PRESIDENTIAL REFERENCE
1. Context
The Supreme Court is scheduled on Thursday to pronounce its advisory opinion on a Presidential Reference questioning the top court’s authority to “impose” timelines and prescribe the manner of conduct of Governors and the President while dealing with State Bills sent to them for assent or reserved for consideration.
2. Historical context of presidential reference
The Supreme Court's advisory role, as outlined in Article 143, traces its origins to the Government of India Act of 1935. This act granted the Governor-General the authority to seek the opinion of the federal court on significant legal matters.
A comparable feature exists in the Canadian Constitution, where the Supreme Court of Canada is empowered to give advisory opinions on legal issues referred by either the federal or provincial governments. In contrast, the U.S. Supreme Court has consistently refused to issue advisory opinions to the executive branch, adhering strictly to the principle of separation of powers embedded in the American Constitution
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Under Article 143 of the Constitution, the President has the authority to seek the Supreme Court’s opinion on any legal or factual issue deemed to be of public significance. This referral is made based on the advice of the Union Council of Ministers. According to Article 145, such matters must be examined by a bench comprising at least five judges of the Supreme Court. Following the hearing, the Court may deliver its opinion as it deems appropriate. While the opinion is not legally binding on the President and does not set a judicial precedent, it holds considerable persuasive value. Consequently, it is generally respected and adhered to by both the executive and the judiciary |
3. Past instances
- Since 1950, approximately fifteen presidential references have been made to the Supreme Court, excluding the most recent one. Below are brief summaries of some notable opinions delivered by the Court in response to these references.
- The first such reference came in the Delhi Laws Act case (1951), where the Court outlined the concept of delegated legislation, allowing the legislature to delegate certain law-making powers to the executive for efficient law implementation.
- In the Kerala Education Bill case (1958), the Court established the principle of harmonious interpretation between Fundamental Rights and the Directive Principles of State Policy, while also clarifying the constitutional safeguards for minority-run educational institutions under Article 30.
- In the Berubari Union case (1960), the Court held that any transfer or acquisition of Indian territory requires a constitutional amendment as per Article 368. The Keshav Singh case (1965) addressed the scope of legislative powers and privileges.
- In the Presidential Election case (1974), the Court ruled that elections for the President must proceed even if there are vacancies in the electoral college due to the dissolution of state assemblies.
- The Special Courts Bill reference (1978) was particularly important, as the Court clarified that it can choose not to respond to a reference, that the questions posed must be clear and precise, and that the judiciary must not intrude into Parliament's domain when giving its opinion.
- The Third Judges case (1998) resulted in a comprehensive set of guidelines shaping the collegium system for appointing judges to the higher judiciary.
- Although the Supreme Court is not bound to respond to every reference, it has declined to provide an opinion on only one occasion — in 1993, concerning the Ram Janmabhoomi dispute
4. Current reference
- The current presidential reference stems from a recent Supreme Court ruling that established specific timelines for the President and State Governors to act on Bills passed by State legislatures.
- In that judgment, the Court also asserted that the decisions made by the President and Governors regarding such Bills are open to judicial scrutiny. This reference has posed 14 key questions, mainly focusing on the interpretation of Articles 200 and 201 of the Constitution.
- The central government has raised concerns about whether courts can impose timelines when the Constitution itself does not prescribe any. It also questions whether the actions of the President and Governors, taken before a Bill becomes law, can be subjected to judicial review. Additionally, the reference seeks clarity on the scope of the Supreme Court’s powers under Article 142.
- This legal dispute has largely been driven by political tensions between the Union government and Opposition-led State governments. In its judgment, the Supreme Court had referred to the timelines mentioned in a Ministry of Home Affairs Office Memorandum concerning the President's assent to Bills.
- Notably, in the Cauvery dispute reference (1992), the Court had stated that, in an advisory capacity, it does not have the authority to review its previous rulings.
- Nevertheless, a definitive opinion in the present case is expected to bring clarity to important constitutional questions, thereby aiding in the effective functioning of federalism and democratic governance
5. Way Forward
The advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court under Article 143 plays a vital role in clarifying complex constitutional questions and ensuring the smooth functioning of India's democratic framework. While not binding, the Court’s opinions carry significant persuasive authority and are generally respected by both the executive and judiciary. Historical references, from the Delhi Laws Act case to the Third Judges case, have helped shape important legal doctrines on delegated legislation, federalism, judicial appointments, and legislative privileges
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For Prelims: Article 143, Supreme Court's advisory jurisdiction
For Mains: General Studies II - Indian Polity & Governance
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Previous Year Questions
Prelims
1. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2017) 1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 3 only Answer: D 2. With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following? (UPSC CSE 2019) Answer: B 3. Consider the following statements : (UPSC 2021) 1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
2. In the 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
3. As per the- existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. 1 and 3 D. 2 and 3
4. Consider the following statements about Electoral Bond Scheme 2018: (RPSC RAS Prelims 2018)
(A) The aim of this scheme is to bring about transparency in the funding process of political parties.
(B) Only the political parties recognized by the Election Commission which secured not less than one per cent of the votes polled in the last general election to the House of People or the Legislative Assembly of the State shall be eligible to receive the Electoral Bonds.
(C) Electoral Bonds shall be valid for fifteen calendar days from the date of issue.
(D) The Electoral Bond deposited by an eligible political party in its account shall be credited on the same day.
Which of the above statements are correct?
1. Only (A) and (B)
2. (A), (B), (C) and (D)
3. Only (B), (C) and (D)
4. Only (A), (C) and (D)
Answer: 2
5. With reference to the PM CARES Fund, consider the following statements: (AFCAT 27 2022)
I. The amount collected by it directly goes to the Consolidated Fund of India.
II. It can avail donations from the foreign contribution and donations to fund can also avail 100% tax exemption.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
A. I only B. II only C. Both I and II D. Neither I nor II
Answer: B
6. The Prime Minister's National Relief Fund is operated by which one of the following bodies? (CDS 2019)
A. The Prime Minister's Office (PMO)
B. The National Disaster Management Authority
C. The Ministry of Finance
D. The National Development Council (NDC)
Answer: A
Mains 1. In the light of recent controversy regarding the use of Electronic Voting Machines (EVM), what are the challenges before the Election Commission of India to ensure the trustworthiness of elections in India? (UPSC 2018) 2. Discuss the role of the Election Commission of India in the light of the evolution of the Model Code of Conduct. ( UPSC 2022) |
Source: The Hindu
DIGITAL PERSONAL DATA PROTECTION RULES
1. Context
News media associations expressed concerns that the Digital Personal Data Protection Rules (DPDP), 2025, did not address their concerns that the main law — the DPDP Act, 2023, which has been partially notified — could hurt journalistic newsgathering.
2. What do the DPDP Act and Rules do?
- The Government of India issued the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Rules, 2025 on 14 November 2025, completing the implementation of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023.
- With both the Act and Rules now in place, India has a comprehensive, citizen-oriented framework that balances personal data rights with legitimate data processing requirements.
- Before finalising the Rules, the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology sought inputs from the public. Consultations were organised across several major cities—Delhi, Mumbai, Guwahati, Kolkata, Hyderabad, Bengaluru and Chennai—drawing participation from startups, MSMEs, industry associations, civil society organisations, and government bodies.
- Citizens also contributed actively. Altogether, 6,915 suggestions and comments were submitted, significantly influencing the final version of the Rules.
- The notification of these Rules establishes a practical, innovation-supportive data protection regime for the country. It promotes clarity, encourages adherence to the law, and enhances public confidence in India’s expanding digital landscape.
3. Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023
- The Digital Personal Data Protection Act was passed by Parliament on 11 August 2023, establishing a comprehensive legal structure for safeguarding digital personal information in India.
- It outlines the responsibilities of organisations when they gather or process such data. The Act is built on the SARAL philosophy—Simple, Accessible, Rational and Actionable—using straightforward language and clear examples so that individuals and businesses can easily understand the requirements.
- The Act is anchored in seven foundational principles: consent and transparency, limitation of purpose, minimal collection of data, accuracy, restricted data retention, strong security measures and accountability. These principles shape each step of data handling and ensure that personal information is processed only for legitimate and defined purposes.
- A key highlight of the law is the establishment of the Data Protection Board of India, an autonomous authority responsible for monitoring compliance, investigating violations and ensuring that necessary corrective actions are taken.
- The Board is central to protecting user rights and fostering confidence in the data protection framework
Key Terms under the DPDP Act, 2023
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4. Overview of the Digital Personal Data Protection Rules, 2025
The Digital Personal Data Protection Rules, 2025 operationalise the DPDP Act, 2023, creating a practical and transparent system for safeguarding personal data in India’s rapidly growing digital landscape. These Rules place strong emphasis on citizen rights and responsible data handling by organisations. Their objective is to prevent misuse of personal information, minimise digital risks, and foster an environment that supports safe innovation—thereby strengthening trust in India’s digital economy.
To achieve these goals, the Rules lay down several key provisions:
- A phased compliance period of 18 months has been introduced so organisations have adequate time to upgrade systems and adopt sound data-protection practices.
- All Data Fiduciaries must issue a separate, easy-to-read consent notice clearly stating the specific purpose for which personal data is collected and processed.
- Consent Managers—entities that help people manage their permissions—must operate as companies incorporated in India.
- The Rules also define a clear and prompt procedure for reporting data breaches. In the event of a breach, the Data Fiduciary must immediately notify every affected person in simple language, outlining what occurred, potential consequences and the corrective measures taken. The communication must also include relevant contact details for assistance.
- Each Data Fiduciary is required to provide accessible contact information for queries related to personal data—whether that is a designated officer or a Data Protection Officer. Significant Data Fiduciaries have additional responsibilities: they must conduct external audits, undertake impact assessments and implement stricter controls when using emerging or sensitive technologies.
- They may also be required to comply with government directions regarding restricted data categories, including localisation requirements when necessary.
- The Rules strengthen the rights granted under the Act. Individuals can request access to their personal information, corrections or updates, and deletion in permitted situations.
- They may also authorize another person to exercise these rights on their behalf. Data Fiduciaries must respond to such requests within 90 days.
- Additionally, the Rules provide for a fully digital Data Protection Board of India with four members. Citizens will be able to submit complaints online and track them through a dedicated website and mobile app, making grievance resolution faster and more efficient.
- Appeals against the Board’s orders will be handled by the Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT)
5. How the DPDP Rules Empower Individuals?
The DPDP framework puts citizens at the heart of India’s data protection regime. Its core purpose is to ensure that individuals have clear authority over their personal information and can trust that it is handled responsibly. The rules are drafted in simple, user-friendly language so people can easily understand their rights, while also ensuring that organisations remain accountable for how they manage personal data.
Key Rights and Safeguards Provided to Citizens:
- Right to Give or Withhold Consent
Individuals have the freedom to agree or refuse the use of their personal data. Consent must be informed, specific, and easy to comprehend, and it can be withdrawn at any point. - Right to Know How Data is Used
People are entitled to know what information has been collected about them, the purpose of its collection, and the ways it is being processed. Organisations must share this information in a clear and straightforward format. - Right to Access Personal Data
Any individual may request a copy of the personal data that a Data Fiduciary holds about them. - Right to Correct Personal Data
Citizens can ask for corrections if their personal information is wrong, inaccurate, or incomplete. - Right to Update Personal Data
Individuals may request updates when their details change—such as a new phone number or address. - Right to Delete Personal Data
People have the option to seek erasure of their personal data under specific circumstances. The Data Fiduciary must review and act on such requests within the stipulated timeframe. - Right to Appoint a Representative
Every person may nominate someone else to exercise their data rights on their behalf—useful during illness or other situations where they cannot act themselves. - Mandatory Response Within 90 Days
Data Fiduciaries must respond to requests for access, correction, updating, or deletion within a maximum of ninety days, promoting timely redressal and accountability. - Protection in Case of Data Breaches
If a data breach occurs, affected individuals must be informed promptly. The notification must explain the incident and outline the steps they can take to reduce any potential harm. - Clear Contact Point for Help
Organisations must provide easily accessible contact details—either of a designated official or a Data Protection Officer—for queries or complaints related to personal data. - Extra Safeguards for Children
Processing children’s personal data requires verifiable consent from a parent or guardian, except when the data is used for essential services like medical care, education or immediate safety.
6. How the DPDP Framework Works in Harmony with the RTI Act?
- As the DPDP Act and its Rules strengthen citizens’ privacy protections, they also clarify how these enhanced rights coexist with the Right to Information (RTI) Act, which ensures public access to information.
- The amendments made through the DPDP Act modify Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act in a manner that upholds both privacy and transparency without undermining either.
- This change is consistent with the Supreme Court’s recognition of privacy as a fundamental right in the Puttaswamy judgment.
- It aligns the RTI law with judicial reasoning that has, for years, applied reasonable limits to protect personal information.
- By formally incorporating this approach into the statute, the amendment removes ambiguity and avoids any clash between the RTI Act’s transparency mandate and the privacy protections embedded in the DPDP framework.
- Importantly, the updated provision does not prohibit the release of personal data. Instead, it requires authorities to make a careful, case-specific assessment before sharing such information, keeping the individual’s privacy interests in mind.
- Meanwhile, Section 8(2) of the RTI Act remains unchanged. It empowers public authorities to disclose information whenever the public interest is compelling enough to outweigh potential harm to protected interests.
- This ensures that the core purpose of the RTI Act—promoting openness, accountability and informed citizen participation—continues to shape how information requests are handled
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For Prelims: Personality rights, Delhi High Court, Madras High Court, Right to property, trademark, right to privacy, Article 21, Copyright Act, 1957
For Mains:
1. Explain how can the legal framework for protecting personality rights in India be strengthened to better address the challenges of the digital age. (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions
1. What is the position of the Right to Property in India? (UPSC 2021)
A. Legal right available to citizens only
B. Legal right available to any person
C. Fundamental Right available, to citizens only
D. Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right
Answer: B
2. In order to comply with TRIPS Agreement, India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999. The difference/differences between a "Trade Mark" and a Geographical Indication is/are (UPSC 2010)
1. A Trade Mark is an individual or a company's right whereas a Geographical Indication is a community's right.
2. A Trade Mark can be licensed whereas a Geographical Indication cannot be licensed.
3. A Trade Mark is assigned to the manufactured goods whereas the Geographical Indication is assigned to the agricultural goods/products and handicrafts only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
3. Which of the following statements regarding Article 21 of the Constitution of India is/ is correct? (CDS GK 2017)
1. Article 21 is violated when under-trial prisoners are detained under judicial custody for an indefinite period.
2. Right to life is one of the basic human rights and not even the state has the authority to violate that right.
3. Under Article 21, the right of a woman to make reproductive choices is not a dimension of personal liberty.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 2 only
Answer: B
4. Article 21 of Indian Constitution secures: (OPSC OAS 2018)
A. Right to life only
B. Right to personal liberty only
C. Right to liberty and privacy
D. Right to life, personal liberty and right to privacy
Answer: D
5. ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India? (UPSC 2021) (a) Article 15 Answer: C 6. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement? (2018) (a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution. (b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV. (c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III. (d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution. Answer: C |
Source: The Hindu
COMMISSION FOR AIR QUALITY MANAGEMENT (CAQM)
1. Context
The Supreme Court on Wednesday gave the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) a free hand to take “any proactive measure” to curb air pollution throttling Delhi-NCR after the statutory body proposed to include choice GRAP IV restrictions like work-from-home and 50% office attendance in the ongoing GRAP III stage itself.
2. Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM)
- The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) in the National Capital Region (NCR) and nearby areas was initially established through an ordinance in 2020, which was subsequently replaced by an Act of Parliament in 2021.
- Its primary mandate is to enhance coordination, conduct research, identify issues, and address challenges related to air quality and associated concerns.
- At its inception, the CAQM comprised 15 members, including current and former officials from the Ministry of Environment and other Union government departments, along with representatives from various State governments, NGOs, and other organizations. Currently, the commission, led by Rajesh Verma, has expanded to 27 members.
- The CAQM succeeded the Environmental Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA), which was created by the Supreme Court in 1998. Unlike the CAQM, the EPCA lacked statutory authority, which experts criticized as limiting its ability to enforce compliance among defiant agencies.
- Nevertheless, several initiatives now overseen by the CAQM, such as the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP)—a framework of temporary emergency measures to combat air pollution—were originally implemented under the EPCA's guidance
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Powers of CAQM
The Commission for Air Quality Management in the National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021, empowers the CAQM to undertake any necessary measures, issue directives, and address grievances aimed at safeguarding and enhancing air quality in the NCR and surrounding regions. According to Section 14 of the Act, the commission is authorized to take strict action against officials who fail to comply with its directives
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3. Supreme Court on CAQM
- The Supreme Court recently criticized the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) for delays in enforcing stricter anti-pollution measures as Delhi's air quality worsened.
- Despite the Air Quality Index (AQI) reaching hazardous levels, the CAQM postponed the implementation of Stage 4 measures under the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP), prompting the Court to question the lack of urgency in addressing the crisis.
- The justices emphasized that such measures should be triggered as soon as AQI levels indicate severe pollution to prevent further deterioration.
- The Court also highlighted systemic failures, including inadequate action against stubble burning in Punjab and Haryana, and criticized the CAQM for focusing on meetings without concrete enforcement of rules.
- It warned against scaling down measures prematurely and stressed the need for stricter penalties and immediate action to curb pollution sources effectively
4. Challenges
- Although the CAQM formulates strategies and coordinates with various agencies, the actual implementation of these measures rests with the respective agencies.
- A CAQM official noted that the commission has significantly improved coordination and planning efforts.
- For instance, while paddy stubble burning—a major contributor to severe air pollution—occurs primarily in October and November, discussions with State officials begin as early as February and continue throughout the season.
- In 2022, the CAQM collaborated with Punjab and Haryana to develop action plans for managing stubble burning, which are reviewed and updated annually.
5. Way Forward
Discussing the challenges faced, the official acknowledged that while the commission has focused heavily on tackling stubble burning in the past, there is now a shift towards addressing multiple pollution sources. Moving forward, greater emphasis will be placed on controlling dust and vehicular emissions alongside agricultural pollution
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For Prelims: Graded Response Action Plan, National Capital Region (NCR),Environmental pollution(prevention control)Authority (EPCA).
For Mains:
1. What is GRAP? What is the Delhi-NCR action plan as air pollution increases? (250 words).
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Source: The Hindu
CONSUMER PRICE INDEX (CPI)
1. Context
India’s headline inflation rate, as measured by the Consumer Price Index (CPI), has been below the Reserve Bank of India’s (RBI) medium-term target of 4 per cent for nine months in a row and fell to a record low of just 0.25 per cent in October.
2. Consumer Price Index
- The Consumer Price Index (CPI) is a measure of the change in prices of a basket of goods and services that are commonly purchased by consumers. It is the most commonly used measure of inflation.
- The CPI is calculated by comparing the prices of the goods and services in the basket in a particular period to those of the same in a base period.
- The base period is usually the previous year's corresponding period. The difference in prices is expressed as a percentage, and this is the CPI inflation rate.
- The CPI is calculated for eight different categories of goods and services Food and beverages, Housing, Clothing and footwear, Transport, Health, Education, Communication, Recreation and Miscellaneous goods and services.
- The weights of each category in the CPI are determined by the expenditure patterns of urban households. For example, food and beverages have the highest weight in the CPI, followed by housing and transport.
- The CPI inflation rate is an important indicator of the cost of living.
- It is used by the government to set monetary policy and by businesses to make pricing decisions.
3. Wholesale Price Index
- The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) is a measure of the change in prices of goods and services at the wholesale level.
- It is calculated by comparing the prices of a basket of goods and services in a particular period to those of the same in a base period.
- The base period is usually the previous year's corresponding period. The difference in prices is expressed as a percentage, and this is the WPI inflation rate.
- The WPI is calculated for 67 groups of commodities, which are further divided into 225 subgroups.
- The weights of each group and subgroup in the WPI are determined by the value of the goods and services produced in each group and subgroup.
- The WPI inflation rate is an important indicator of inflation at the wholesale level.
- It is used by businesses to make pricing decisions and by the government to set monetary policy.
4. Findings of the Report
4.1. Food inflation
- Food inflation in India remained high in August, at 9.94%. This was driven by rising prices of essential food items, such as cereals, pulses, vegetables, and oils.
- Eleven of the 12 items on the heavyweight food and beverages group of the CPI logged price increases, with oils and fats, the sole item logging a year-on-year decline in prices, posting its first sequential increase in nine months.
- Vegetables provided some relief, with tomatoes leading an appreciable month-on-month deflation of 5.88% in the 19-member basket.
- However, the cooking staples of potatoes and onions were among the seven items that continued to log sequential inflation (2.3% and 12.3%, respectively).
4.2. Monsoon deficit and rising crude oil prices
- The near-term inflation outlook is also made more uncertain by other factors, including a distinct deficit in monsoon rainfall.
- Besides the overall 10% shortfall, sharp regional and temporal anomalies in rain distribution have impacted either the sowing or the quality of produce of several farm items.
- Kharif's sowing of pulses had, as of September 8, recorded an 8.6% shortfall compared with the year-earlier period.
- Another inflation driver, crude oil, has also seen a steady rise in prices as the output cuts by major oil producers of the OPEC+ grouping start to bite.
- The price of India's crude basket had, as of September 12, climbed 7.2% from the average in August to $92.65/barrel, according to official data.
4.3. RBI measures to control inflation
- For the RBI, the latest inflation data further roils its interest rate calculus.
- Unless CPI inflation decelerates by an incredible 250 basis points in September to a 4.33% pace, price gains are certain to substantially overshoot the monetary authority's 6.2% forecast for the July-September quarter, leaving it with few real options to achieve its medium-term price stability goal of 4% inflation.
- As the RBI has been at pains to stress, failure to anchor inflation expectations risks hurting growth.
5. About the sticky Consumer Price Index (CPI)
- The sticky Consumer Price Index (CPI) is a subset of the CPI that includes goods and services that change prices relatively infrequently.
- These goods and services are thought to incorporate expectations about future inflation to a greater degree than prices that change more frequently.
- Some of the items included in the sticky CPI are Rent, Housing costs, Utilities, Education, Healthcare, Transportation, Household furnishings and appliances, Personal insurance, Recreation, and Miscellaneous goods and services.
- The sticky CPI is often used by economists to measure inflation expectations.
- This is because prices of sticky goods and services are less likely to be affected by short-term changes in supply and demand, and are therefore more likely to reflect changes in inflation expectations.
- The sticky CPI is also used by central banks to set monetary policy.
- This is because the central bank wants to make sure that inflation expectations are anchored at a low level.
- If inflation expectations start to rise, the central bank may raise interest rates to bring them back down.
6. How India’s retail inflation is measured?
- India's retail inflation is measured by the Consumer Price Index (CPI), a basket of goods and services commonly purchased by urban households.
- The CPI is calculated by the National Statistical Office (NSO) every month.
- The CPI is calculated by comparing the prices of the goods and services in the basket in a particular month to those of the same in a base month.
- The base month is usually the previous year's corresponding month. The difference in prices is expressed as a percentage, and this is the CPI inflation rate.
- The CPI is calculated for eight different categories of goods and services, Food and beverages, Housing, Clothing and footwear, Transport, Health, Education, Communication, Recreation and Miscellaneous goods and services.
- The weights of each category in the CPI are determined by the expenditure patterns of urban households. For example, food and beverages have the highest weight in the CPI, followed by housing and transport.
- The CPI inflation rate is an important indicator of the cost of living in India.
- It is used by the government to set monetary policy and by businesses to make pricing decisions.
7. Calculation of Inflation
- Inflation is the rate at which the prices of goods and services increase over time.
- It is calculated by comparing the prices of a basket of goods and services in a particular period to the prices of the same basket of goods and services in a base period.
- The base period is usually the previous year's corresponding period. The difference in prices is expressed as a percentage, and this is the inflation rate.
There are two main ways to calculate inflation
1. Consumer Price Index (CPI): The CPI is a measure of the change in prices of a basket of goods and services that are commonly purchased by consumers. It is the most commonly used measure of inflation.
The CPI is calculated by the following formula:
CPI = (Cost of a basket of goods and services in current period / Cost of a basket of goods and services in base period) * 100
2. Producer Price Index (PPI): The PPI is a measure of the change in prices of goods and services that are produced by businesses. It is used to track inflation at the wholesale level.
The PPI is calculated by the following formula:
PPI = (Cost of a basket of goods and services at the wholesale level in the current period / Cost of a basket of goods and services at the wholesale level in the base period) * 100
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For Prelims: Consumer Price Index, Wholesale Price Index, Inflation, retail inflation, Producer Pirce Index, National Statistical Office, OPEC+, Crude oil, Kharif season, Monsoon,
For Mains:
1. Analyse the factors contributing to high food inflation in India in recent months. Discuss the impact of high food inflation on the Indian economy and suggest measures to mitigate it. (250 words)
2. Explain the concept of sticky inflation. What are the various factors that contribute to sticky inflation? Discuss the implications of sticky inflation for the Indian economy. (250 words)
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Previous Year Questions
1. With reference to inflation in India, which of the following statements is correct? (UPSC 2015)
A. Controlling the inflation in India is the responsibility of the Government of India only
B. The Reserve Bank of India has no role in controlling the inflation
C. Decreased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
D. Increased money circulation helps in controlling the inflation
Answer: C
2. With reference to India, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2010)
1. The Wholesale Price Index (WPI) in India is available on a monthly basis only.
2. As compared to Consumer Price Index for Industrial Workers (CPI(IW)), the WPI gives less weight to food articles.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
3. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2020)
1. The weightage of food in Consumer Price Index (CPI) is higher than that in Wholesale Price Index (WPI).
2. The WPI does not capture changes in the prices of services, which CPI does.
3. Reserve Bank of India has now adopted WPI as its key measure of inflation and to decide on changing the key policy rates.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 only C. 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
4. India has experienced persistent and high food inflation in the recent past. What could be the reasons? (UPSC 2011)
1. Due to a gradual switchover to the cultivation of commercial crops, the area under the cultivation of food grains has steadily decreased in the last five years by about 30.
2. As a consequence of increasing incomes, the consumption patterns of the people have undergone a significant change.
3. The food supply chain has structural constraints.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
5. The Public Distribution System, which evolved as a system of management of food and distribution of food grains, was relaunched as _______ Public Distribution System in 1997. (SSC JE EE 2021)
A. Evolved B. Transformed C. Tested D. Targeted
Answer: D
6. Under the Antyodaya Anna Yojana, up to what quantity of rice and wheat can be purchased at a subsidised cost? (FCI AG III 2023)
A. 35 kg B. 40 kg C. 30 kg D. 25 kg E. 50 kg
Answer: A
7. As per the the National Statistical Office (NSO) report released on 7 January 2022, India's Gross domestic product (GDP) is expected to grow at ___________ per cent (in first advance estimates) in the fiscal year 2021-22? (ESIC UDC 2022)
A. 17.6 per cent B. 9.5 per cent C. 11 per cent D. 9.2 per cent E. None of the above
Answer: D
8. The main emphasis of OPEC (Organisation of the Petroleum Exporting Countries) is on which of the following? (UKPSC 2016)
A. The production of petroleum
B. Control over prices of petroleum
C. Both (a) and (b)
D. None of the above
Answer: C
9. In the context of global oil prices, "Brent crude oil" is frequently referred to in the news. What does this term imply? (UPSC 2011)
1. It is a major classification of crude oil.
2. It is sourced from the North Sea.
3. It does not contain sulfur.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 2 only B. 1 and 2 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
10. The term 'West Texas Intermediate', sometimes found in news, refers to a grade of (UPSC 2020)
A. Crude oil B. Bullion C. Rare earth elements D. Uranium
Answer: C
11. With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2019)
1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.
3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.
4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
A. 1 and 3 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only C. 2 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer: A
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Source: The Hindu
STATE ELECTION COMMISSION (SEC)
1. Context
Following the Supreme Court’s directions, Maharashtra will hold local body elections in three phases, beginning on December 2. The first phase covers 246 municipal councils and 42 nagar panchayats, while the second will include 32 of 34 zilla parishads and 336 of 351 panchayat samitis. The municipal corporation elections will be held in the last phase. The court has directed that all elections be completed by January 31, 2026. The exercise comes amid Opposition criticism of errors and duplication in the voters’ lists.
2. Can the State Election Commission delete duplicate names?
- No, the State Election Commission (SEC) is not empowered to include or remove names from the electoral rolls. The Constitution grants the SEC authority over the supervision, direction, and control of elections to municipal and rural local bodies.
- But under the five State Local Body Acts, the SEC does not create a separate voter list. It relies on the electoral rolls prepared by the Election Commission of India (ECI) under the Representation of the People Act, 1950, and simply divides them according to the respective wards of the local bodies.
- For the upcoming local body polls, the Maharashtra SEC will use the electoral roll updated up to July 1, 2025—that is, the list reflecting all additions and modifications made by the Chief Electoral Officer till that date.
- However, the cut-off date for registering first-time voters remained January 1, 2025. Consequently, many young individuals who turned 18 after January 2025 are disappointed that they will not be eligible to vote in the forthcoming elections
3. What does the State Election Commission (SEC) do?
- The State Election Commission (SEC) is the constitutional authority responsible for ensuring that elections to local bodies—such as municipalities, municipal corporations, panchayats, and other rural and urban local institutions—are conducted freely and fairly.
- Its primary role is to oversee the entire election process at the local level. This includes announcing the election schedule, supervising the nomination of candidates, monitoring campaigning, and ensuring the polling and counting processes take place without bias or interference.
- While the SEC controls and directs how local elections are carried out, it does not prepare the voter lists itself. Instead, it relies on the electoral rolls created by the Election Commission of India under the Representation of the People Act, 1950.
- The SEC takes those rolls and adapts them to the relevant local wards or constituencies. Apart from managing election logistics, it also handles issues like enforcing the model code of conduct for local polls, resolving disputes related to the conduct of elections, and issuing guidelines to ensure transparency and integrity in the voting process
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4. Administrative Reforms Commission Recommendation
- The Administrative Reforms Commission (ARC) was set up by the Government of India to suggest measures for improving the efficiency, accountability, and responsiveness of the Indian administration.
- Over its reports—both the First ARC (1966–70) and the Second ARC (2005–2009)—it made wide-ranging recommendations to strengthen governance, modernize public institutions, and enhance citizen-centric administration.
- The ARC emphasised that the Indian administrative system had become over-centralised, rule-bound, and slow, and therefore required structural, procedural, and behavioural reforms.
- It recommended redefining the role of the government, decentralising power to states and local bodies, and making the bureaucracy more transparent and accountable.
- The Commission also advocated simplifying procedures, reducing delays, and leveraging technology to make public service delivery more efficient.
- One of the central themes of the ARC’s suggestions was improving the quality of public servants. It argued for reforms in recruitment, training, performance evaluation, and promotion systems to ensure that officials are competent, motivated, and ethical.
- It highlighted the need for a code of ethics, stronger vigilance mechanisms, protection for whistle-blowers, and steps to curb corruption.
- The ARC also pushed for strengthening institutions of accountability such as the Lokpal/Lokayuktas, the CBI, and audit bodies. In areas like e-governance, it encouraged the use of digital tools and transparent processes to reduce human discretion and improve service delivery. In police reforms, it recommended insulation from political interference and improved training.
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For Prelims: Election Commission of India, Chief Election Commissioner, Election Commission (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners and Transaction of Business) Act, 1991, State Election Commission, Article 324, Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) and Voter Verified Paper Audit Trails (VVPATs).
For Mains: 1. Discuss the powers and functions of the Election Commission of India. How does the Election Commission ensure the conduct of free and fair elections in the Country? (250 words).
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Previous year Question1. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2017)
1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 only
Answer: D
2. Consider the following statements : (UPSC 2021)
1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
2. In the 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
3. As per the- existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3
D. 2 and 3
Answer: B
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Source: The Hindu
