INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) KEY (27/03/2025)

INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) 2025 Daily KEY

 
 
 
 
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Google Tax and Delimitation Commission and its significance for the UPSC Exam? Why are topics like Dandi March, Process of removing judges, Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) important for both preliminary and main exams? Discover more insights in the UPSC Exam Notes for March 27, 2025

 

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Critical Topics and Their Significance for the UPSC CSE Examination on March 27, 2025

Daily Insights and Initiatives for UPSC Exam Notes: Comprehensive explanations and high-quality material provided regularly for students

 

Equisation Levy

For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international Significance

For Mains Examination: GS III - Economy

Context:

As part of amendments to the Financial Bill, 2025, the central government has proposed to remove the 6 per cent equilisation levy (EL) charges imposed on digital ads from April 1, 2025. The move came in response to President Donald Trump’s announcement of imposing a reciprocal tax on India.  Experts believe that it remains to be seen whether this step, coupled with ongoing diplomatic measures, would lead to any softening of the US stance.

 

Read about:

Google Tax

Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS)

 

Key takeaways:

 

The Equalisation Levy is a tax introduced by the Indian government to address the taxation challenges posed by the digital economy, particularly targeting income earned by foreign companies from India without a physical presence. It was first implemented in 2016 and has since been expanded.

Key Features of the Equalisation Levy:

  • Purpose:
    • It aims to tax digital transactions, ensuring that foreign e-commerce and digital service providers contribute to India’s tax revenue, even if they lack a permanent establishment (PE) in India.
    • Often called the "Google Tax," it addresses the imbalance between domestic and foreign companies in the digital space.
  • Scope:
    • Initial Phase (2016): Introduced via Chapter VIII of the Finance Act, 2016, it imposed a 6% levy on payments for online advertising services, digital advertising space, or related facilities provided by non-resident companies to Indian residents or non-residents with a PE in India. This applies only if the annual payment exceeds ₹1 lakh (approximately $1,200 USD).
    • Expanded Phase (2020): The Finance Act, 2020 broadened the levy to include e-commerce supply or services by non-resident e-commerce operators, effective from April 1, 2020. This carries a 2% tax on gross consideration received from:
      • Sales of goods or services to Indian residents or users with an Indian IP address.
      • Sales of advertisements targeting Indian customers.
      • Sales of data collected from Indian users.
      • The threshold for this is ₹2 crore (approximately $240,000 USD) in annual revenue from these activities.
  • Applicability:
    • Applies to non-resident entities without a PE in India.
    • For the 6% levy, the payer (Indian resident or non-resident with a PE in India) deducts and deposits the tax.
    • For the 2% levy, the non-resident e-commerce operator is responsible for paying the tax directly.
 

 

Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS)

The government states that both the Equalisation Levy and Significant Economic Presence (SEP) are in line with India’s commitment to the Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS) Action Plan formulated by the Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD).

  • As per the OECD’s official website, Base Erosion and Profit Shifting (BEPS) refers to tax strategies employed by multinational corporations to exploit gaps in tax regulations, shifting their profits to jurisdictions with little or no taxation, thereby reducing their tax liabilities.

  • The OECD/G20 BEPS Project provides governments with frameworks and tools to curb tax avoidance, ensuring that corporate profits are taxed in the countries where the underlying economic activities occur and where value is actually generated.

  • BEPS Action 1 addresses the significant challenges posed by the digital economy, aiming to develop a globally accepted solution. According to the OECD’s policy paper, an ‘Equalisation Levy’ is suggested as a potential approach to mitigate direct tax concerns arising from digital business models.

  • In October 2021, India, the United States, and other members of the OECD/G20 Inclusive Framework reached an agreement to implement a two-pillar strategy to manage tax complexities linked to the expansion of the digital economy.

  • The global tax deal’s two-pillar solution comprises:

    • Pillar One, which involves reallocating a portion of profits to the jurisdictions where businesses operate.

    • Pillar Two, which introduces a minimum tax and a subject-to-tax rule to ensure fair taxation.

 
 
Follow Up Question
 

1.With reference to India’s decision to levy an equalization tax of 6% on online advertisement services offered by non-resident entities, which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC CSE 2018)

1. It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act.

2. Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the “Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements”.

Select the correct answer using the code given below :

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

 

Answer (d)
 

Statement 1: "It is introduced as a part of the Income Tax Act."

  • The Equalisation Levy was introduced through Chapter VIII of the Finance Act, 2016, not as a part of the Income Tax Act, 1961. It is a separate tax mechanism outside the framework of the Income Tax Act, designed specifically to address digital transactions by non-residents without a permanent establishment (PE) in India.
  • While it interacts with the Income Tax Act (e.g., income subject to the levy is exempt from income tax under Section 10(50)), it is not legislated within the Income Tax Act itself.
  • Conclusion: This statement is incorrect.

Statement 2: "Non-resident entities that offer advertisement services in India can claim a tax credit in their home country under the 'Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements'."

  • The Equalisation Levy is a unilateral tax imposed by India and is not classified as an income tax. Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements (DTAAs) typically cover taxes on income (e.g., corporate tax, personal income tax) and allow tax credits for such taxes paid in another country to avoid double taxation.
  • However, the Equalisation Levy is a transaction-based tax (akin to a withholding tax on specific services), not an income tax. Most DTAAs do not explicitly cover such levies unless specifically negotiated. As of 2016 (and even up to 2018, when this question was framed), India’s DTAAs with countries like the U.S., U.K., or others did not generally recognize the Equalisation Levy as eligible for tax credits, though this depends on the specific treaty and the home country’s tax laws.
  • For example, the U.S. has historically not allowed credits for India’s Equalisation Levy under its tax system, treating it as a non-creditable foreign tax unless explicitly adjusted in bilateral talks (which hadn’t occurred by 2018).
  • That said, some interpretations suggest that non-resident entities could potentially claim relief in their home country if their domestic tax laws or specific DTAAs allow credits for such levies. However, this is not a guaranteed or standard provision under most DTAAs with India at that time.
  • Conclusion: Given the context of 2018 and the general structure of DTAAs, this statement is not universally correct but has some ambiguity. For UPSC purposes, it is typically considered incorrect unless evidence of widespread credit availability under DTAAs is provided, which was not the case then
 

 

What are the issues around delimitation?

For Preliminary Examination:   Current events of national and international importance

For Mains Examination: GS II - Polity & Governance

Context:

There has been a renewed debate about delimitation after the issue was raised by the Chief Minister of Tamil Nadu. The delimitation of constituencies for the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies is to be carried out on the basis of the first Census after 2026.

Read about: 

What is a Delimitation Commission?

Census Exercise

 

Key takeaways:

 

  • Delimitation refers to the process of determining the number of seats and defining the boundaries of territorial constituencies in each state for both the Lok Sabha and Legislative Assemblies.
  • This task is undertaken by the Delimitation Commission, which is established through an act of Parliament. Past delimitation exercises were conducted based on the Census figures of 1951, 1961, and 1971.
  • The total number of Lok Sabha seats was fixed at 543 following the 1971 Census, when the population stood at 54.8 crores. Since then, this figure has remained unchanged to promote population control initiatives.
  • However, a revision is scheduled to take place after the first Census conducted post-2026. With the 2021 Census delayed due to the COVID-19 pandemic, discussions have emerged linking it to the upcoming delimitation process.

Key Issues in Delimitation

Over the past five decades, India's population growth has been uneven across states. Northern states such as Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Madhya Pradesh, and Rajasthan have experienced significantly higher growth rates compared to southern states like Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh. Two possible approaches to delimitation are being considered:

  1. Retaining the current number of 543 seats while redistributing them among states.
  2. Expanding the Lok Sabha to 848 seats, proportionally increasing representation across states.

Union Home Minister Amit Shah recently assured that no state would lose its existing seat share and that any increase would be implemented on a pro-rata basis. However, the criteria for this proportional allocation—whether based on the current seat distribution or projected population—is unclear.

If future seat allocation follows projected population figures, southern states, along with smaller northern states like Punjab, Himachal Pradesh, and Uttarakhand, as well as northeastern states, may receive fewer seats compared to larger northern states. This could potentially disrupt the federal balance, diminishing political influence for regions that have successfully controlled their population. Currently, southern states hold a 24% share of Lok Sabha seats, which could drop by 5% under such a system.

Possible Solutions

  • Democracy is based on the principle of one citizen, one vote, one value. However, this principle has already been adjusted since 1976, when delimitation was first postponed to encourage population control.
  • In contrast, the United States has maintained a fixed number of 435 seats in its House of Representatives since 1913, despite its population nearly quadrupling from 9.4 crores in 1911 to an estimated 34 crores in 2024.
  • The primary role of a Member of Parliament (MP) is to legislate on matters in the Union List and oversee the functioning of the Union Government, while most central schemes are executed by state administrations.
  • Despite India's population rising from 55 crores to 145 crores over the past five decades, the Lok Sabha has functioned effectively with 543 MPs. With the country’s population expected to peak at 165-170 crores in the next three decades before gradually declining, maintaining the current number of Lok Sabha seats could be a viable option. This would preserve existing state-wise representation and uphold the federal structure.
  • To safeguard regional political interests, MPs and political leaders from southern states, smaller northern states, and the northeastern region should advocate for capping Lok Sabha seats at 543. Meanwhile, to ensure adequate local representation, state assemblies could increase the number of MLAs in proportion to projected population growth
 
Follow Up Question
 
1.With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2012)
1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
A. 1 only             
B. 2 only           
C. Both 1 and 2               
D. Neither 1 nor 2
 
Answer (C)
 
  • The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of LawCorrect.

    • The Delimitation Commission is established under an act of Parliament and its orders have the force of law.
    • As per the provisions of the Delimitation Act, the final orders of the Commission cannot be questioned or challenged in any court.
  • When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the ordersCorrect.

    • Once the Delimitation Commission finalizes its orders, they are laid before the Lok Sabha and the respective State Legislative Assemblies. However, these bodies have no power to amend or modify the orders.
    • The orders are considered final and automatically come into effect
 
 

 

Dandi March

For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international importance

For Mains Examination: GS I - Modern Indian History

Context:

12 March marks the 95th anniversary of the historic salt march led by Mahatma Gandhi from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi in Gujarat. The 24-day march from March 12 to April 5, 1930,  ended with the defiance of the law after he made salt at Dandi marking the inauguration of the civil disobedience movement.

 

Read about:

Bardoli Satyagraha

Civil Disobediance Movement

 

Key takeaways:

 

The Dandi March, also referred to as the Salt March or Dandi Satyagraha, was a significant act of nonviolent resistance led by Mahatma Gandhi. It took place between March 12 and April 6, 1930, as part of a campaign against the British salt monopoly, advocating tax resistance through civil disobedience.

On March 12, 1930, Gandhi, accompanied by 78 followers, embarked on a 241-mile journey from Sabarmati Ashram to the coastal town of Dandi on the Arabian Sea, where they openly defied British law by producing salt from seawater. This act of defiance inspired thousands of others across India, with similar protests erupting in cities like Bombay and Karachi, where nationalists led civilians in making salt.

As the movement gained momentum, millions of Indians participated in acts of civil disobedience, leading to the arrest of over 60,000 people by British authorities. Gandhi himself was arrested on May 5, 1930, but the movement persisted. On May 21, 1930, Sarojini Naidu led 2,500 marchers in a protest at the Dharasana Salt Works, where British forces responded with brutal force. This event, documented by American journalist Webb Miller, sparked global outrage against British rule in India.

In January 1931, Gandhi was released from prison and engaged in discussions with Viceroy Lord Irwin. As a result, the Gandhi-Irwin Pact was signed, leading to the suspension of the civil disobedience campaign in exchange for Congress's participation in negotiations regarding India's future. In August 1931, Gandhi attended the Second Round Table Conference in London as the sole representative of the Indian National Congress, though the discussions yielded little progress.

Significance of the Dandi March

  • Economic Impact: British imports, especially textiles, saw a sharp decline, with cloth imports reducing by half.
  • Widespread Participation: Unlike previous movements, this saw mass involvement from women, peasants, workers, students, merchants, and shopkeepers, establishing the Congress as a truly national movement.
  • Empowerment of Women: This movement was a turning point for Indian women, marking their active participation in public protests.
  • Support from Rural and Urban Masses: The participation of the poor and illiterate, both in towns and villages, was remarkable.
  • Global Recognition: Despite the withdrawal of the Civil Disobedience Movement in 1934, the Dandi March brought international attention to India’s struggle for independence, playing a crucial role in the broader anti-colonial movement.
 
Follow Up Question
 

1.With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements: (2019)

  1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of ‘indentured labour’.
  2. In Lord Chelmsford’s ‘War Conference’, Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.
  3. Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

 

Answer (b)
 
  • Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of ‘indentured labour’.
    Correct – Gandhi actively campaigned against the indentured labor system, which forced Indians to work under exploitative conditions in British colonies like South Africa, Fiji, and the Caribbean. Due to sustained efforts by Gandhi and other leaders, the system was formally abolished in 1917.

  • In Lord Chelmsford’s ‘War Conference’, Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.
    Incorrect – In 1918, during Lord Chelmsford’s War Conference, Gandhi actually supported the British recruitment of Indians for World War I, believing that it would strengthen India's case for self-governance.

  • Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.
    Correct – Following the Salt Satyagraha (1930), the British colonial government banned the Indian National Congress, considering it a threat to their rule

 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international importance
 
For Mains Examination: GS II - Indian Polity & Governance
 
Context:
 
Fifty-five MPs of the Rajya Sabha have submitted a motion, for removing Allahabad High Court Judge, Justice Shekhar Kumar Yadav, to Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
 
Read about:
 
Supreme Court of India
 
Impeachment of a Judge
 
Key takeaways:
 

What is the Procedure for Removal?

  • Under Articles 124 and 217 of the Constitution, a judge of the Supreme Court or High Court can be removed by the President on the grounds of “proved misbehaviour” or “incapacity.” This removal process requires the passage of a motion in both Houses of Parliament during the same session.
  • The motion must be approved by a special majority, which means a majority of the total membership of each House and at least two-thirds of the members present and voting. However, the terms “proved misbehaviour” and “incapacity” are not explicitly defined in the Constitution.
  • Over time, the Supreme Court has interpreted misbehaviour to include acts like corruption, wilful misconduct, lack of integrity, or offenses involving moral turpitude. Incapacity generally refers to physical or mental conditions that hinder the judge’s ability to perform their duties.
  • The detailed process for removal is outlined in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968. As per this law, a notice for removal must be signed by at least 50 members of the Rajya Sabha or 100 members of the Lok Sabha.
  • The Chairperson (Rajya Sabha) or Speaker (Lok Sabha) then decides whether to admit or reject the motion after careful consideration. If the motion is admitted, a three-member committee is formed to investigate the allegations.
  • This committee includes judges from the Supreme Court or High Courts and a distinguished jurist. If the committee clears the judge, the motion is dropped. However, if the committee finds evidence of misbehaviour or incapacity, the matter proceeds to Parliament. At this stage, both Houses must pass the motion with a special majority to recommend removal.

What is the Current Issue?

  • Justice Yadav recently made controversial remarks at an event organized by the Vishwa Hindu Parishad, where he reportedly stated that the country would be governed according to the wishes of the majority.
  • Such statements have raised concerns about judicial impartiality. The ‘Restatement of Values of Judicial Life,’ adopted by the Supreme Court in 1997, mandates that judges must conduct themselves in a manner that reinforces public trust in the judiciary’s neutrality. Judges are expected to avoid any actions or comments that undermine the dignity of their office.
  • Although the Judges (Inquiry) Bill, 2006 was not enacted, it had sought to define misbehaviour to include breaches of the judicial code of conduct. The bill also proposed lesser disciplinary measures, such as warnings, public or private censures, or temporary suspension of judicial work for misconduct that does not warrant removal.

What is Required?

  • The principle of Blackstone’s ratio—“it is better for ten guilty persons to escape than for one innocent to suffer”—applies to the removal of judges as well. The stringent process of requiring a special majority in both Houses ensures the protection of judicial independence.
  • However, this same process has often resulted in the failure to remove judges, even after inquiry committees have found them guilty of misconduct.
  • Given the circumstances, the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, against whom a removal motion has also been submitted, may choose not to admit the current motion. Meanwhile, the Supreme Court has issued a notice requesting details of Justice Yadav’s speech.
  • It is expected that Justice Yadav will appear before the Supreme Court Collegium to clarify his position. Maintaining judicial decorum is essential, as judges are expected to exhibit conduct befitting their high constitutional role
 
Follow Up Question
 

1.Consider the following statements regarding the procedure for the removal of judges in India:

  1. A judge of the Supreme Court or High Court can be removed only by the President, after a motion is passed by a majority of the total membership in each House of Parliament.
  2. The terms ‘proved misbehaviour’ or ‘incapacity’ are explicitly defined in the Constitution of India.
  3. The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 specifies that the motion for removal of a judge must be signed by at least 50 members of the Rajya Sabha and 100 members of the Lok Sabha.
  4. The inquiry committee formed for the removal of a judge consists of two High Court judges and one distinguished jurist.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 1, 3, and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) 2, 3, and 4 only

Answer (a)
 
  • Removal of judges: This statement is CORRECT. According to Article 124(4) and Article 217(1)(b) of the Indian Constitution, a judge of the Supreme Court or High Court can be removed by the President through a process that involves a motion passed by a special majority in both Houses of Parliament.
  • 'Proved misbehaviour' or 'incapacity': This statement is INCORRECT. The Constitution does NOT explicitly define the terms 'proved misbehaviour' or 'incapacity'. These terms are intentionally left broad to provide flexibility in judicial removal proceedings.
  • Judges (Inquiry) Act signature requirements: This statement is INCORRECT. The Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 does NOT specify that the removal motion must be signed by 50 Rajya Sabha and 100 Lok Sabha members. The actual procedure requires the motion to be signed by a minimum number of members, but not with these specific numbers.
  • Inquiry committee composition: This statement is INCORRECT. The inquiry committee for removing a judge typically consists of one Supreme Court judge, one High Court judge, and one distinguished jurist - not two High Court judges and one jurist as stated in the question.

Let's break down the correct components:

  • Statement 1 is correct
  • Statement 2 is incorrect
  • Statement 3 is incorrect
  • Statement 4 is incorrect
 
 

 

RBI slashes rate by 0.25% to revive growth

For Preliminary Examination:  Repo rate, Reverse repo rate

For Mains Examination: GS III - Indian Economy

Context:

Lowering India’s interest rates for the first time in the last 57 months, the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the Reserve Bank of India on Friday unanimously cut the repo rate by 25 basis points (bps) to 6.25%, to support fading growth in the hope of inflation easing to 4.4% in this quarter and 4.2% through 2025-26

 

Read about:

Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)

Reverse repo rate

 

Key takeaways:

 

  • For the first time in nearly five years, India's Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has decided to lower interest rates. On Friday, the committee unanimously reduced the repo rate by 25 basis points (bps) to 6.25%, aiming to revive slowing economic growth amid expectations that inflation will ease to 4.4% this quarter and 4.2% throughout 2025-26.
  • This policy shift by the RBI, which could lead to reduced borrowing costs for housing, vehicles, and other loans, follows closely after the announcement of the Union Budget for 2025-26. The budget seeks to stimulate urban demand through income tax concessions worth ₹1 lakh crore.
  • The repo rate, which refers to the interest rate at which the RBI lends to commercial banks, saw its last reduction in May 2020 during the initial phase of the COVID-19 pandemic when it was cut by 40 bps to 4%. Since 2022, however, the rate had been on an upward trajectory.
  • Considering the ongoing risks posed by global economic uncertainties and inflationary pressures, the MPC has opted for a neutral stance. RBI Governor Sanjay Malhotra emphasized that the committee remains "firmly committed to ensuring inflation aligns with the target while also supporting economic growth." This was the first monetary policy review under Mr. Malhotra’s leadership.
  • Highlighting concerns such as geopolitical conflicts, rising protectionist trade measures, fluctuations in global commodity prices, and financial market instability, the MPC has forecasted real GDP growth of 6.7% for 2025-26, compared to an estimated 6.4% for the current fiscal year.
  • Assuming a normal monsoon next year, Mr. Malhotra noted that inflation is expected to moderate further, gradually aligning with the target. Inflation is projected to average 4.5% in the first quarter (Q1) of 2025-26, followed by 4% in Q2, 3.8% in Q3, and 4.2% in Q4

 

 

Significance of Repo Rate and Reverse Repo Rate

The repo rate and reverse repo rate play a fundamental role in India’s monetary policy, influencing liquidity, inflation, and overall economic growth. These rates are determined by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and serve as key instruments for regulating money flow in the financial system.

Significance of Repo Rate

  • The repo rate (short for repurchase rate) is the interest rate at which commercial banks borrow short-term funds from the RBI by pledging government securities.
  • It serves as a benchmark for interest rates across the banking sector and plays a crucial role in controlling inflation and boosting economic growth.
  • When inflation rises, the RBI increases the repo rate to make borrowing costlier for banks. As a result, banks raise their lending rates for businesses and consumers, reducing money supply in the economy.
  • This, in turn, helps to control inflation by curbing excess spending. On the other hand, when economic growth slows down, the RBI lowers the repo rate to encourage borrowing.
  • A reduction in the repo rate leads to cheaper loans for industries and individuals, stimulating investment and consumer demand.
  • The repo rate also impacts sectors such as housing and automobile industries, as changes in interest rates affect home loans, car loans, and business financing. Thus, it serves as a vital tool for the RBI to maintain economic stability by balancing inflation and growth.

Significance of Reverse Repo Rate

  • The reverse repo rate is the rate at which the RBI borrows funds from commercial banks. It acts as an instrument to absorb excess liquidity from the banking system, helping to control inflation and maintain financial stability.
  • When there is surplus liquidity in the market, the RBI increases the reverse repo rate to encourage banks to park their excess funds with the central bank rather than lending it out. This reduces the money supply in the economy, helping to control inflation.
  • Conversely, when liquidity is tight, the RBI lowers the reverse repo rate, making it less attractive for banks to deposit their funds with the RBI and encouraging them to lend more to businesses and individuals, thereby stimulating economic activity.
  • The interplay between repo and reverse repo rates ensures that liquidity remains at an optimal level, neither causing excessive inflation nor stifling economic growth. By adjusting these rates, the RBI maintains financial discipline and ensures that the economy grows at a sustainable pace

 

Following Up Question

1.Consider the following statements:  (UPSC 2021)
1. The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central Government.
2. Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in the public interest.
3. The Governor of the RBI draws his natural power from the RBI Act.
 
Which of the above statements is/are correct? 
 
A. 1 and 2 only   
B.  2 and 3 only     
C. 1 and 3 only     
D. 1, 2 and 3

 

Answer (C)
 
  • The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is appointed by the Central GovernmentCorrect.

    • The appointment of the RBI Governor is made by the Central Government under Section 8(1)(a) of the RBI Act, 1934. The Governor is typically appointed for a term of four years, and the government has the power to extend or terminate the term.
  • Certain provisions in the Constitution of India give the Central Government the right to issue directions to the RBI in the public interestIncorrect.

    • The Constitution of India does not contain any specific provision that allows the Central Government to direct the RBI. However, under Section 7 of the RBI Act, 1934, the government has the power to issue directions to the RBI in matters of public interest. Since this provision is part of the RBI Act and not the Constitution, the statement is incorrect.
  • The Governor of the RBI draws his natural power from the RBI ActCorrect.

    • The Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 is the legal framework that governs the functioning of the RBI, including the powers and responsibilities of the Governor. The Governor's authority and duties are derived from this Act, making the statement correct.
 
 
 
Subject and Subject Wise Notes for the Sunday Exam (Free)
 
Subject Topic Description
Polity Centre and State relations Centre State and interstate relations
Environment & Ecology Marine Ecosystem Marine Ecosystem
Economy Consumer Rights Consumer Rights
Ancient History Buddhism Buddhism
 

 

UPSC EXAM NOTES will be conducting both Prelims and Mains exams every Sunday as part of the Integrated Mains and Prelims (IMPM) Program. This program provides a comprehensive approach to UPSC exam preparation, ensuring that candidates are well-prepared for both stages of the exam.

Program Highlights:

  • Daily Study Keys: Each day, we will provide keys that outline what to read, focusing on the most relevant topics and current affairs.
  • Subject Notes: In addition to daily keys, we will supply detailed subject notes to help you build a strong foundation in all necessary areas.
  • Sunday Exams: Every Sunday, a combined exam will be held, encompassing the daily keys' content and subject notes, along with a culmination of current affairs from various sources. These exams will cover both Prelims and Mains syllabi.
  • Format: Exams will be available in both online and offline formats to cater to different preferences and situations.

Duration: The IMPM plan is a one-year program, ensuring continuous and structured preparation over 12 months. With regular testing and consistent study guidance, this program is designed to maximize your chances of success in the UPSC exams

 
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