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Critical Topics and Their Significance for the UPSC CSE Examination on May 06, 2025
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For Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international Significance
For Mains Examination: GS II - Indian Polity & Governance
Context:
Recently, the Supreme Court, for the first time, ruled that the President should take a decision on the Bills reserved for consideration by the Governor within three months from the date on which such reference is received.
Read about:
Governor's assent to the bills
Top Court Judgements on Governor's powers
Key takeaways:
- The Indian Constitution outlines the framework for appointing a Governor. According to Article 153, each state must have a Governor. Article 155 provides that the Governor is appointed by the President through an official warrant bearing the President's signature and seal. As per Article 156, although the Governor typically serves a five-year term, they remain in office at the discretion of the President.
- This means that the President can ask the Governor to resign before the term ends. However, since the President acts based on the counsel of the Prime Minister and the Union Cabinet, it is effectively the central government that controls both the appointment and removal of a Governor.
- Articles 157 and 158 describe the eligibility criteria and terms for holding the office. The Governor must be an Indian citizen and at least 35 years old. Additionally, the individual must not be a sitting member of either Parliament or any state legislature, and cannot hold any position that offers financial gain
- The Constitution mandates that the Governor must generally act in accordance with the advice provided by the state's Council of Ministers. Article 163 clarifies this by stating that a Council of Ministers, led by the Chief Minister, shall assist and guide the Governor in carrying out his duties—except in cases where the Constitution allows the Governor to act independently at his discretion.
- Furthermore, the Governor holds constitutional authority to summon, prorogue, or dissolve the State Legislative Assembly. However, these powers are to be exercised only after consulting the Council of Ministers.
- In his role as the ceremonial head of the state, the Governor also holds several important responsibilities, such as appointing the Chief Minister, members of the Council of Ministers, the Advocate General, the State Election Commissioner, heads of state universities, and members and the Chairman of the State Public Service Commission, among others
The Governor holds certain constitutional powers, one of which includes the authority to approve or reject a Bill passed by both Houses of the State Legislature. As outlined in Article 200 of the Constitution, the Governor has multiple courses of action:
– Approve the Bill by giving assent,
– Decline to give assent,
– Send the Bill back for reconsideration (if it is not a Money Bill),
– Forward the Bill to the President for further review.
Although Article 200 includes a proviso requiring the Governor to return the Bill "as soon as possible," it does not set a specific timeframe. This lack of clarity has occasionally led to prolonged delays in the Governor’s decision-making.
To address such concerns, the Supreme Court recently issued guidelines that impose time constraints on gubernatorial actions regarding Bills. These include:
– Giving assent within one month,
– Avoiding refusal of assent if it contradicts the advice of the Council of Ministers,
– Returning a Bill within three months,
– Stating any objections or reservations within three months, and
– If the Bill is passed again after reconsideration, giving assent within one month.
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The powers, responsibilities, and overall role of the Governor have frequently come under review, drawing attention from both central government-appointed committees and the Supreme Court of India. Starting with the Administrative Reforms Commission in 1969 and extending to the Punchhi Commission in 2007, numerous expert bodies set up over the years have proposed comprehensive reforms concerning various aspects of the Governor's office, including the method of appointment, scope of authority, duration of tenure, procedure for removal, and other related issues. |
The Sarkaria Commission, in its 1988 report on Centre-State relations, proposed reforms concerning the Governor's role, especially in the context of Articles 200 and 201 of the Constitution.
The National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2001), chaired by M.N. Venkatachaliah and initiated during Prime Minister Atal Bihari Vajpayee’s tenure, noted that Governors often function as representatives of the Central Government, leading to perceptions of bias and political controversy in their decisions.
In 2007, the Punchhi Commission re-evaluated the Centre-State dynamic and recommended that a Governor should be appointed only after consulting the Chief Minister of the respective state. It also emphasized the importance of prompt action by the Governor on legislative bills.
Over time, the impartiality of the Governor’s office has been questioned, prompting judicial intervention. The Supreme Court has, through a series of landmark judgments, clarified the scope and limitations of the Governor’s powers:
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Shamsher Singh vs State of Punjab (1974): The court ruled that the Governor must act based on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
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Raghukul Tilak vs State of Haryana (1979): The judgment emphasized that Governors are not subordinate to the Centre, but occupy a vital constitutional role within the state.
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S.R. Bommai vs Union of India (1994): A milestone ruling, it held that the Governor’s recommendation for imposing President’s Rule under Article 356 must be backed by a floor test, and such decisions are open to judicial review.
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Rameshwar Prasad vs Union of India (2006): Addressing the dissolution of the Bihar Assembly, the Supreme Court stated that the Governor’s personal opinion cannot justify invoking President’s Rule in a state
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
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Answer (C)
“The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.” Statement 2:“When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.” |
For Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international Significance
For Mains Examination: GS III - Economy
Context:
Instead of trying to cool open market prices through offloading of its stocks, the Narendra Modi government conserved its stocks and let prices rise. The stratagem has seemingly paid off
Read about:
Monetary Policy Committee (MPC)
Commission for Agricultural Costs & Prices (CACP)
Key takeaways:
• As defined by Investopedia, a "Goldilocks economy" refers to an optimal economic state—not overly strong, nor too weak—echoing the idea from the fairy tale “Goldilocks and the Three Bears.” This term signifies a balanced economic environment characterized by steady growth, low inflation, and full employment. In such a scenario, the economy grows just enough to avoid recession but not so rapidly as to trigger inflation.
• While economists may differ on the precise features of a Goldilocks economy, there is general agreement that it involves a healthy balance among economic growth, inflation control, and employment levels.
• A parallel can be drawn to agriculture: when farmers harvest a productive crop that earns them good returns, grain availability meets the needs of both private buyers and government procurement agencies, thereby replenishing buffer stocks. This situation, with its balanced outcomes, can be likened to a Goldilocks scenario.
• On April 1 of the previous year, wheat stocks in government warehouses fell to 7.5 million tonnes—the lowest for that date since 2008. With limited supplies in both government reserves and private markets, Delhi’s wholesale wheat prices surged to over Rs 3,200 per quintal by January, compared to Rs 2,500 a year prior.
• In 2023–24 (April–March), wheat sales from government stocks in the open market exceeded 10 million tonnes. By contrast, in 2024–25, they stood at just over 4 million tonnes. Instead of curbing rising prices by releasing more grain into the market, the Modi government chose to conserve stocks, allowing market prices to climb.
• This approach appears to have yielded positive results. As of April, opening wheat stocks had risen to 11.8 million tonnes, and the new harvest turned out to be abundant. Government procurement is expected to exceed 30 million tonnes this season (April–June), marking the highest collection in four years.
• Across most wholesale markets in major wheat-growing states, the crop is being sold at approximately the minimum support price (MSP) of Rs 2,425 per quintal. These prices are seen as fair compensation for farmers. Higher MSPs—along with state-level bonuses in Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh—and favorable growing conditions such as sufficient soil moisture and irrigation, encouraged greater sowing.
• Additionally, the absence of major weather disruptions helped improve yields. As a result, the tense supply situation caused by the heatwave-damaged wheat crop of March 2022 has now given way to a much more balanced and stable scenario—what one might call a "just right" or Goldilocks outcome
Follow Up Question
1.Consider the following crops:
1. Cotton
2. Groundnut
3. Rice
4. Wheat
Which of these are Kharif crops?
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2, 3 and 4
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Answer (c)
To determine which crops are Kharif crops, let’s understand what that means: Kharif crops are sown at the beginning of the monsoon (around June) and harvested around September–October. Now, let’s analyze each crop:
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The Sixteenth Finance Commission is scheduled to oversee fiscal matters for the five-year period starting 2026–27, with its recommendations expected to be reviewed by the government during the presentation of the 2026–27 Union Budget.
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The Finance Commission is established by the President under Article 280 of the Constitution. Its main responsibility is to make recommendations on the division of tax revenues between the Centre and the States, as well as among the states. It aims to address vertical fiscal imbalances—those between the revenue-raising capabilities and expenditure obligations of the Union and State governments—and to promote uniformity in public service delivery across all states.
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The 15th Finance Commission, led by N.K. Singh, submitted two separate reports. The initial report covered the fiscal year 2020–21 and was laid before Parliament in February 2020. The final report, with recommendations for 2021–26, was presented in February 2021. It recommended that the states receive 41% of the Centre's shareable tax revenue, consistent with the interim allocation for 2020–21. This marked a slight decrease from the 42% suggested by the 14th Finance Commission (2015–20), with the reduction attributed to the reorganisation of Jammu & Kashmir into Union Territories.
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In submissions to the upcoming 16th Commission, several state governments have advocated for a higher share in the tax pool, with some even proposing an increase to 50% from the current 41%.
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These demands are not without basis. While the 14th and 15th Commissions increased the states’ share, the Union government has increasingly used cesses and surcharges, which do not form part of the divisible pool, thereby reducing the actual funds available to states.
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According to RBI data, the divisible pool has diminished from 88.6% of the Centre’s gross tax revenue in 2011–12 to 78.9% in 2021–22. Consequently, states have effectively received only around 32% of the gross tax revenues in recent years.
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Given the fiscal pressures on the Union Budget, significantly increasing transfers to states may be financially difficult. However, since states account for roughly 60% of total public spending, there is merit in their call for more fiscal autonomy. One solution could be to increase the proportion of untied funds (those not restricted by specific schemes), which would require a restructuring of centrally-sponsored schemes—a politically and administratively sensitive issue.
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Over time, centrally-sponsored schemes—designed to address both political and developmental priorities—have led the Union government to spend more in areas that constitutionally belong to the state or concurrent list.
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In recent years, there has also been a rise in direct cash transfer schemes. A report by Axis Bank highlights that 14 states have launched income support programs, collectively amounting to 0.6% of GDP
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Answer (D)
The Finance Commission of India is primarily responsible for:
The Commission does not:
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Until 2021-22, India's maize production, which ranged between 32-33 million tonnes (mt), surpassed the domestic demand of approximately 28 mt. This surplus enabled the country to export maize, reaching 3.7 mt in the 2021-22 period.
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Of the 28 mt demand, about 20 mt was used by the livestock feed industry, with 15 mt allocated for poultry (broilers and egg layers) and 5 mt for cattle feed. An additional 5 mt was utilized in industrial starch production, 2 mt for human consumption, and 1 mt for seeds and other purposes.
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The dynamics shifted when maize began to be used as a feedstock for ethanol production, a high-purity alcohol (99.9%) that can be mixed with petrol. Maize grains are rich in starch (68-72%) and contain 1-3% other carbohydrates (sucrose, glucose, and fructose).
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Carbohydrates, the primary energy source for livestock, can also be fermented into ethanol using yeast. A tonne of maize yields around 380 litres of ethanol. The process involves milling the grains into flour, breaking down starch into simpler sugars, fermenting them into alcohol, distilling to increase the alcohol concentration, and finally dehydrating to produce fuel-grade ethanol.
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After the ethanol is extracted and distilled, the leftover wet fermented grain mash is dried to produce Distiller's Dried Grains with Solubles (DDGS). This by-product is a protein-rich ingredient now used as an alternative livestock feed.
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Distilleries currently sell DDGS from maize at Rs 16,000-17,000 per tonne, while DDGS from rice is priced at Rs 18,000-19,000 per tonne. In contrast, soyabean de-oiled cake (DOC), which contains 45% protein, costs around Rs 31,000-32,000 per tonne.
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The production of DDGS from maize is significant. For instance, 12.7 mt of maize yields approximately 4.2 mt of DDGS, which accounts for 33% of the grain's weight. In comparison, rice-based DDGS content is around 25%, with 1 mt of DDGS expected from the 4 mt of rice required to produce 174.4 crore litres of ethanol in the 2024-25 period.
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DDGS from maize contains 28-30% protein, while DDGS derived from rice can have up to 45% protein. Livestock feed manufacturers typically use de-oiled cakes (DOC) from soyabean, mustard, cottonseed, groundnut, or rice bran, but these are more expensive than DDGS.
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The price of maize in India has surged from Rs 14,000-15,000 per tonne to Rs 24,000-25,000 per tonne in the last four years, largely due to the ethanol-blended petrol program.
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India permits the import of up to 0.5 mt of maize annually at a 15% duty, with a 50% duty on any additional quantities. Genetically modified (GM) maize is not allowed for import. During April-January 2024-25, India imported 0.94 mt of maize, with 0.51 mt from Myanmar and 0.39 mt from Ukraine, both of which do not cultivate GM maize.
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Allowing GM maize imports could benefit the top three exporters—the United States, Brazil, and Argentina, as they are major producers of GM maize. The US is particularly seeking new markets after China, once its largest buyer of maize and soybeans (both GM), significantly reduced imports.
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Answer (A)
According to India's National Policy on Biofuels, the following materials can be used as raw materials for the production of biofuels:
However, Groundnut seeds and Horse gram are typically not highlighted as biofuel raw materials in the policy, which is why they are not included in the correct answer |
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Pegasus, also referred to as the Q Suite, is a surveillance software developed by former members of Israeli intelligence and is marketed by NSO Group, also known as Q Cyber Technologies, as a cutting-edge cyber intelligence tool. It enables law enforcement and intelligence agencies to covertly and remotely extract information from nearly all mobile devices.
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Prior to 2018, NSO Group’s customers mainly used deceptive messages sent via SMS or WhatsApp to trick users into clicking malicious links. This method, called Enhanced Social Engineering Message (ESEM) in Pegasus’ marketing materials, directed users to a server that would detect the phone’s operating system and install the appropriate exploit for remote access.
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In October 2019, Amnesty International released a report highlighting the use of network injections, a method allowing Pegasus to be installed on devices without any user interaction—a zero-click attack. One technique involves sending a covert push message that triggers spyware installation silently, with the user remaining completely unaware and unable to stop the process.
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Pegasus has shown the ability to infect almost any mobile device, including Apple’s iPhones, by exploiting the iMessage app and the Apple Push Notification Service (APNs). The spyware is capable of mimicking legitimate apps and transmitting itself through Apple’s servers via push notifications.
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Regarding the Justice R.V. Raveendran committee, which investigated claims of Pegasus being used for surveillance on journalists, activists, and politicians, Justice Surya Kant emphasized that any report implicating national security would remain confidential.
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He added that individuals concerned about being surveilled may be informed personally but insisted the findings cannot be made public for general debate, as this could compromise sensitive national interests. Justice Kant made these remarks while leading a bench with Justice N. Kotiswar Singh, hearing multiple petitions filed in response to the Pegasus revelations from 2021.
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Senior Advocate Dinesh Dwivedi, representing some petitioners, argued that even if surveillance wasn’t proven in a specific case, the key concern remains whether the government possesses and uses Pegasus.
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To this, Justice Kant responded that merely possessing such spyware isn't illegal; the core issue lies in how and against whom it is deployed. He stated, "It’s not a simple matter—you can’t jeopardize national security."
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Senior Advocate Kapil Sibal, also representing petitioners, referenced a US District Court ruling on NSO Group’s alleged hacking of WhatsApp accounts using Pegasus. Sibal claimed that the court identified India as one of the affected nations, citing WhatsApp’s own statements.
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He also mentioned the formation of the R.V. Raveendran Committee by the Supreme Court in October 2021 to investigate potential violations of citizens’ fundamental rights due to alleged widespread surveillance.
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In its August 25, 2022 order, the Supreme Court acknowledged that while the committee discovered malware in five phones, there was no conclusive proof that Pegasus was involved. The court further noted that the central government had not cooperated with the investigation
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Answer (4)
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National Investigation Agency (NIA)
For Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international Significance
For Mains Examination: GS II - Governance
Context:
More than 16 years after the 26/11 Mumbai terror attacks, Tahawwur Rana, one of the key conspirators, was finally extradited to India from the US to face trial.
Read about:
What is the National Investigation Agency (NIA)?
What is the India-US extradition treaty?
Key takeaways:
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The India-United States extradition treaty, signed in June 1997, laid down a formal legal structure to facilitate the transfer of individuals accused or convicted of serious crimes in either nation.
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For an offence to qualify for extradition under this treaty, it must be punishable by more than one year of imprisonment in both countries.
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The treaty excludes political offences from extradition. However, certain acts—including the murder or intentional attack on a Head of State or their family, hijacking, sabotage in aviation, attacks on internationally protected persons, and hostage-taking—are explicitly not classified as political offences.
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By 2023, India had formal extradition treaties in place with 48 nations and extradition arrangements with 12 additional countries.
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Tahawwur Hussain Rana, an associate of Lashkar-e-Taiba operative David Coleman Headley, was taken into custody by the National Investigation Agency (NIA) immediately upon his arrival, following the completion of required legal procedures. A medical check was also conducted at the airport.
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Rana, a Pakistani-Canadian national and former member of the Pakistan Army Medical Corps, is accused of providing essential logistical support to the perpetrators of the 2008 Mumbai attacks. He had been arrested in Chicago in October 2009, nearly a year after the incident.
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The NIA stated that it had “successfully secured the extradition of Tahawwur Hussain Rana, one of the key planners behind the 26/11 Mumbai terror attacks,” after years of coordinated and persistent efforts to ensure he faces justice in India.
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Rana’s extradition was announced two months after then-U.S. President Donald Trump, standing alongside Indian Prime Minister Narendra Modi at the White House, declared: “Today, I am pleased to announce that my administration has approved the extradition of one of the plotters of the horrific Mumbai terrorist attack. He will now return to India to face justice.”
1.Which of the following statements regarding the National Investigation Agency (NIA) is/are correct?
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The NIA was established under an Act of Parliament in response to the 2008 Mumbai terror attacks.
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The NIA has the authority to investigate offences listed under the Unlawful Activities (Prevention) Act (UAPA), even outside India.
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The NIA functions under the administrative control of the Ministry of Defence.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
A) 1 and 2 only
B) 2 and 3 only
C) 1 and 3 only
D) 1, 2 and 3
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Answer (A)
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| Subject | Topic | Description |
| Polity | Municipalities | Municipalities |
| Polity | Emergency Provisions | Emergency Provisions |
| History | Medieval History | Harshavardhan |
| Environment | Protected Area | Protected Area |
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