2. About cybercrime

Cybercrime is essentially any illegal activity that involves computers, networks, or digital devices. Criminals can use these tools to steal data, commit fraud, disrupt computer systems, or cause other harm. Some common types of cybercrime include:

• Stealing someone's personal information like their name, Social Security number, or credit card details to impersonate them and commit fraud.
• Tricking people into giving up their personal information or clicking on malicious links by disguising emails or websites as legitimate ones.
• Malicious software that can be installed on a computer to steal data, damage files, or disrupt operations.
• Gaining unauthorized access to a computer system or network to steal data, install malware, or cause damage.

3. What is NCRP?

The National Cybercrime Reporting Portal is an online platform established by the government of India to facilitate the reporting of cybercrimes by citizens. The portal allows individuals to report incidents of cybercrime in a streamlined and accessible manner.

Key features and functions of the National Cybercrime Reporting Portal include

• Individuals can report various types of cybercrimes such as online harassment, financial fraud, ransomware attacks, and identity theft. The portal provides specific categories for different types of cyber incidents to ensure proper documentation and handling.
• The portal places a special emphasis on crimes related to women and children, providing a dedicated section to report cases of online harassment, child pornography, and other related offences.
• The portal allows users to report crimes anonymously if they choose, ensuring the confidentiality and privacy of the complainant.
• Once a complaint is filed, the portal provides a tracking number which can be used to follow up on the status of the complaint.
• The portal offers resources and guidelines on how to protect oneself from cybercrime, as well as information on legal recourse and support available for victims.

5. What is the Budapest Convention?

The Budapest Convention, also known as the Council of Europe Convention on Cybercrime, is the world's first international treaty specifically designed to address cybercrime. It came into effect in 2004 with three main objectives:

1. The convention aims to improve how countries investigate cybercrime by setting standards for collecting electronic evidence and fostering cooperation between law enforcement agencies.
2. It facilitates cooperation among member states in tackling cybercrime. This includes sharing information, assisting with investigations, and extraditing cybercriminals.
3. The convention encourages member countries to harmonize their national laws related to cybercrime. This creates a more unified approach to defining and prosecuting cyber offences.

India's Stand: India is not currently a party to the Budapest Convention. There are concerns that some provisions, like data sharing with foreign law enforcement agencies, might infringe on India's national sovereignty. India has also argued that it wasn't involved in drafting the initial convention.

6. What is the Global Cybersecurity Index?

The Global Cybersecurity Index (GCI) is an initiative by the International Telecommunication Union (ITU) to measure and rank the cybersecurity capabilities of countries around the world. The index provides insights into the commitment of countries to cybersecurity at a global level, assessing their strengths and identifying areas for improvement. The key aspects of the Global Cybersecurity Index

Purpose

• To promote cybersecurity awareness and foster a global culture of cybersecurity.
• To encourage countries to enhance their cybersecurity infrastructure and strategies.
• To facilitate knowledge sharing and cooperation among nations.

Assessment Criteria

 The GCI evaluates countries based on five main pillars:

1. Examines the existence of cybersecurity legislation and regulatory frameworks.
2. Assesses the implementation of cybersecurity technologies and technical institutions.
3.  Looks at national cybersecurity strategies, policies, and dedicated agencies.
4. Evaluate the availability of cybersecurity education, training, and awareness programs.
5. Measures the extent of international and national cooperation in cybersecurity efforts.

Impact

 The GCI serves several important functions:

• Provides a benchmarking tool for countries to assess their cybersecurity maturity.
• Helps policymakers identify gaps and prioritize areas for improvement.
• Encourages international cooperation and collaboration to tackle global cyber threats.

7. The challenges related to cyber security in India

India faces numerous challenges related to cybersecurity, reflecting its rapidly growing digital economy and increasing reliance on technology. 

Increasing Cyber Threats:

• India has seen a significant rise in cybercrimes, including hacking, phishing, ransomware attacks, and identity theft. Sophisticated, state-sponsored attacks targeting critical infrastructure and sensitive data are becoming more common.
• Many public and private sector systems rely on outdated technology, making them vulnerable to attacks. Inadequate implementation of robust cybersecurity measures and protocols leaves systems exposed.
• There is a significant gap in the number of trained cybersecurity experts needed to protect against and respond to cyber threats. Ongoing education and training programs are insufficient to keep pace with evolving cyber threats.
• The absence of a unified regulatory framework complicates cybersecurity management. While laws like the IT Act 2000 exist, enforcement and implementation remain inconsistent and weak.
• Many individuals and small businesses lack awareness of basic cybersecurity practices. Practices like using weak passwords, not updating software, and falling for phishing scams are common.
• The absence of robust data protection legislation makes it difficult to safeguard personal and sensitive data. Ensuring privacy and protection of personal information remains a significant challenge.
• Effective cybersecurity often requires international cooperation, which is currently limited and inconsistent. Cross-border cyber threats and geopolitical tensions complicate collaboration and response efforts.
• The rapid adoption of IoT devices, often with minimal security features, increases vulnerabilities. While AI can enhance security, it also introduces new risks and attack vectors.
• Sectors like banking, healthcare, and energy are increasingly targeted, requiring enhanced protection measures. Ensuring coordinated efforts among various governmental and private entities involved in critical infrastructure protection is challenging.
• Limited financial resources allocated for cybersecurity initiatives hinder the development and implementation of comprehensive security measures.
• Staying abreast of the latest cybersecurity technologies and tools is difficult due to financial and logistical constraints.

 

Source: The Indian Express

 

 

CLIMATE FINANCE

 

 

1. Context 

India’s G20 Presidency delivered a clear message to the world: The 20th-century multilateral framework is no longer fit for purpose. Nowhere is this failure more evident, or more dangerous, than in the architecture of global climate finance. The need for multilateralism is non-negotiable.

 

2. What is Climate finance?

• Climate finance entails substantial financial investments directed toward initiatives aimed at either mitigating or adapting to the impacts of climate change.
• In the context of adaptation, it involves proactively addressing the anticipated adverse effects of climate change and implementing measures to prevent or minimize potential damage.
• For instance, constructing infrastructure to safeguard coastal communities against rising sea levels is a tangible example of adaptation measures.
• Conversely, in the realm of mitigation, the focus is on curbing the emission of greenhouse gases (GHGs) into the atmosphere, thereby lessening the severity of climate change impacts.
• Mitigation efforts encompass strategies such as increasing the utilization of renewable energy sources, expanding forest cover, and other measures designed to reduce overall GHG emissions.

 

3. Why do Developing Nations Demand Climate Finance?

Developing nations demand climate finance for several reasons:

• Developed nations have historically emitted far more greenhouse gases than developing nations. Since the Industrial Revolution, the Global North has emitted a disproportionate share of the greenhouse gases that are now causing climate change. While developing nations are now rapidly increasing their emissions, the historical responsibility for the problem lies primarily with developed countries.
• Developing countries are disproportionately vulnerable to the negative impacts of climate change, such as extreme weather events, rising sea levels, and changes in agricultural productivity. They often lack the resources to adapt to these changes and build resilience.
• Developing countries have limited financial resources to invest in clean energy technologies and other climate solutions. They need financial assistance from developed countries to bridge the gap and make these investments.
• The principle of Common But Differentiated Responsibilities (CBDR) is enshrined in the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) and the Paris Agreement. This principle recognizes that all countries have a responsibility to address climate change, but that developed countries have a greater responsibility due to their historical emissions and greater financial capacity.
• Many argue that developed countries have a moral obligation to help developing countries address climate change, as they are the ones who are most vulnerable to its impacts and have the least responsibility for causing the problem.

International Agreements

The demand for climate finance is backed by international agreements, including:

• The 1992 United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) agreement established the principle of CBDR and required developed countries to provide financial assistance to developing countries.
• 2009 Copenhagen Accord Developed countries committed to providing $100 billion per year by 2020 to developing countries.
• The 2015 Paris Agreement reaffirmed the commitment to provide $100 billion per year by 2020 and extended it to 2025.

 

4. How much climate finance is needed?

• As of 2021, the UNFCCC standing committee's analysis suggests that developing countries require a minimum of $5.8 trillion by 2030 to fulfil the objectives outlined in their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs).
• These contributions serve as a framework for their initiatives to both reduce national emissions and adapt to the impacts of climate change.
• This translates to an annual need of around $600 billion, a figure significantly below the commitments made by developed nations.
• Complicating matters further, a report from the London School of Economics notes that the lack of available data, tools, and capacity in several countries may result in underestimations of these financial needs.
• Additionally, the UNFCCC estimate does not encompass the substantial expenses incurred by governments to address the impacts of extreme weather events like floods, droughts, and wildfires attributed to climate change.
• These costs are now being considered separately under the funding mechanism for loss and damage, announced by countries at COP27 in 2022 and officially launched during COP28. However, the scale and replenishment cycle of this mechanism remains unclear.
• In a report from 2022, Nicholas Stern, a prominent climate economist, estimated that an annual investment of approximately $2 trillion will be necessary by 2030 to assist developing countries in reducing their greenhouse gas emissions and coping with the consequences of climate breakdown.

5. How Much Climate Finance Reaches Developing Nations?

Different organizations provide contrasting figures on the amount of climate finance reaching developing countries.

• The Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development (OECD), largely composed of wealthy nations, reported $83.3 billion provided in 2020.
• Oxfam challenges the data, accusing developed countries of inflating their contributions by as much as 225%. Their estimate places the real value of climate finance provided in 2020 at $21-24.5 billion.
• Developed countries are criticized for offering much of the funding as non-concessional loans, adding to debt burdens in developing nations.
• A study by CARE International revealed that 52% of climate finance between 2011-2020 was diverted from existing development budgets, including critical areas like health, education, and women's rights.

Concerns and implications

• The discrepancy in reported figures raises questions about transparency and accountability in climate finance.
• The prevalence of non-concessional loans increases debt burdens and limits the effectiveness of climate finance in developing countries.
• Diverting funds from essential development priorities can exacerbate existing challenges in developing nations.

 

6. The Way Forward

The question of how much climate finance reaches developing countries remains contested. Deeper scrutiny and transparency are needed to ensure effective resource allocation and support meaningful climate action in vulnerable nations while safeguarding their development priorities.

 

For Prelims: COP28, Organisation for Economic Cooperation and Development, Climate Finance, Climate Change, United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change,  Nationally Determined Contributions, COP27, Copenhagen Accord, Paris Agreement  For Mains:  1. Discuss the impact of climate change on developing economies. How can climate finance be effectively utilized to promote sustainable development in these economies? (250 Words)

 

 

Previous Year Questions   1. With reference to the Agreement at the UNFCCC Meeting in Paris in 2015, which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2016) 1. The Agreement was signed by all the member countries of the UN and it will go into effect in 2017. 2. The Agreement aims to limit greenhouse gas emissions so that the rise in average global temperature by the end of this century does not exceed 2°C or even 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels. 3. Developed countries acknowledged their historical responsibility for global warming and committed to donate $1000 billion a year from 2020 to help developing countries cope with climate change.   Select the correct answer using the code given below A. 1 and 3 only B.  2 only C.  2 and 3 only D.  1, 2 and 3 Answer: B   2. The term ‘Intended Nationally Determined Contributions’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of ( UPSC 2016) A. pledges made by the European countries to rehabilitate refugees from the war-affected Middle East B. plan of action outlined by the countries of the world to combat climate change C. capital contributed by the member countries in the establishment of the Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank D. plan of action outlined by the countries of the world regarding Sustainable Development Goals Answer: B 3. The UN Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) has announced which country to host the 28th Conference of the Parties (COP28) in 2023? (SSC CGL  2023)  A. UAE         B. US          C. UK         D. Russia Answer: A   4. Consider the following statements with reference to Organisation for Economic Co-operation and Development (OECD): (RBI Grade B 2022) 1. OECD is an official Permanent observer to the United Nations and is referred to as a think-tank or as a monitoring group. 2. India is not a member of OECD. 3. OECD is funded by its member countries. Which of the statement given above is/ are correct?  A. 1 only       B. 1 and 2 only      C. 2 and 3 only        D. 1, 2 and 3          E. 2 only Answer: D 5. Which of the following statements regarding 'Green Climate Fund' is/are correct? (UPSC 2015) 1. It is intended to assist the developing countries in adaptation and mitigation practices to counter climate change. 2. It is founded under the aegis of UNEP, OECS, Asian Development Bank and World Bank. Select the correct answer using the code given below. A. 1 only       B. 2 only         C. Both 1 and 2         D. Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: A 6. The 27th annual UN meeting on climate, COP27 (Conference of Parties) took place from 6th to 18th November, in which of the following country?  (SSC GD Constable 2023) A. France       B. Brazil        C. Indonesia       D. Egypt Answer: D 7. According to the Copenhagen Accord, what percentage of India has promised to reduce carbon emissions by the year 2020 as compared to 2005? (UP Police SI 2017)  A. 20-25 percent  B. 10-15 percent         C. 30-35 percent       D. 5-10 percent Answers: 1-B, 2-B, 3-A, 4-D, 5-A, 6-D, 7-A Mains 1. Describe the major outcomes of the 26th session of the Conference of the Parties (COP) to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC). What are the commitments made by India in this conference? (upsc 2021)

 

Source: The Indian Express

 

 

AIR QUALITY INDEX (AQI)

 

1. Context

Every winter brings a yearly reminder of India’s persistent air pollution problem, in the form of smog blanketing cities across northern India.

 

2. The Air Quality Index (AQI)

The AQI is a colour-coded index launched under the Swachh Bharat campaign to simplify the understanding of pollution levels. It helps convey the condition of the air and guides appropriate measures based on the severity of pollution. The AQI consists of six categories, each with a corresponding colour code: 'Good' (0-50), 'Satisfactory' (51-100), 'Moderately Polluted' (101-200), 'Poor' (201-300), 'Very Poor' (301-400) and 'Severe' (401-500).

3. Calculation of AQI

• To calculate the AQI, a technical study was conducted by an expert group, including medical professionals, air quality experts, and academics.
• Various pollutants, such as PM10, PM2.5, Nitrogen Dioxide, Ozone, Carbon, and others, are measured.
• Each pollutant is assigned a weight based on its impact on human health.
• The composite air quality index is determined by combining these weights, simplifying multiple data points into a single number and colour to represent overall air quality.
• Monitoring stations across the country assess these pollutant levels.

4. Impact of Pollutants on Health

• Among the most harmful pollutants are fine particulate matter, such as PM2.5, which has a diameter smaller than 2.5 micrometres.
• PM2.5 particles can easily enter the circulatory system, bypassing the nose and throat.
• They are associated with respiratory problems and reduced visibility, posing health risks such as asthma, heart attacks, bronchitis, and other respiratory issues.

5. Influence on Government Policy

• Governments, especially in areas like Delhi, use the AQI to announce measures to combat air pollution.
• When the AQI in the National Capital Region (NCR) reaches the 'severe' category, Stage 4 of the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) is implemented.
• GRAP is designed for emergency measures to prevent further deterioration of air quality.
• Specific actions may include prohibiting the use of non-BS-VI-compliant diesel four-wheelers and restricting the entry of trucks into the city while allowing petrol cars to continue operating as usual.

6. Conclusion

The Air Quality Index is an essential tool that simplifies the understanding of air pollution, assesses its health impacts, and influences government policies and actions to combat deteriorating air quality. As Mumbai braces for worsening air quality, the AQI will continue to be a critical resource for both the government and the public.

 

For Prelims: Air Pollution, Air Quality Index, PM 2.5, PM 10, BS-VI Vehicles, Graded Response Action Plan, National Capital Region, Nitrogen Dioxide, Ozone, Carbon,  For Mains:  1. With the onset of worsening air quality in Mumbai, discuss the importance of the AQI as a critical resource for both the government and the public. How can the AQI assist in addressing air pollution-related challenges in the upcoming winter months? (250 Words)

 

Previous Year Questions 1. In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index? (UPSC 2016) Carbon dioxide Carbon monoxide Nitrogen dioxide Sulfur dioxide Methane Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1, 2 and 3 only      B. 2, 3 and 4 only   C. 1, 4 and 5 only     D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Answer: B 2. Which of the following are the reasons/factors for exposure to benzene pollution? (UPSC 2020) Automobile exhaust Tobacco smoke Wood burning Using varnished wooden furniture Using products made of polyurethane Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1, 2 and 3 only  B. 2 and 4 only   C. 1, 3 and 4 only     D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Answer: A 3. What is the ‘Greenhouse Gas Protocol’? (UPSC 2016) (a) It is an international accounting tool for government and business leaders to understand, quantify and manage greenhouse gas emissions (b) It is an initiative of the United Nations to offer financial incentives to developing countries to reduce greenhouse gas emissions and to adopt eco-friendly technologies. (c) It is an inter-governmental agreement ratified by all the member countries of the United Nations to reduce greenhouse gas emissions to specified levels by the year 2022 (d) It is one of the multilateral REDD+ initiatives hosted by the World Bank Answer: A 4. Photochemical smog is a resultant of the reaction among (UPSC 2013) (a) NO2, O3 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight (b) CO, O2 and peroxyacetyl nitrate in the presence of sunlight (c) CO, CO2 and NO2 at low temperature (d) high concentration of NO2 O3 and CO in the evening Answer: A   5. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of the environment (UPSC 2013, 2022) (a) Carbon Dioxide and Nitrogen (b) Carbon Monoxide and Carbon Dioxide (c) Ozone and Carbon Dioxide (d) Nitrous Oxide and Sulphur Dioxide  Answer: D   6. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for (UPSC 2017) (a) Measuring oxygen level in blood (b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems (c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystem (d) Assessing oxygen levels in high-altitude regions Answer: C 7. The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change recently published the draft Environment Impact Assessment (EIA) Notification, in 2020. Which of the following statements is correct about EIA? (Punjab Civil Service 2020) 1. It predicts the effect of a proposed industrial/infrastructural project on the environment. 2. It prevents the proposed activity/project from being approved without proper oversight or taking adverse consequences into account. 3. It compares various alternatives for a project and seeks to identify the one which represents the best combination of economic and environmental costs and benefits. 4. As per the new notification, Coal and non-Coal mineral prospecting and solar photovoltaic projects do not need prior environmental clearance. Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. Only 1 and 2 B. Only 2, 3 and 4 C. Only 1, 2 and 3 D. Only 1, 2 and 4 Answer: D   8.  Headquarters of the World Meteorological Organization is located in (NDA 2017) A. Washington        B. Geneva         C. Moscow         D.  London   Answer: B     9. With reference to the 'Global Climate Change Alliance', which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2017) 1. It is an initiative of the European Union. 2. It provides technical and financial support to targeted developing countries to integrate climate change into their development policies and budgets. 3. It is coordinated by World Resources Institute (WRI) and World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD) Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 and 2 only            B. 3 only           C. 2 and 3 only              D. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: A   10. The IPCC is the United Nations body for assessing the science related to climate change. IPCC stands for: (RRB NTPC CBT 2 2022) A. Intergovernmental Provision on Climate Change B. International Panel on Climate Change C. International Provision on Climate Change D. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change   Answer: D     11. Comprehension (SSC CHSL 2020)   Direction: In the following passage some words have been deleted. Fill in the blanks with the help of the alternatives given. Select the most appropriate option for each blank. Forest fire always (1) ______ by one of two reasons-naturally caused or human-caused. Natural fire is generally (2) ______ by lightning, with a very small percentage (3) ______ by spontaneous combustion of dry fuel such as sawdust and leaves. (4) ______, human-caused fire can happen (5) ______ any number of reasons. Select the most appropriate option for blank No. 1. A. takes up    B. happens    C. causes    D. creates   Answer: B   12. Which of the following statements best describes the term 'Social Cost of Carbon'? It is a measure, in monetary value, of the (UPSC 2020)  A. long-term damage done by a tonne of CO2 emission in a given year. B. requirement of fossil fuels for a country to provide goods and services to its citizens, based on the burning of those fuels. C. efforts put in by a climate refugee to adapt to live in a new place. D. contribution of an individual person to the carbon footprint on the planet Earth.   Answer: A   13. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs (UPSC 2012) A. the water vapour of the air and retains its heat B. the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation C. all the solar radiations D. the infrared part of the solar radiation   Answer: D   14. As per the World Health Organisation (WHO) recommendation of a balanced diet, to avoid unhealthy weight gain, total fat should NOT exceed _______ of total energy intake. (UPSSSC Mandi Inspector 2019) A. 20%         B.  30%        C. 10%          D. 40%   Answer: B   15. What is the role of ultraviolet (UV) radiation in the water purification systems? (UPSC 2012) 1. It inactivates/kills the harmful microorganisms in water. 2. It removes all the undesirable odours from the water. 3. It quickens the sedimentation of solid particles, removes turbidity and improves the clarity of water. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only        B. 2 and 3 only          C. 1 and 3 only         D. 1, 2 and 3   Answer: A   16. Which of the following ultraviolet rays is more dangerous? (UPTET 2017) A. UV-A        B. UV-B          C.  UV-C          D.  None of the above   Answer: C   17. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2019)  1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment. 2. Cattle release ammonia into environment. 3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 3 only         B. 2 and 3 only          C. 2 only          D.  1, 2 and 3   Answer: D   18. Which of the following is a VOC? (MP Vyapam 2022)  A. Toulene          B. Water            C. Carbon dioxide          D. Carbon monoxide   Answer: A   19. Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) are of great concern because (UGC NET  Environmental Science  2020) A. Once such compounds are in the vapour state, they are difficult to control in the environment. B. Most of them are ozone depleting substances C. They contribute to a general increase in reactive hydrocarbons in the atmosphere. D. They are less soluble in water.   Answer: C

 Source: The Indian Express

 

DIGITAL PERSONAL DATA PROTECTION RULES

 

 

 

1. Context

 

Following pushback from disability rights activists, the Electronics and Information Technology Ministry has made changes to the Digital Personal Data Protection Rules, 2025, to separate persons with disabilities from a rule that, in a draft, clubbed them with children over consent from a guardian.

 

2. What do the DPDP Act and Rules do?

 

• The Government of India issued the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Rules, 2025 on 14 November 2025, completing the implementation of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023.
• With both the Act and Rules now in place, India has a comprehensive, citizen-oriented framework that balances personal data rights with legitimate data processing requirements.

• Before finalising the Rules, the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology sought inputs from the public. Consultations were organised across several major cities—Delhi, Mumbai, Guwahati, Kolkata, Hyderabad, Bengaluru and Chennai—drawing participation from startups, MSMEs, industry associations, civil society organisations, and government bodies.
• Citizens also contributed actively. Altogether, 6,915 suggestions and comments were submitted, significantly influencing the final version of the Rules.
• The notification of these Rules establishes a practical, innovation-supportive data protection regime for the country. It promotes clarity, encourages adherence to the law, and enhances public confidence in India’s expanding digital landscape.

 

 

3. Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023

 

 

• The Digital Personal Data Protection Act was passed by Parliament on 11 August 2023, establishing a comprehensive legal structure for safeguarding digital personal information in India.
• It outlines the responsibilities of organisations when they gather or process such data. The Act is built on the SARAL philosophy—Simple, Accessible, Rational and Actionable—using straightforward language and clear examples so that individuals and businesses can easily understand the requirements.
• The Act is anchored in seven foundational principles: consent and transparency, limitation of purpose, minimal collection of data, accuracy, restricted data retention, strong security measures and accountability. These principles shape each step of data handling and ensure that personal information is processed only for legitimate and defined purposes.
• A key highlight of the law is the establishment of the Data Protection Board of India, an autonomous authority responsible for monitoring compliance, investigating violations and ensuring that necessary corrective actions are taken.
• The Board is central to protecting user rights and fostering confidence in the data protection framework

 

Key Terms under the DPDP Act, 2023 Data Fiduciary: An organisation that determines the purpose and means of processing personal data, either independently or jointly with others. Data Principal: The person to whom the personal data belongs. For children, this includes a parent or authorised guardian. For individuals with disabilities who cannot act on their own, this extends to their lawful guardian. Data Processor: Any entity that processes personal information on behalf of a Data Fiduciary. Consent Manager: A platform that provides a unified, transparent interface through which Data Principals can grant, monitor, modify or withdraw consent. Appellate Tribunal: The Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT), which reviews appeals against decisions made by the Data Protection Board

 

 

 

4. Overview of the Digital Personal Data Protection Rules, 2025

 

The Digital Personal Data Protection Rules, 2025 operationalise the DPDP Act, 2023, creating a practical and transparent system for safeguarding personal data in India’s rapidly growing digital landscape. These Rules place strong emphasis on citizen rights and responsible data handling by organisations. Their objective is to prevent misuse of personal information, minimise digital risks, and foster an environment that supports safe innovation—thereby strengthening trust in India’s digital economy.

To achieve these goals, the Rules lay down several key provisions:

• A phased compliance period of 18 months has been introduced so organisations have adequate time to upgrade systems and adopt sound data-protection practices.
• All Data Fiduciaries must issue a separate, easy-to-read consent notice clearly stating the specific purpose for which personal data is collected and processed.
• Consent Managers—entities that help people manage their permissions—must operate as companies incorporated in India.
• The Rules also define a clear and prompt procedure for reporting data breaches. In the event of a breach, the Data Fiduciary must immediately notify every affected person in simple language, outlining what occurred, potential consequences and the corrective measures taken. The communication must also include relevant contact details for assistance.
• Each Data Fiduciary is required to provide accessible contact information for queries related to personal data—whether that is a designated officer or a Data Protection Officer. Significant Data Fiduciaries have additional responsibilities: they must conduct external audits, undertake impact assessments and implement stricter controls when using emerging or sensitive technologies.
• They may also be required to comply with government directions regarding restricted data categories, including localisation requirements when necessary.
• The Rules strengthen the rights granted under the Act. Individuals can request access to their personal information, corrections or updates, and deletion in permitted situations.
• They may also authorize another person to exercise these rights on their behalf. Data Fiduciaries must respond to such requests within 90 days.
• Additionally, the Rules provide for a fully digital Data Protection Board of India with four members. Citizens will be able to submit complaints online and track them through a dedicated website and mobile app, making grievance resolution faster and more efficient.
• Appeals against the Board’s orders will be handled by the Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT)

 

5. How the DPDP Rules Empower Individuals?

 

 

The DPDP framework puts citizens at the heart of India’s data protection regime. Its core purpose is to ensure that individuals have clear authority over their personal information and can trust that it is handled responsibly. The rules are drafted in simple, user-friendly language so people can easily understand their rights, while also ensuring that organisations remain accountable for how they manage personal data.

Key Rights and Safeguards Provided to Citizens:

• Right to Give or Withhold Consent
  Individuals have the freedom to agree or refuse the use of their personal data. Consent must be informed, specific, and easy to comprehend, and it can be withdrawn at any point.
• Right to Know How Data is Used
  People are entitled to know what information has been collected about them, the purpose of its collection, and the ways it is being processed. Organisations must share this information in a clear and straightforward format.
• Right to Access Personal Data
  Any individual may request a copy of the personal data that a Data Fiduciary holds about them.
• Right to Correct Personal Data
  Citizens can ask for corrections if their personal information is wrong, inaccurate, or incomplete.
• Right to Update Personal Data
  Individuals may request updates when their details change—such as a new phone number or address.
• Right to Delete Personal Data
  People have the option to seek erasure of their personal data under specific circumstances. The Data Fiduciary must review and act on such requests within the stipulated timeframe.
• Right to Appoint a Representative
  Every person may nominate someone else to exercise their data rights on their behalf—useful during illness or other situations where they cannot act themselves.
• Mandatory Response Within 90 Days
  Data Fiduciaries must respond to requests for access, correction, updating, or deletion within a maximum of ninety days, promoting timely redressal and accountability.
• Protection in Case of Data Breaches
  If a data breach occurs, affected individuals must be informed promptly. The notification must explain the incident and outline the steps they can take to reduce any potential harm.
• Clear Contact Point for Help
  Organisations must provide easily accessible contact details—either of a designated official or a Data Protection Officer—for queries or complaints related to personal data.
• Extra Safeguards for Children
  Processing children’s personal data requires verifiable consent from a parent or guardian, except when the data is used for essential services like medical care, education or immediate safety.

 

6. How the DPDP Framework Works in Harmony with the RTI Act?

 

• As the DPDP Act and its Rules strengthen citizens’ privacy protections, they also clarify how these enhanced rights coexist with the Right to Information (RTI) Act, which ensures public access to information.
• The amendments made through the DPDP Act modify Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act in a manner that upholds both privacy and transparency without undermining either.
• This change is consistent with the Supreme Court’s recognition of privacy as a fundamental right in the Puttaswamy judgment.
• It aligns the RTI law with judicial reasoning that has, for years, applied reasonable limits to protect personal information.
• By formally incorporating this approach into the statute, the amendment removes ambiguity and avoids any clash between the RTI Act’s transparency mandate and the privacy protections embedded in the DPDP framework.
• Importantly, the updated provision does not prohibit the release of personal data. Instead, it requires authorities to make a careful, case-specific assessment before sharing such information, keeping the individual’s privacy interests in mind.
• Meanwhile, Section 8(2) of the RTI Act remains unchanged. It empowers public authorities to disclose information whenever the public interest is compelling enough to outweigh potential harm to protected interests.
• This ensures that the core purpose of the RTI Act—promoting openness, accountability and informed citizen participation—continues to shape how information requests are handled

 

 

For Prelims: Personality rights, Delhi High Court, Madras High Court, Right to property, trademark, right to privacy, Article 21, Copyright Act, 1957 For Mains: 1. Explain how can the legal framework for protecting personality rights in India be strengthened to better address the challenges of the digital age. (250 Words)

 

 

Previous Year Questions   1. What is the position of the Right to Property in India? (UPSC 2021)  A. Legal right available to citizens only B. Legal right available to any person C. Fundamental Right available, to citizens only D. Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right Answer: B   2. In order to comply with TRIPS Agreement, India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999. The difference/differences between a "Trade Mark" and a Geographical Indication is/are (UPSC 2010) 1. A Trade Mark is an individual or a company's right whereas a Geographical Indication is a community's right. 2. A Trade Mark can be licensed whereas a Geographical Indication cannot be licensed. 3. A Trade Mark is assigned to the manufactured goods whereas the Geographical Indication is assigned to the agricultural goods/products and handicrafts only. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  A. 1 only          B. 1 and 2 only        C. 2 and 3 only         D. 1, 2 and 3   Answer: B   3. Which of the following statements regarding Article 21 of the Constitution of India is/ is correct?  (CDS GK 2017) 1. Article 21 is violated when under-trial prisoners are detained under judicial custody for an indefinite period. 2. Right to life is one of the basic human rights and not even the state has the authority to violate that right. 3. Under Article 21, the right of a woman to make reproductive choices is not a dimension of personal liberty. Select the correct answer using the code given below. A. 1, 2 and 3     B. 1 and 2 only     C. 1 and 3 only        D. 2 only   Answer: B   4. Article 21 of Indian Constitution secures: (OPSC OAS 2018) A. Right to life only B. Right to personal liberty only C. Right to liberty and privacy D. Right to life, personal liberty and right to privacy   Answer: D 5. ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India? (UPSC 2021) (a) Article 15 (b) Article 19 (c) Article 21 (d) Article 29 Answer: C 6. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement? (2018) (a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution. (b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV. (c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III. (d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution. Answer: C

 

Source: The Hindu

 

16TH FINANCE COMMISSION

1. Context

On November 17, the 16th Finance Commission (FC) submitted its report to the President of India.

2. Finance Commission

• The Finance Commission is a crucial constitutional body in India responsible for the distribution of financial resources between the central government and the state governments.
• It plays a vital role in maintaining fiscal federalism by ensuring a fair and equitable distribution of financial revenues and grants-in-aid among the various tiers of government.
• The Finance Commission is set up every five years, or at such earlier intervals as the President of India may decide, as per Article 280 of the Indian Constitution.
• It consists of a Chairman and four other members, each appointed by the President. These members are experts in the fields of economics, finance, and public administration.

3. Mandate and Functions

• The primary objective of the Finance Commission is to make recommendations to the President regarding the distribution of the net proceeds of taxes between the Union (central government) and the states, and the allocation of resources among the states.
• It also suggests measures to improve the financial position of the states, if necessary. The Commission's recommendations are aimed at addressing regional imbalances and ensuring the overall economic development of the country.

4. The specific functions of the Finance Commission include

• Tax Revenue Sharing: The Commission reviews the trends in revenue collections and recommends the percentage of the divisible pool of taxes that should be shared with the states. The divisible pool includes taxes like income tax, corporate tax, and excise duty.
• Grants-in-Aid: Besides the devolution of taxes, the Finance Commission also suggests grants-in-aid to states to support their financial requirements for various developmental projects and schemes.
• Debt Relief: The Commission may recommend measures to provide relief to states facing a high burden of debt, thereby promoting fiscal discipline.
• Macro-Fiscal Management: It examines the overall financial situation of the country and suggests measures to maintain macroeconomic stability.
• Any Other Matter: The President may also refer specific matters to the Commission for examination and recommendations.

5. Process of Working

• The Finance Commission follows a consultative process while formulating its recommendations.
• It seeks input from various stakeholders, including the central and state governments, local bodies, financial experts, and economists.
• The Commission examines historical data, financial indicators, and the needs of states to arrive at a comprehensive and objective assessment.
• After conducting detailed studies and consultations, the Commission submits its report to the President.
• The recommendations of the Finance Commission are ordinarily binding in nature, and both the central and state governments are expected to implement them. However, their acceptance depends on the discretion of the central government.

6. Importance

• The Finance Commission is crucial in maintaining the federal structure of India and ensuring that all states receive adequate financial support for their development.
• By promoting equitable distribution of resources, helps in reducing regional disparities and fostering balanced economic growth across the country.
• The Commission's recommendations also play a vital role in shaping the fiscal policies of both the central and state governments.

7. Recommendations of the Previous Finance Commission

13th Finance Commission Recommendations:

• Increase the number of court working hours using existing infrastructure.
• Enhance support to Lok Adalats.
• Provide additional funding to State Legal Services Authorities to enhance legal aid for the marginalized.
• Promote the use of Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) mechanisms.
• Enhance the capacity of judicial officers and public prosecutors through training programs.
• Support the creation of a judicial academy in every state for training purposes.
• Allocate funds for the setting up of specialized courts.

14th Finance Commission's Recommendations:

• Raised states' share in the divisible pool of central taxes to 42%
• Revised to 41% after the number of states reduced to 28
• The withdrawal of Planning Commission grants helped manage the situation

15th Finance Commission Recommendations:

• Gather quantifiable data on the level of various services available in different states.
• Collect corresponding unit cost data to estimate cost disabilities among states.
• Fill gaps in statistical data through the efforts of the Ministry of Statistics.

8. Need for realistic expectations regarding  the following 16th Finance Commission

• Acknowledging Implementation Challenges: Recognize the challenges and complexities involved in implementing Finance Commission recommendations, such as coordination issues, administrative capacity, and resistance to change. This understanding will help shape realistic expectations and strategies for addressing these challenges.
• Strengthening Implementation Mechanisms: Focus on improving the implementation mechanisms and processes. This includes enhancing coordination and cooperation between the Union and state governments, strengthening administrative capacity at all levels, and streamlining the implementation of conditionalities to facilitate smoother execution.
• Robust Monitoring and Evaluation: Establish effective monitoring and evaluation mechanisms to track the progress and outcomes of implemented reforms. Regular assessment will help identify implementation gaps and provide opportunities for course correction and improvement.

For Prelims: Finance Commission, Article 280, Fiscal Consolidation, Fiscal Federalism, and Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) mechanism. For Mains: 1. Discuss the Role and Challenges of the Finance Commission in Promoting Fiscal Federalism and Ensuring Equitable Resource Distribution in India. (250 words).

 

Previous year Question 1. With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct? (UPSC 2011) A. It encourages the inflow of foreign capital for infrastructure development. B. It facilitates the proper distribution of finances among the Public Sector Undertaking. C. It ensures transparency in financial administration. D. None of the statements (a), (b), and (c) given above is correct in this context. Answer: D   2. With reference to the Fourteenth Finance Commission, which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2015) 1. It has increased the share of States in the central divisible pool from 32 percent to 42 percent. 2. It has made recommendations concerning sector-specific grants. Select the correct answer using the code given below. A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: A   3. Which of the following is/are among the noticeable features of the recommendations of the Thirteenth Finance Commission? (UPSC 2012) 1. A design for the Goods and Services Tax, and a compensation package linked to adherence to the proposed design. 2. A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in the next ten years in consonance with India's demographic dividend. 3. Devolution of a specified share of central taxes to local bodies as grants Select the correct answer using the codes given below:  A. 1 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: C

 Source: The Hindu