INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) KEY (27/02/2025)

INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) 2025 Daily KEY

 
 
 
 
Exclusive for Subscribers Daily: Persons with Disabilities (PwDs) and Delimitation exercise for the UPSC Exam? Why are topics like First Information Report (FIR) , Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) important for both preliminary and main exams? Discover more insights in the UPSC Exam Notes for February 27, 2025

 

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Critical Topics and Their Significance for the UPSC CSE Examination on February 27, 2025

Daily Insights and Initiatives for UPSC Exam Notes: Comprehensive explanations and high-quality material provided regularly for students

 

Why are PwDs worried about DPDP rules?

For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international importance

For Mains Examination: GS II - Governance

Context:

With the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) looking to wrap up public consultations on the draft Rules for the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 by March 5, disability rights activists are trying to get a key provision of the Act amended or dropped, pointing out that it infantilises Persons with Disabilities (PwDs), negates their decision-making capabilities, and comes from a misunderstood notion of how guardianship works for PwDs

 

Read about:

Who are persons with disability?

Portrayal of disability persons in Films

 

Key takeaways:

 

  • With the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) aiming to conclude public consultations on the draft Rules for the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, 2023 by March 5, disability rights advocates are pushing for modifications to a key provision of the Act.
  • They argue that the existing clause diminishes the autonomy of Persons with Disabilities (PwDs), disregards their ability to make decisions, and reflects a flawed understanding of guardianship.
  • A major concern stems from Section 9(1), which categorizes PwDs alongside children and mandates that for adult PwDs with legal guardians, consent for processing personal data must be obtained from the guardian.
  • While government officials have attempted to mitigate concerns by restricting the provision's applicability to specific disabilities, experts argue that significant challenges in implementation remain.
  • The government introduced the DPDP Act, 2023, to regulate digital personal data processing while balancing individuals’ privacy rights with lawful data use. Section 9(1) stipulates that before processing personal data of a child or a PwD with a legal guardian, a Data Fiduciary must obtain the verifiable consent of the child’s parent or the PwD’s guardian, as prescribed by law.
  • The Act defines "Data Fiduciaries" as entities processing personal data and "Data Principals" as individuals whose data is collected. However, under Section 2(j)(ii), a "lawful guardian" is also included within the definition of a Data Principal for PwDs.
  • The draft Rules, issued by MeitY on January 3, outline the regulatory framework for the Act. Rule 10 specifically governs the implementation of Section 9(1).
  • According to Rule 10(2), when a Data Fiduciary seeks verifiable consent from a person identifying as a PwD’s lawful guardian, they must verify that the guardian has been legally appointed by a court, a designated authority, or a local-level committee under applicable guardianship laws. Additionally, the Rules recognize guardianship under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (RPWD) Act, 2016, and the National Trust (NT) Act, 1999.
  • The Rules define PwDs subject to Section 9(1) as individuals with long-term physical, mental, intellectual, or sensory impairments that significantly limit their ability to participate in society, even with appropriate support, or those diagnosed with conditions such as autism, cerebral palsy, intellectual disability, or severe multiple disabilities.
  • However, while the Rules provide detailed illustrations for obtaining parental consent for children, no comparable examples are given for securing consent from guardians of PwDs. This omission has raised concerns among disability rights activists and experts regarding the provision’s practical application across different disabilities and levels of severity, as well as inconsistencies in guardianship laws.

Understanding Guardianship for PwDs

 
  • In India, legal guardianship for PwDs is governed by two laws: the RPWD Act, 2016, and the NT Act, 1999, each outlining distinct roles for guardians.
  • The NT Act applies to individuals diagnosed with autism, cerebral palsy, intellectual disabilities, or multiple such conditions and provides for full guardianship, granting guardians complete authority over decision-making.
  • Conversely, the RPWD Act applies to individuals with long-term disabilities affecting participation in society and offers "limited guardianship," allowing supported decision-making when necessary.
  • While the NT Act conflicts with the United Nations Convention on the Rights of Persons with Disabilities (UNCRPD) by linking guardianship to decision-making capacity without clear definitions, the RPWD Act aligns more closely with UNCRPD principles by framing guardianship as assistance rather than control.

Key Areas of Concern

  • A survey by policy think tank PACTA and Saksham Disability, involving 91 PwDs, found that 27.4% had legal guardians. Among those aware of the governing law, most were under the RPWD Act’s limited guardianship provision.
  • However, the report noted that in practice, many PwDs with legal guardians still had their affairs entirely managed by the guardian.
  • The study concluded that while the Act and draft Rules seem appropriate in theory, real-world guardianship dynamics often undermine the autonomy of PwDs.
  • For those under the NT Act, full guardianship directly contradicts the principles of the UNCRPD, which emphasizes self-determination. Additionally, Section 9(1) appears to assume that having a legal guardian automatically implies an inability to make digital decisions.
  • Another issue is the lack of consideration for gender and disability intersectionality. For example, the report highlights that a PwD woman might be unable to purchase sanitary products online without her guardian’s consent due to platform restrictions.
  • Nipun Malhotra from the Nipman Foundation, advocating for revisions to these provisions, argues that Section 9(1) has created confusion regarding its scope and application.
  • Attempts to address concerns through restrictive definitions in the draft Rules have only complicated the matter. He pointed out that the inclusion of "physical impairment" raises further ambiguity, as individuals with purely physical disabilities are not typically assigned legal guardians.

Additional Challenges

Concerns regarding the consent clause include:

  • The legal responsibilities of a PwD’s guardian under the Act.
  • How the provision aligns with guardianship laws that may not comply with UNCRPD principles.
  • Whether guardians can refuse to provide consent on behalf of a PwD for specific platforms.

Saksham’s report also questions how platforms will handle PwDs’ personal data. To comply with Section 9(1), platforms would need to ask whether a user has a disability and whether they have a legal guardian. If a user has a disability but no legal guardian, platforms would still collect disability-related data without a valid reason for processing it.

Additionally, if legal guardians are considered Data Principals, they may bear full legal responsibility, potentially prioritizing their own interests over those of the PwD. Experts further emphasize that the primary barrier to digital inclusion for PwDs remains the inaccessibility of online platforms and applications. A 2023 evaluation by the Vidhi Centre for Legal Policy of ten widely used apps found that platforms like Paytm, Swiggy, Zomato, and Flipkart had low accessibility scores

 

Follow Up Question

1.How far do you think that the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act will facilitate inclusivity and empowerment of persons with disabilities in India? Discuss.

 

What did the HC rule about arresting women at night?

For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international importance

For Mains Examination: GS II - Governance

Context:

The Madurai Bench of the Madras High Court in Deepa versus S. Vijayalakshmi and Others ruled that the legal provision in the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, which restricts the arrest of a woman after sunset and before sunrise, is directory and not mandatory

 

Read about:

First Information Report (FIR)

Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023

 

Key takeaways:

  • The Madurai Bench of the Madras High Court, in the case of Deepa vs. S. Vijayalakshmi & Others, ruled that the legal provision in the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, which restricts the arrest of women between sunset and sunrise, is directory rather than mandatory.
  • The case involved a woman arrested at 8 PM, where a single judge initially held that the arrest violated Section 46(4) of the CrPC. However, upon appeal, a two-judge bench determined that this provision is not absolute.
  • Section 43(5) of BNSS, corresponding to Section 46(4) of the CrPC, includes two safeguards:
  1. Women should not be arrested at night, except under exceptional circumstances.
  2. In such cases, a woman police officer must obtain prior approval from a jurisdictional magistrate through a written request.
  • This provision aims to protect women but does not clearly define what constitutes an exceptional situation. Furthermore, Section 46(1) of the CrPC states that a male officer should not touch a woman unless a female officer is unavailable, or the situation demands it.
  • The Madras High Court emphasized that Section 46(4) of the CrPC does not specify consequences for non-compliance. If the provision were meant to be mandatory, the legislature would have outlined penalties for violating it.
  • The Court also noted that in cases where a serious crime is committed at night, strict adherence to the procedure could allow the accused to escape, which may compromise public interest.
  • The Law Commission of India, in its 135th (1989) and 154th (1996) reports, recommended that women should not be arrested at night unless necessary approvals were obtained.
  • Section 46(4) of the CrPC was added in 2005, incorporating these recommendations with modifications. The Nagpur Bench of the Bombay High Court also ruled that no woman should be detained without a female constable, and never at night. However, the Supreme Court later acknowledged that strict enforcement of this rule might cause practical challenges.
  • The Madras High Court clarified that while Section 46(4) of the CrPC is not mandatory, police officers must justify any deviation from the rule. Although failure to comply does not necessarily invalidate an arrest, the officer may be required to explain the reasons for non-compliance. The Court also directed police authorities to establish clear guidelines defining what qualifies as exceptional circumstances for arrests of women during restricted hours

 Follow-Up Question

 

1.Which of the following statements regarding the arrest of women under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, and the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) is/are correct?

  1. Section 43(5) of BNSS (corresponding to Section 46(4) of CrPC) strictly prohibits the arrest of women after sunset and before sunrise under all circumstances.
  2. In exceptional cases, the prior permission of the jurisdictional magistrate must be obtained for such an arrest.
  3. The Madras High Court ruled that the provision restricting nighttime arrests of women is mandatory, and any violation renders the arrest illegal.
  4. The Supreme Court has acknowledged that strict enforcement of this rule may create practical difficulties in certain cases.

Select the correct answer using the codes below:

 (a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3, and 4

 

Answer (b)
 
  • Statement 1 is incorrect: The provision does not absolutely prohibit the arrest of women at night; rather, it allows for exceptions under specific conditions.
  • Statement 2 is correct: In exceptional situations, a woman police officer must seek prior approval from the jurisdictional magistrate before making an arrest at night.
  • Statement 3 is incorrect: The Madras High Court ruled that the provision is directory, not mandatory, meaning a violation does not automatically invalidate an arrest.
  • Statement 4 is correct: The Supreme Court has noted that strict adherence to this rule may pose practical challenges, particularly in cases involving serious offenses

 

All about delimitation

For Preliminary Examination:  Delimitation exercise, Election Commission of India

For Mains Examination: GS II - Indian Polity & Governance

Context:

Delimitation is expected to be held after the new Census exercise, which is much-delayed. As per the delimitation calendar set earlier, this was to happen by 2026

 

Read about:

Delimitation exercise

Election COmmission of India

 

Key takeaways:

 

  • Definition and Constitutional Basis of Delimitation
    The Election Commission defines delimitation as the process of establishing electoral constituency boundaries based on the latest Census data. According to Article 82 of the Constitution, the allocation of Lok Sabha seats for each state must be revised following every Census to reflect population shifts.

  • Composition of the Lok Sabha and Population Representation
    Article 81 stipulates that the Lok Sabha can have a maximum of 550 members, with 530 representing states and 20 representing Union Territories. It also mandates that the ratio of seats to population should be as uniform as possible across states, ensuring equal representation for citizens nationwide.

  • Purpose and Principles of Delimitation
    Delimitation aims to restructure electoral constituencies in a balanced manner, following the principle of ‘One Vote, One Value.’ This ensures fair representation for various population groups and minimizes disparities in constituency sizes.

  • Delimitation Commission and Its Functioning
    The Constitution mandates the formation of an independent Delimitation Commission every ten years to reallocate seats among states. Appointed by the President, the Commission consists of a retired judge from the Supreme Court or a High Court, the Chief Election Commissioner, and the State Election Commissioner.

  • Process of Redrawing Constituencies
    The Commission evaluates population changes to modify or establish constituencies as needed. A draft report is published in the Gazette of India for public consultation. After incorporating feedback, the final report is issued, and under the Delimitation Commission Act, 1952, and Article 329A of the Constitution, its decisions hold the force of law and cannot be challenged in court.

  • Constitutional Amendments for Delimitation
    To implement the delimitation process, amendments are required in several constitutional provisions, including:

    • Article 81 (defining Lok Sabha composition)
    • Article 170 (pertaining to Legislative Assemblies)
    • Article 82 (addressing seat reallocation)
    • Article 55 (impacting the value of votes in presidential elections)
    • Articles 330 and 332 (dealing with seat reservations in the Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies)
  • Concerns of Southern States
    Tamil Nadu and other southern states argue that states with effective population control should not be disadvantaged in seat allocation compared to states with higher population growth.

Changes in Lok Sabha Composition Due to Delimitation

  • History of Delimitation Exercises
    Delimitation has been conducted four times—1952, 1963, 1973, and 2002—with seat adjustments occurring in the first three instances. In 1952, the maximum number of Lok Sabha seats was capped at 500, with elections initially conducted for 489 seats. By 1957, this increased to 494.

  • Adjustments in 1963
    The 1963 Delimitation Commission noted that the average constituency population had increased from 7.3 lakh to 8.9 lakh, prompting an increase in total Lok Sabha seats to 522.

  • Revisions in 1973
    In response to population growth and the formation of new states, the Commission expanded Lok Sabha membership to a maximum of 545 seats, which has remained unchanged since then.

  • Freeze on Delimitation (1976)
    The 42nd Amendment (1976) imposed a 25-year freeze on the number of Lok Sabha seats, postponing delimitation until after the 2001 Census. The Congress-led government under Indira Gandhi, during the Emergency, justified this move to protect states with successful population control from losing representation.

  • Further Delay in 2002
    Under the 84th Amendment (2002), the BJP-led government under Atal Bihari Vajpayee extended the delimitation freeze for another 25 years. While constituency boundaries were revised based on the 2001 Census, the overall number of Lok Sabha seats and their distribution among states remained unchanged. According to this amendment, delimitation was scheduled to take place after the 2031 Census. However, with the 2021 Census delayed, the government is considering adjustments to this timeline.

 

 Follow Up Question

 

1.With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2012)
1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
 
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
 
A. 1 only             
B. 2 only           
C. Both 1 and 2               
D. Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer (C)
 
  • The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of LawCorrect

    • As per the Delimitation Commission Act, 1952, once the Commission's orders are published, they have the force of law and cannot be questioned in any court (Article 329A of the Constitution).
  • When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the ordersCorrect

    • The orders of the Delimitation Commission are final and binding, meaning neither the Parliament nor the State Assemblies can make any changes to them. Their role is limited to receiving and implementing the Commission's recommendations.

Thus, both statements are correct, making option C (Both 1 and 2) the correct answer

 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination:  Constitutional bodies, Non Constitutional bodies
 
For Mains Examination: GS II - Indian Polity & Governance
 
Context:
 
The Delhi government incurred a loss of Rs 2,002 crore because of issues in formulating and implementing the excise policy in 2021-22, according to the report of the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) that was tabled in the Assembly
 
Read about:
 
What is Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)?
 
CAG Audit and Financial Irregularities
 
Key takeaways:
 
The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is the constitutional authority responsible for auditing government accounts and ensuring financial accountability in India. The office of the CAG is enshrined in Article 148 of the Indian Constitution
 

Functions & Responsibilities

  • Auditing Government Accounts

    • Audits receipts and expenditures of the Central & State Governments.
    • Audits the accounts of government-owned corporations and autonomous bodies.
  • Ensuring Financial Accountability

    • Reports to the President and Governors on the financial performance of the government.
    • Audits public sector undertakings (PSUs) and government-funded projects.
  • Acting as a Watchdog

    • Helps prevent corruption and financial mismanagement.
    • Provides reports that aid in parliamentary oversight (Public Accounts Committee)

Appointment & Tenure

  • Appointed by the President of India.
  • Holds office for 6 years or until the age of 65, whichever is earlier.
  • Can only be removed through a process similar to the impeachment of a Supreme Court judge.

Reports Submitted by CAG

  • Audit Reports on Central & State Governments
  • Report on Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs)
  • Performance Audit Reports on various government schemes
 
Follow Up Question
 
1.The Comptroller and Auditor-General (CAG) of India can be removed from office only by the: (UPSC CAPF 2015) 
A. President on the advice of the Union Cabinet.
B. Chief justice of the Supreme Court.
C. President of India after an address in both Houses of Parliament.
D. President on the advice of Chief Justice of India.
 
Answer (C)
 

The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India can only be removed through a special procedure similar to that of a Supreme Court judge.

  • Article 148 of the Indian Constitution provides for the office of the CAG.
  • Article 149-151 define the powers and duties of the CAG.
  • Removal Process:
    • The CAG can be removed by the President after an address by both Houses of Parliament, supported by a special majority (i.e., a majority of the total membership of each House and a two-thirds majority of members present and voting).
    • The grounds for removal are proven misbehavior or incapacity
 
 
For Preliminary Examination: Simultaneous elections, Election Commission of India
 
For Mains Examination: GS II - Indian Polity & Governance
 
Context:
 
 Former Chief Justice of India UU Lalit, who appeared before the Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC) on ‘One Nation One Election (ONOE)’ Bill on Tuesday, was said to have made some important suggestions including staggering of the entire process and also cautioning about the legal challenges that severely curtailed Assembly tenures could invite
 
Read about:
 
Joint Parliamentary Committee (JPC)
 
‘One Nation One Election (ONOE)’
 
Key takeaways:
 
 
  • The Kovind committee has proposed 15 constitutional amendments to facilitate simultaneous elections, involving both new provisions and modifications to existing ones. These changes would be enacted through two separate Constitution Amendment Bills.
  • The first Bill, as per the committee, can be passed by Parliament without consulting state governments or requiring ratification by state legislatures. In contrast, the second Bill, which focuses on municipal and panchayat elections and the establishment of a Single Electoral Roll under the Election Commission of India (ECI), would need approval from more than half of the states, as it pertains to matters primarily under state jurisdiction.
  • Key recommendations of the first Bill include introducing Article 82A, which would formalize the shift to simultaneous elections for Lok Sabha and state Assemblies. The proposed Article 82A(1) stipulates that the process will be triggered on the date of the first sitting of the newly elected Lok Sabha, following a presidential notification known as the "Appointed Date."
  • Further provisions outline that all state Assemblies elected after this date will serve terms aligned with that of the Lok Sabha. While the Election Commission is mandated to conduct simultaneous elections, Article 82A(4) allows for exceptions, where a state election may be postponed upon recommendation to the President. However, Article 82A(5) ensures that even if a state election is deferred, its term will still end concurrently with the Lok Sabha’s full term.
  • Additionally, the Bill proposes amending Article 327, which grants Parliament authority over election-related laws, to explicitly include the conduct of simultaneous elections. The committee also suggests revising Article 83(2) and Article 172(1) to define the five-year tenure of Lok Sabha and state Assemblies as their "full term."
  • The second Constitution Amendment Bill, which requires state ratification, includes provisions affecting subjects under the State List.
  • As per Article 368(2) of the Constitution, any amendment concerning such matters must be approved by at least half of India's state legislatures before being enacted
 
Follow Up Question
 
1.The Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) system was used for the first time by the Election Commission of India in (UPSC CSE 2019)
A. North Paravur Assembly Constituency
B. Kerala Noksen Assembly Constituency
C. Nagaland Mapusa Assembly Constituency, Goa
D. Nambol Assembly Constituency, Manipur
 
Answer (C)
 
The Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) system was first used in India during a by-election in the Noksen Assembly Constituency of Nagaland in 2013. It was later introduced in a phased manner and was used in all constituencies during the 2019 Lok Sabha elections
 
  • Nationwide Implementation:

    • After successful trials, the Election Commission of India (ECI) gradually expanded the use of VVPATs.
    • In the 2014 Lok Sabha elections, VVPATs were used in select constituencies.
    • By the 2019 Lok Sabha elections, VVPATs were deployed in all 543 constituencies.
  • How VVPAT Works:

    • When a voter casts a vote using an EVM, a paper slip is generated in the VVPAT machine.
    • The slip contains details of the candidate and party voted for.
    • The voter can view this slip through a transparent window for 7 seconds before it automatically falls into a sealed drop box.
 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international importance
 
For Mains Examination: GS II - International relations
 
Context:
 
India’s strategy had assumed that the globalised economic order is irreversible. European Commission President Ursula von der Leyen’s visit to India provides an opportunity for Delhi and Brussels at a pivotal moment
 
Read about:
 
India-European Union (EU) bilateral relations
 
India-European Union (EU) bilateral relations
 
 
Key takeaways:
 
  • European Commission President Ursula von der Leyen's visit to India, accompanied by the entire College of Commissioners (equivalent to the European Cabinet), represents a significant milestone in the EU-India strategic relationship.

  • Although her visit was scheduled before Trump's re-election, the objective of strengthening ties with India has now taken on greater urgency. It was a conscious decision for von der Leyen to choose India as her first international destination after beginning her second term as the President of the European Commission.

  • Trump’s policies are not only reshaping the U.S. stance on Ukraine and Russia but are also disrupting long-standing alliances and altering the global economic framework.

  • The shifting dynamics among the U.S., Russia, and China highlight the uncertainty in global power equations. Over the past century, these three nations have transitioned through various phases of alliances, friendships, rivalries, and uneasy partnerships. Given this evolving landscape, India cannot afford to be complacent about any of its international relationships. Expanding strategic partnerships is essential, and Europe remains a key yet underutilized component in India’s global strategy.

  • Von der Leyen’s visit presents a crucial opportunity for India to revitalize its engagement with the European Union—one of the world’s largest economies and a hub for science, technology, industry, capital, and consumer markets.

  • Over the last decade, Prime Minister Narendra Modi’s administration has worked to strengthen the India-EU relationship, which had suffered from prolonged neglect. Although a strategic partnership was declared in 2004, by the early 2010s, momentum had diminished. Trade discussions stalled, and Brussels showed little enthusiasm for regular summits with India, while prioritizing deep economic ties with China, built over three decades.

  • By 2016, India sought to rekindle its engagement with the EU, leading to a long-overdue summit in Brussels. Following the pandemic, in 2022, both sides resumed trade negotiations, enhanced their security dialogue, established a Trade and Technology Council, and initiated a connectivity project. At the G20 Summit in Delhi in September 2023, they jointly announced the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC). As India recognized Europe’s strategic importance in a multipolar world, the EU also sought to reduce its economic dependence on China while increasing its involvement in the Indo-Pacific.

  • India’s trade deficit with China continues to widen, primarily due to surging Chinese exports. Without decisive measures to curb reliance on Chinese imports, the annual deficit—already approaching $100 billion—is likely to grow further. Addressing this challenge requires internal economic reforms and the revival of strategic partnerships, particularly with Europe. The potential for collaboration between India and Europe is substantial, yet the partnership remains underdeveloped. Von der Leyen’s visit provides a timely opportunity for both sides to strengthen ties in this rapidly changing global landscape

 
Follow Up Question
 
1.Consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE 2023)

The ‘Stability and Growth Pact’ of the European Union is a treaty that

1. limits the levels of the budgetary deficit of the countries of the European Union

2. makes the countries of the European Union to share their infrastructure facilitie

3. enables the countries of the European Union to share their technologie

How many of the above statements are correct

(a) Only one

(b) Only two

(c) All three

(d) None

Answer (a)
 

The Stability and Growth Pact (SGP) of the European Union is an agreement that primarily focuses on fiscal discipline among EU member states by setting limits on government budget deficits and national debt levels.

  1. ✅ Correct – The SGP limits the budgetary deficit of EU countries to ensure financial stability. It requires member states to keep their budget deficit below 3% of GDP and national debt below 60% of GDP.
  2. ❌ Incorrect – The SGP does not mandate the sharing of infrastructure among EU countries.
  3. ❌ Incorrect – The SGP does not involve technology sharing among EU countries.

Thus, only Statement 1 is correct, making option (a) the right answer

 
 
Subject and Subject Wise Notes for the Sunday Exam (Free)
 
Subject Topic Description
Polity Fundamental Duties Fundamental Duties
Environment & Ecology Biodiversity in India Biodiversity
History Modern Indian History Constitutional Development in India
History Modern Indian History Peasants, Tribal and other movements
 

 

UPSC EXAM NOTES will be conducting both Prelims and Mains exams every Sunday as part of the Integrated Mains and Prelims (IMPM) Program. This program provides a comprehensive approach to UPSC exam preparation, ensuring that candidates are well-prepared for both stages of the exam.

Program Highlights:

  • Daily Study Keys: Each day, we will provide keys that outline what to read, focusing on the most relevant topics and current affairs.
  • Subject Notes: In addition to daily keys, we will supply detailed subject notes to help you build a strong foundation in all necessary areas.
  • Sunday Exams: Every Sunday, a combined exam will be held, encompassing the daily keys' content and subject notes, along with a culmination of current affairs from various sources. These exams will cover both Prelims and Mains syllabi.
  • Format: Exams will be available in both online and offline formats to cater to different preferences and situations.

Duration: The IMPM plan is a one-year program, ensuring continuous and structured preparation over 12 months. With regular testing and consistent study guidance, this program is designed to maximize your chances of success in the UPSC exams

 

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