Supreme Court referred multiple petitions challenging the constitutional validity of electoral freebies to a three-judge bench. The lead petition, filed by BJP leader Ashwini Upadhyay, argued that populist giveaways undermine free and fair elections, violating constitutional principles.
  • During the hearings, a bench led by former Chief Justice of India N.V. Ramana proposed forming an expert panel to gather recommendations from stakeholders—marking a shift from the Court’s previous stance.
  • In S. Subramaniam Balaji vs Government of Tamil Nadu (2013), the Supreme Court had ruled that such matters fall under legislative policy and are beyond judicial intervention.
  • The judgment also emphasized that state-funded welfare programs cannot be deemed illegal or considered “corrupt practices”, especially when they align with the Directive Principles of State Policy. However, no further hearings have taken place since November 23, 2023

 

Follow Up Question

 

1.Consider the following statements: (2017)

  1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. 
  2. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. 
  3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) 2 and 3 only 
(d) 3 only 

 

Answer (d)
 
  1. "The Election Commission of India is a five-member body"
  • This is INCORRECT
  • The Election Commission of India consists of a Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners (three members total)
  • This structure was established through the Election Commissioner Amendment Act, 1993
  1. "The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections"
  • This is INCORRECT
  • The Election Commission of India has the exclusive power to decide election schedules
  • This is part of its constitutional mandate under Article 324
  1. "Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties"
  • This is CORRECT
  • The EC has the power to decide matters related to recognition of political parties and disputes about splits/mergers
  • This power comes under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968

Therefore, only statement 3 is correct

 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination:  Current Account Deficit (CAD), Twin Deficit
 
For Mains Examination: GS III - Indian Economy
 
Context:
 
 
Read about:
 
What is Twin Deficit?
 
Significance of Current Account Deficit
 
Key takeaways:
 

After a strong start to goods exports in the first quarter of 2024-25, momentum has slowed down. Export values dropped by 1.5% in July, hitting an eight-month low, and the decline worsened to 9.3% in August. This decline coincided with a record-high import bill of $64.4 billion in August, resulting in a merchandise trade deficit of $29.7 billion, the second largest after the $29.9 billion gap in October 2023.

Reasons for the widening trade deficit:

  • Although exports have declined over the past two months, imports have not followed suit, increasing by 7.5% in July and 3.3% in August. This pushed the trade deficit to a nine-month high of $23.5 billion in July, widening further by $6.2 billion in August.
  • While several of India’s top export sectors, such as petroleum and gems and jewellery, experienced significant drops (oil exports fell by 22.2% in July and 37.6% in August, and jewellery exports shrank by over 20% in both months), imports continued to rise.
  • In August, slower growth in sectors like pharmaceuticals and electronics was observed. Additionally, with the slowdown in China’s economy, exports of certain goods such as stone, cement, and iron ore declined.
  • However, as oil prices fell by $6 per barrel in August, India’s oil import bill dropped by a third to $11 billion, bringing the petroleum deficit to a three-year low, as noted by QuantEco Research economists.
  • “The widening trade deficit was mainly driven by gems and jewellery, alongside smaller contributions from miscellaneous products and electronics,” the economists noted.
  • While exports of gems and jewellery fell below $2 billion, India’s gold imports more than doubled in August to an unprecedented $10.1 billion.
  • This contrasts with a 10.7% drop in gold imports in July and the $3 billion to $3.4 billion range seen since April. Trade officials attributed the surge to a reduction in the gold import duty from 15% to 6% in the Budget, rising gold prices, and jewellers stocking up for the festive season. Economists predict that the full effect of duty cuts on gold and other items will continue to impact the import bill in the coming months.

Could a wider trade deficit pose risks?

 
  • “For a developing economy with high growth, the trade deficit should not be concerning as long as there are no foreign exchange issues,”
  •  Foreign capital inflows have remained positive in recent months, and India’s foreign exchange reserves reached a record $675 billion as of August 2, which the Finance Ministry noted is enough to cover 11.6 months of imports.
  • Although this coverage may decrease if imports stay above $60 billion, strong services exports, which increased by over 10% from April to August, offer some reassurance.

What about foreign trade in goods?

While global trade is expected to grow faster in 2024 compared to 2023, demand remains weak in most developed markets. In addition to geopolitical tensions, the upcoming U.S. elections and increased tariffs on Chinese goods, coupled with China’s struggling domestic economy, pose challenges for countries like India.

As China's import demand weakens, it may seek to offload products in non-U.S. markets at lower prices. Furthermore, these factors are likely to keep oil prices down, negatively impacting India’s oil exports. Overall, concerns about global demand are increasing, and although India aims to increase goods and services exports to a trillion dollars each by 2030, the path forward will likely be challenging

 
Follow Up Question
 

1.The term "Twin Deficit" in the context of an economy refers to which of the following?

  1. Fiscal deficit and Revenue deficit
  2. Fiscal deficit and Current account deficit
  3. Trade deficit and Revenue deficit
  4. Trade deficit and Primary deficit

Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 4 only

Answer (b)
 
The Twin Deficit refers to a situation where a country is facing both a fiscal deficit and a current account deficit. A fiscal deficit occurs when the government's total expenditures exceed the revenue that it generates, excluding money from borrowings. A current account deficit occurs when a country imports more goods, services, and capital than it exports. Both these deficits together can signify deeper economic issues, such as unsustainable borrowing or low competitiveness in international trade
 
 
Subject and Subject Wise Notes for the Sunday Exam (Free)
 
Subject Topic Description
Polity Centre and State relations Centre State and interstate relations
Environment & Ecology Marine Ecosystem Marine Ecosystem
Economy Consumer Rights Consumer Rights
Ancient History Buddhism Buddhism
 

 

UPSC EXAM NOTES will be conducting both Prelims and Mains exams every Sunday as part of the Integrated Mains and Prelims (IMPM) Program. This program provides a comprehensive approach to UPSC exam preparation, ensuring that candidates are well-prepared for both stages of the exam.

Program Highlights:

  • Daily Study Keys: Each day, we will provide keys that outline what to read, focusing on the most relevant topics and current affairs.
  • Subject Notes: In addition to daily keys, we will supply detailed subject notes to help you build a strong foundation in all necessary areas.
  • Sunday Exams: Every Sunday, a combined exam will be held, encompassing the daily keys' content and subject notes, along with a culmination of current affairs from various sources. These exams will cover both Prelims and Mains syllabi.
  • Format: Exams will be available in both online and offline formats to cater to different preferences and situations.

Duration: The IMPM plan is a one-year program, ensuring continuous and structured preparation over 12 months. With regular testing and consistent study guidance, this program is designed to maximize your chances of success in the UPSC exams

 
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