• The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission of India (ECI) for political parties and candidates during elections.
• The MCC is designed to ensure free and fair elections by preventing the misuse of government machinery, maintaining a level playing field for all candidates, and avoiding any activities that could unduly influence voters.
• The Election Commission describes the Model Code of Conduct as a set of norms and rules that political parties and candidates must adhere to during the election process.
• The MCC comes into effect as soon as the election dates are announced and remains in force until the results are declared.
• It includes guidelines on various aspects of electioneering, such as campaigning, speeches, processions, polling day activities, and the content of election manifestos.
• The goal is to promote a fair and ethical electoral process, minimizing the chances of corrupt practices and ensuring that the democratic principles are upheld during elections

3.What is the Model Code of Conduct?

• The Model Code of Conduct, issued by the Election Commission, serves as a set of guidelines to oversee the conduct of political parties and candidates before elections.
• These guidelines encompass various aspects such as speeches, polling day procedures, polling booths, ministerial portfolios, election manifesto content, processions, and overall behavior. The aim is to ensure the integrity of elections.
• According to information from the Press Information Bureau, a version of the MCC was initially introduced during the 1960 state assembly elections in Kerala.
• It gained widespread adherence in the 1962 elections and has been consistently followed in subsequent general elections. In October 1979, the Election Commission expanded the MCC to include a section regulating the conduct of the 'party in power' to prevent any undue advantage during elections.
• The MCC is activated from the announcement of the election schedule until the declaration of results. Consequently, it comes into effect from the present evening and remains applicable until the conclusion of the entire election process.
• The MCC comprises eight provisions addressing general conduct, meetings, processions, polling day, polling booths, observers, the party in power, and election manifestos

4.When does the Model Code of Conduct come into effect?

• Once the code comes into effect, the governing party, whether at the national or state level, must ensure that its official position is not exploited for campaign purposes.
• Consequently, no policies, projects, or schemes should be announced that could sway voting behavior. The party is also prohibited from utilizing public funds for advertising or using official media platforms to publicize achievements with the intention of enhancing electoral prospects.
• The guidelines further dictate that ministers should refrain from combining official visits with election-related activities or utilizing official resources for such purposes.
• The ruling party is barred from employing government transportation or machinery for campaign activities. Additionally, it is mandated to provide opposition parties with equal access to public spaces like grounds for conducting election meetings, as well as amenities such as helipads, under the same terms and conditions applied to the ruling party.
• Any advertisements at the expense of the public treasury in newspapers and other media outlets are considered an offense. The ruling government is also restricted from making ad-hoc appointments in governmental bodies and public enterprises that may unduly influence voters.
• The Model Code of Conduct strictly prohibits the use of caste and communal sentiments to attract voters, allowing criticism of political parties or candidates solely based on their track record. Places of worship, including mosques, churches, and temples, are not to be employed for election propaganda.
• Practices such as bribery, intimidation, and voter impersonation are explicitly forbidden. Public meetings within the 48-hour period leading up to the poll closing time are also proscribed, known as the "election silence," aiming to provide voters with a campaign-free environment for reflection before casting their votes

5.Is the Model Code of Conduct legally binding?

• The Model Code of Conduct (MCC) is not a legally binding document in the sense that it is not enforceable by law. It is a set of guidelines and ethical standards issued by election management bodies, such as the Election Commission of India, to ensure fair play and ethical behavior during elections.
• The MCC is followed by political parties and candidates on a voluntary basis, and adherence is more a matter of political ethics and a commitment to maintaining the integrity of the electoral process.
• While the MCC itself does not have statutory backing, certain aspects of it may be supported by legal provisions. For example, if a political party or candidate violates specific principles outlined in the MCC, they may be subject to legal action under relevant electoral laws. However, the MCC, as a whole, is more of a moral and ethical code that relies on the cooperation and voluntary compliance of political participants.
• The Election Commission, as the custodian of the MCC, can take various actions against those who violate its principles.
• These actions may include issuing warnings, reprimands, and, in severe cases, canceling candidature or disqualification. The idea behind the MCC is to foster a fair and transparent electoral process and to prevent the misuse of power during election campaigns

6. Way forward

The ECI can issue a notice to a politician or a party for alleged breach of the MCC either on its own or on the basis of a complaint by another party or individual. Once a notice is issued, the person or party must reply in writing — either accepting fault and tendering an unconditional apology or rebutting the allegation. In the latter case, if the person or party is found guilty subsequently, he/it can attract a written censure from the ECI — something that many see as a mere slap on the wrist

Source: Indianexpress

FOREST RIGHTS ACT

1. Context 

2. Key Takeaways

• The ST Commission is caught in a row with the Union Environment Ministry over the latest Forest Conservation Rules (FCR), 2022.
• The row is over the potential violation of provisions enshrined in the Scheduled Tribes and Other Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 was dubbed the Forest Rights Act (FRA).

3. The involvement of NCST in the Act

• The Ministry of Environment, Forests and Climate Change in June 2022 notified the forest (Conservation Rules, 2022, which prescribed the mechanism for the diversion of Forest land for non-forest purposes.
• These amended rules have omitted a clause (Present in 2014 and 2017 Rules) that explicitly required any proposal to mandatorily have the consent of local tribespeople and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (OTFDs) of the area, before proceeding for Stage 1 clearance.
• The FCR, 2022 has allowed applying entities to go for the consent of locals, represented by the Gram Sabha after Stage 1 or even after Stage 2 clearance.
• According to the FRA, 2006, in case of a dispute over forest land, precedence has to be given to the rights of STs and OTFDs, who live in and off the forest and its resources, over any other party.

4. NCST demands

• In September 2022, NCST Chairperson Harsh Chouhan shot off a letter to Environment Minister Bhupendra Yadav, highlighting the potential consequences of FCR, 2022, recommending that they be put on hold and the previous Rules, which provided for the consent clause, be strengthened.
• The ST panel argued that the previous versions of the Rules provided a legal space for ensuring the completion of the processes for recognition and vesting of rights under the FRA in areas where forests are being diverted.
• The ST Commission noted that it made little sense to take the consent of tribals and forest dwellers after an applicant had got Stage 1 clearance.

• Further, the NCST's Working Group found that FRA compliance was in trouble even under the old rules.
  It said currently, nearly 25, 000-30, 000 hectares of forest land were being diverted every year.
• It cited a study by the Centre for Environment and Development, ATREE to note: " Out of 128 applications for forest diversion for mining, over 100 had been processed between 2009 and 2018".
• It added that 74 proposals had Stage 2 approval, 46 had Stage 1 approval (in principle), with just five rejected and four closed for other reasons.
• None of the rejections was for non-compliance with FRA.
• The study also found that 14 of these cases (all post-2014) had been cleared with an FRA compliance report, despite, this being far from the "ground reality".

5. About NCST

• The National Commission for Scheduled Tribes is a constitutional body that was established by the Constitution (89th Amendment) Act, 2003.
• The Commission is an authority working for the economic development of Scheduled Tribes in India.

1. National Commission for Scheduled Castes (NCSC)
2. National Commission for scheduled Tribes (NCST)

6.1. Objective

1. To undo the historical injustice that occurred to the forest-dwelling communities
2. To ensure land tenure, livelihood and food security of the forest-dwelling Scheduled Tribes and other traditional forest dwellers
3. To Strengthen the conservation regime of the forests by including the responsibilities and authority of Forest Rights holders for sustainable use, conservation of biodiversity and maintenance of ecological balance.

For Prelims & Mains

For Prelims: Forest Rights Act, NCST, NCSC, Forest Conservation Rules 2022, Traditional Forest Dwellers,  For Mains:  1.Discuss the powers and functions of the National Commission for Scheduled Tribes in protecting the rights of the Forest-dwellers in India. (250 Words)

 

Source: The Hindu and Ministry of Tribal Affairs

 

 

ELECTRONIC VOTING MACHINE (EVM)

 

 

1. Context

A day after polling concluded in West Bengal and most exit polls gave the Opposition BJP the edge, TMC chief and Chief Minister Mamata Banerjee urged party workers and people of the state to guard strong rooms where Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) are stored, saying she too would stand vigil.

 

2. What is an electronic voting machine (EVM)?

 

• An electronic voting machine (EVM) serves as a portable device utilized in the electoral process for parliamentary, legislative, and local body elections, including panchayats and municipalities.
• The EVM operates on microcontroller technology, aiming to modernize the election process while ensuring the elimination of invalid votes and maintaining the utmost secrecy of voting data. Additionally, it expedites the counting process, ensuring accuracy. The recorded voting data within EVMs can be stored for extended periods and retrieved when necessary.
• This technological system is dependable for conducting elections where a single candidate must be elected from multiple options, as it is configured for one position and one vote per voter. Utilizing the EVM, voters can cast their ballots for their preferred candidate or select the "None of the Above" (NOTA) option, which is provided in each machine for voters who opt not to support any contestant.
• In 1989, India's Election Commission (EC), in collaboration with two central government entities — the Electronics Corporation of India (ECIL) and Bharat Electronics Limited (BEL) — developed the nation's own Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs). These machines saw their inaugural use during the 1999 Goa State Assembly elections

3. How does it work?

 

• To indicate their choice, a voter must press the button corresponding to the preferred candidate, prompting a red light to illuminate next to the candidate's name and symbol. Additionally, a prolonged beep will sound, confirming the successful casting of the vote.

• Inside the polling booth, the presiding officer will activate the ballot unit once the voter enters the designated compartment.

• To select a candidate, press the blue button adjacent to their name and symbol on the ballot unit.

• Upon selection, the candidate's name or symbol will be highlighted by a glowing red light, accompanied by an audible beep.

• Subsequently, the voter will receive a printed ballot slip featuring the selected candidate's name, symbol, and a serial number

4.Working Module of EVM

 

• An Electronic Voting Machine (EVM) comprises two components: a control unit and a balloting unit, interconnected by a five-meter cable.
• The control unit is assigned to a polling officer, while the balloting unit is placed within a compartment for voters to cast their votes. EVMs are adaptable even in areas lacking electricity, as they can operate using alkaline batteries.
• In the polling station, the control unit remains under the supervision of the Presiding Officer and is positioned inside the voting compartment, responsible for tallying the votes. Conversely, the balloting units are stationed within the voting compartment to facilitate voters in casting their ballots.
• The balloting unit offers voters blue buttons labeled horizontally with party symbols and corresponding candidate names. In contrast, the Control Unit provides the officer-in-charge with a 'Ballot' marked button, allowing them to proceed to the next voter without issuing a physical ballot paper

5.Controversy around the use of EVMs

The employment of Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) has stirred controversy in various regions due to concerns over their reliability, security, and transparency. Some of the controversies surrounding EVMs include:

• Security Concerns: Critics argue that EVMs are susceptible to tampering and hacking, which could compromise the integrity of election results. There have been allegations of EVM manipulation through malicious software or physical tampering, raising doubts about the fairness of elections.

• Lack of Transparency: The opaque nature of EVMs, particularly regarding the inner workings of the software and hardware, has been a point of contention. Critics argue that without a paper trail or verifiable audit mechanism, it's challenging to ensure the accuracy of election outcomes and detect any potential malfunctions or manipulation.

• Limited Accessibility: EVMs may pose challenges for certain demographics, such as elderly voters or those with disabilities, who may find it difficult to operate the electronic interface. This raises concerns about the inclusivity and accessibility of the electoral process.

• Trust and Confidence: Public trust in EVMs is crucial for the legitimacy of election results. However, controversies surrounding EVMs, including allegations of malfunctioning or tampering, can undermine trust in the electoral process and lead to doubts about the validity of election outcomes.

• Legal Challenges: In some cases, legal challenges have been filed questioning the legality or constitutionality of using EVMs in elections. These challenges often revolve around issues such as the absence of a paper trail, the reliability of electronic systems, and the potential for manipulation

6. What are VVPATs?

 

Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) is a mechanism introduced to enhance the transparency and credibility of electronic voting systems, particularly Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs). VVPAT provides a physical paper trail that allows voters to verify that their vote has been accurately recorded by the EVM.

Here's how VVPAT works:

• Paper Record: When a voter casts their vote using an EVM, the VVPAT system prints a paper slip containing the details of the vote, including the name and symbol of the candidate selected by the voter. This paper slip is visible through a transparent window for a few seconds before being automatically cut and dropped into a sealed box.

• Verification by Voter: The voter can visually inspect the printed paper slip to confirm that it accurately reflects their chosen candidate. This allows voters to verify that their vote has been cast as intended.

• Audit Trail: The paper slips collected in the sealed box serve as a physical audit trail of the electronic votes recorded by the EVM. In case of any dispute or recount, these paper slips can be used to verify the accuracy of the electronic results.

7. Representation of People Act, 1981

 

• The Representation of the People Act, 1981 is a significant legislation in India that primarily deals with the conduct of elections and the qualifications and disqualifications for membership of Parliament and State Legislatures. However, there is no such legislation by the name "Representation of the People Act, 1981."
• Instead, the primary legislation governing elections in India is the Representation of the People Act, 1951. This Act has been amended several times, including in 1981, to accommodate changes in electoral processes, procedures, and to address emerging issues related to elections.
• The Representation of the People Act, 1951, covers various aspects of elections, including the preparation of electoral rolls, delimitation of constituencies, qualifications and disqualifications for membership of Parliament and State Legislatures, conduct of elections, election offences and disputes, and the powers and functions of the Election Commission of India.
• It's important to note that while the Representation of the People Act, 1951, remains the primary legislation governing elections, there have been amendments and additions made over the years to address evolving electoral practices and challenges

 

For Prelims: Indian Polity and Governance For Mains: Governance, Constitution and Polity.

 

Previous Year Questions Consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE 2017) 1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. 2. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. 3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 only (c) 2 and 3 only (d) 3 only Answer (d) The election commission has three election commissioners, one Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners. Hence statement 1 is incorrect.Election commission decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. Hence statement 2 is incorrect. It also decides the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties. Hence only statement 3 is correct. Mains In the light of recent controversy regarding the use of Electronic Voting Machines (EVM), what are the challenges before the Election Commission of India to ensure the trustworthiness of elections in India? (2018)

 

Source: Indianexpress

 

 

OVERSEAS CITIZEN OF INDIA (OCI)

 

 

1. Context

 

The Union Home Ministry on Thursday notified the Citizenship (Amendment) Rules, 2026, introducing electronic Overseas Citizen of India (e-OCI) cards, fully online applications, and stricter norms on dual passports for minors.

 

2.What is an Overseas Citizen of India Card?

 

• The OCI (Overseas Citizen of India) scheme, introduced in August 2005, allows for the registration of Persons of Indian Origin (PIOs) who were citizens of India on or after January 26, 1950, or who were eligible to become Indian citizens on that date.
• While presenting the bill in Parliament, Home Minister LK Advani highlighted that its aim was to offer dual citizenship to the Indian diaspora.
• An OCI cardholder, who typically holds a foreign passport, is granted a multiple-entry, multi-purpose, lifelong visa to India. They are also exempt from registering with local police regardless of the duration of their stay.
• According to government data, by 2023, there were over 4.5 million registered OCI cardholders from 129 countries. The largest number of OCI cardholders were from the United States, with over 1.68 million, followed by the UK (934,000), Australia (494,000), and Canada (418,000).
• Initially, OCI cardholders were granted general parity with Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) in areas like economic, financial, and educational facilities, with the exception of acquiring agricultural or plantation properties. NRIs are Indian citizens residing permanently in foreign

3. Rules regarding OCI

 

• OCI should not be misunderstood as "dual citizenship." It does not grant political rights such as the ability to vote, become a member of the Indian Parliament or state legislatures, or hold constitutional positions like the President, Vice President, or a Judge in the Supreme or High Courts.
• Additionally, OCI cardholders are generally not allowed to work in government positions.
• They must also obtain prior permission from the Government of India to engage in activities such as missionary work, mountaineering, or journalism.
• Furthermore, like other foreigners, OCI cardholders are required to obtain a Protected Area Permit (PAP) or Restricted Area Permit (RAP) to visit areas designated as protected or restricted by the government

 

Constitutional Provisions   Article 9 of the Constitution makes it clear that India does not recognize dual citizenship. It states that any person who voluntarily acquires the citizenship of another country cannot continue to be a citizen of India. This remains a major constitutional provision relevant to the OCI status, as the OCI is not dual citizenship. The legal framework for OCI is governed by the Citizenship Act, 1955. Amendments to this Act, notably in 2003 and 2005, introduced the concept of OCI. The 2003 amendment added Section 7A to the Act, which provided the legal foundation for the grant of OCI status to foreign nationals of Indian origin, allowing them certain rights but stopping short of full citizenship The Constitution of India limits the rights available to non-citizens. As per the Citizenship Act, 1955, and supported by constitutional provisions: OCI cardholders cannot vote in elections (no voting rights). They cannot hold any of the high constitutional posts such as the President, Vice President, or a Judge of the Supreme Court or High Court. They are ineligible for any constitutional offices or employment in government sectors Although OCI cardholders are not Indian citizens, they still enjoy some basic rights guaranteed by the Constitution. For instance, they are entitled to certain Fundamental Rights, such as the right to equality before law and protection of life and personal liberty (Article 14 and Article 21). However, they do not have access to all rights reserved for Indian citizens, such as the right to hold public office

 

4. Person of Indian Origin (PIO)

 

As per the Citizenship Act of 1955, you are classified as a Person of Indian Origin (PIO) if you are a foreign national and:

• You have held an Indian passport at some point in time; or
• You, your parents, grandparents, or great-grandparents were born in India as defined by the Government of India Act, 1935, or in territories that later became part of India, as long as none of them were ever citizens of Pakistan, Bangladesh, or any other country specified by the Indian government; or
• You are married to an Indian citizen or someone of Indian origin who meets the above conditions.

While Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) and PIOs have similar eligibility for financial transactions in India, PIOs face some restrictions. These include the inability to:

• Hold employment in the Indian government services,
• Occupy any constitutional office,
• Engage in activities such as mountaineering, missionary work, or research in restricted areas without prior approval,
• Enter India without a valid visa

 

5. Non resident India (NRI)

 

A Non-Resident Indian (NRI) is an Indian citizen who resides outside India for an extended period, typically for purposes such as employment, business, or education. NRIs maintain their Indian citizenship but live abroad for a major part of the year. The status of an NRI is primarily defined under the Income Tax Act of 1961 and the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA) of 1999, which specify conditions to determine NRI status based on the period of stay in India.

 

 

 

For Prelims: Citizenship Amendment Act, Minorities, Secularism, NPR, NRC,  For Mains:  1. The Citizenship Amendment Act (CAA) of 2019 has sparked significant controversy in India. Critically examine the Act's provisions, highlighting the key concerns and potential implications. In your opinion, does the CAA violate the secular principles enshrined in the Indian Constitution? (250 words) 2. Considering the debates surrounding the CAA, critically analyze the concept of citizenship in India. How has the concept evolved, and what are the challenges in defining and managing citizenship in a diverse democracy like India? (250 words)

 

 

Previous Year Questions Consider the following statements: (2018) 1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile. 2. Once issued, the Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only       (b) 2 only          (c) Both 1 and 2           (d) Neither 1 nor 2   2. What is the position of the Right to Property in India? (UPSC  2021) (a) Legal right available to citizens only (b) Legal right available to any person (c) Fundamental Rights available to citizens only (d) Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right   3.  With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2012) 1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law. 2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?  A. 1 only             B. 2 only           C. Both 1 and 2               D. Neither 1 nor 2     4. Barak Valley in Assam is famous for which among the following? (MSTET 2019) A.  Bamboo Industry B. Petroleum Production C. Cottage Industries D. Tea Cultivation     5. Which one of the following is an important crop of the Barak Valley? (Karnataka Civil Police Constable 2019) A. Sugarcane           B.  Jute            C. Tea                    D. Cotton     6. Under Assam Accord of 1985, foreigners who had entered Assam before March 25, _____ were to be given citizenship.  (DSSSB JE & Section Officer 2022) A. 1954           B. 1971         C.  1981           D. 1966   Answers: 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D, 5-B, 6-B

 

Source: The Indian Express

 

 

HEAT WAVES

1. Context 

 Light to moderate rainfall on Wednesday and Thursday brought an end to a week-long spell of heatwaves in most parts of north and central India, the first of the season. And another heatwave spell is unlikely for the next two weeks at least, according to the latest forecast by the India Meteorological Department (IMD).

2. About Heat Wave

• A heatwave is a period of abnormally high temperatures, a common phenomenon in India during the months of May-June and in some rare cases even extends till July.
• Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) classifies heat waves according to regions and temperature ranges. As per IMD, the number of heatwave days in India has increased from 413 over 1981-1990 to 600 over 2011-2020.
• This sharp rise in the number of heatwave days has resulted due to the increasing impact of climate change.
• The last three years have been La Niña years, which has served as a precursor to 2023 likely being an El Niño year. (The El Niño is a complementary phenomenon in which warmer water spreads west­east across the equatorial Pacific Ocean.)
• As we eagerly await the likely birth of an El Niño this year, we have already had a heat wave occur over northwest India.
• Heat waves tend to be confined to north and northwest India in El Niño years.

3. Understanding the Effects of Heat on the Body

Heat Exhaustion Occurs when excessive sweating leads to the draining of the body's resources, but it is not life-threatening. Recovery is possible by rehydrating and seeking cooler areas.

Heat stroke Results from an inability to regulate core body temperature, leading to severe symptoms and potential organ damage. Promptly reducing core temperature is crucial in these cases.

 

4. Symptoms and Medical care

Signs of heat stroke Extremely high body temperature without sweating, drowsiness, vomiting, reduced urination and impaired breathing.

Vulnerable populations Older adults, young children and individuals with comorbidities are more susceptible to heat-related impacts. However, heat stroke can affect individuals of any age.

 

5. Preventive Measure to Avoid Heat Stroke

Minimize exposure Stay indoors or seek shade during peak sunlight hours, especially between noon and 3 pm. Avoid strenuous activities during this time.

Stay hydrated Drink water regularly, even if not feeling thirsty. Consume hydrating fluids such as lassi, lemon water, buttermilk or ORS to maintain electrolyte balance.

Clothing and accessories Wear lightweight, light-coloured, loose-fitting cotton clothes. Use goggles, umbrellas and appropriate footwear for protection.

Home cooling Use curtains or shades to keep homes cool. Utilize damp clothes and cod baths to lower body temperature.

 

6. Role of Humidity and Night-time Temperatures

High humidity Increased perceived temperature and reduces the effectiveness of sweat evaporation, making it harder to cool down.

High night-time temperatures Light the body's recovery time, hindering the restoration of resources. Low night temperatures are essential for adequate recuperation.

 

7. Linking Heatwaves to Climate Change and Global Implications

Rising global temperatures Climate Change contributes to increased heatwave frequency and intensity, impacting human health.

Health Risks and Socioeconomic Impact Heatwaves can cause additional deaths, public health emergencies, reduced labour productivity and disruptions to essential services.

 

8. Criteria for Declaring Heat Waves in India

• In plains maximum temperature of at least 40 °C or more 
• In Hilly regions maximum temperature of at least 30 °C or more
• Severe heat wave departure from normal temperature exceeds 6.40 °C

9. Impact of heat waves on Health

 

Health impacts of heat Heat-related illnesses range from heat cramps to heatstroke and hyperthermia.  Heat can also worsen existing conditions and lead to premature death.

Indirect health effects Heat affects human behaviour, disease transmission, health services, air quality and critical infrastructure.

 

10. Conclusion

• Addressing heatwave deaths in India requires a multi-faceted approach involving government intervention, public awareness and preventive measures.
• By understanding the effects of heat on the body, recognizing critical symptoms and implementing preventive strategies, the risk of heat-related illnesses and fatalities can be reduced.
• Additionally, acknowledging the role of climate change and preparing for future heat waves is essential for safeguarding public health.

 

For Prelims: Heatwave, India Meteorological Department, National Disaster Management Authority, the Health Ministry, ORS, Humidity, high temperatures For Mains:  1. Climate change is considered a contributing factor to the increased frequency and intensity of heat waves. Discuss the measures that can be taken at national and international levels to address climate change and minimize its impact on public health. (250 Words)

 

 

 

Previous Year Questions   1. Arrange the following India Meteorological Headquarters in Chronological order of their establishment and select your correct answer from the codes given below:  (UPPSC Civil Service 2018)  A. New Delhi B. Kolkata C. Shimla D. Pune  1. C D A B                2. B A D C              3. D B C A                 4. B C D A   Answer: 4   2. Consider the following statements: (MPSC Forest Services 2019) (a) The Disaster Management Act was passed by the Parliament in 2005. (b) The Union Home Minister Acts as a Chairperson of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA). (c) The NDMA may have not more than nine members including Vice-Chairman. (d) The tenure of the members of NDMA shall be five years. Which of the statements given above are correct?  1. (a), (b) and (c)         2. (a), (c) and (d)           3.  (b), (c) and (d)          4. All above   Answer: 2   3. National Disaster Management Authority is headed by (CDS 2021)  A. the Prime Minister.        B. the Home Minister     C. the President.     D.  the Health Minister.   Answer: A   4. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2022) 1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it. 2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. 3. It has seamless portability across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 2 only           B.  3 only           C. 1 and 3 only          D. 1, 2 and 3   Answer: B   5. Consider the following statement: (UPSC 2018) 1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954. 2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of the Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?   A. 1 only        B. 2 only              C.  Both 1 and 2         D. Neither 1 nor 2   Answer: A   6. What is the full form of ORS? (NHM UP CHO 2021) A. Oral Recovered Solution B. Oral Rehydration Salts C. Oral Regenerate Salts D. Oral Regenerate Solution   Answer: B   7. Consider the following statements with regard to atmospheric humidity: (UPSC ESE 2018) 1. Absolute humidity is the amount of water vapour per unit volume. 2. Hygrometer is used to measure relative humidity. 3. Dew point is the temperature at which the relative humidity is 75%. Which of the above statements are correct?   A. 1 and 2 only      B. 1 and 3 only         C. 2 and 3 only     D. 1, 2 and 3   Answer: A   8. Relative humidity is (ISRO Scientist Civil 2020)  A. Something concerned with air conditioning B. The ratio of moisture present in air to the capability of air to hold maximum moisture C. The ratio of actual humidity to absolute humidity D. Representative of amount of moisture held in air   Answer: B

 

 

 Source: The Indian Express & WHO

 

 

 

SUSTAINABLE HARNESSING AND ADVANCEMENT OF NUCLEAR ENERGY FOR TRANSFORMING INDIA (SHANTI) ACT

 

 

1. Context

 

 A high-powered US nuclear ‘executive mission’ is headed to India later this month with a two-pronged agenda: Taking stock of India’s nuclear energy landscape less than six months after a landmark legislation opened up this critical sector and to communicate the American industry’s interest, as well as coordinate US government messaging, on the emergent opportunities in this field.

 

 

2. Why is SHANTI significant?

 

 

• The SHANTI framework seeks to open India’s nuclear energy sector to private participation and may also facilitate the inflow of foreign investment.
• At present, the construction and operation of nuclear power plants are restricted exclusively to public sector entities.
• India aims to scale up its nuclear capacity from the existing 8.8 GW—roughly 1.5% of total installed power capacity—to 100 GW by 2047, thereby raising nuclear energy’s share in electricity generation from around 3%.
• Public sector nuclear utilities estimate that they will contribute nearly 54 GW of this expansion, with the remaining capacity expected to come from private players

 

3. What are the major differences in SHANTI?

 

 

• Because of nuclear energy’s association with atomic weapons, the movement and use of nuclear fuel such as uranium are subjected to rigorous oversight to prevent its diversion for the production of weapons-grade plutonium.
• Past disasters—including the 1979 Three Mile Island accident, the 1986 Chernobyl catastrophe, and the Fukushima core meltdown triggered by the 2011 tsunami—have reinforced a global culture of caution, leading to stringent controls over every stage of nuclear plant functioning.
• Internationally, there is now broad agreement that in the event of a nuclear accident, the operator of the facility bears the primary responsibility for compensating affected individuals in proportion to the harm caused.
• Such compensation must be provided promptly, without waiting for investigations into causation or fault.
• Subsequently, however, the operator may seek reimbursement if it can demonstrate that the accident resulted not from managerial failure but from defective equipment supplied by another party
• Under the earlier Civil Nuclear Liability framework, operators were permitted to pursue recourse against equipment providers in three situations: first, where an explicit contractual provision existed; second, where the incident was attributable to defects in the supplier’s equipment; and third, where the damage was caused by a deliberate act intended to inflict nuclear harm.
• The SHANTI legislation removes the second ground for recourse. Even after the 2008 Indo-US civil nuclear agreement, which reopened India’s access to uranium supplies and advanced nuclear technology following restrictions imposed after the 1974 and 1998 nuclear tests, reactor manufacturers from the United States and France remained reluctant to enter the Indian market due to the potential exposure to massive liability claims.
• By eliminating this clause—and even removing explicit references to “suppliers”—the proposed framework effectively addresses these concerns

 

4. Will SHANTI spur India’s nuclear vision?

 

• Homi Bhabha, regarded as the architect of India’s nuclear energy programme, envisaged nuclear power as a cornerstone of the country’s energy security while also overcoming India’s limited uranium reserves through the eventual use of thorium.
• His three-stage plan begins with the construction of pressurised heavy water reactors that utilise natural uranium (U-238) to generate electricity and produce plutonium as a by-product.
• The second stage involves fast breeder reactors, which are designed to generate additional plutonium and uranium-233 while producing power. In the third and final stage, uranium-233 is combined with India’s abundant thorium resources to generate electricity, creating a largely self-reliant thorium-based nuclear system.
• India has yet to transition fully into the second stage, having only a prototype fast breeder reactor so far. This project, delayed by nearly two decades, was earlier scheduled to become operational in 2025 but has now been postponed further, with commissioning expected in September 2026.
• To meet its near-term nuclear energy targets, India is increasingly exploring Small Modular Reactors (SMRs).
• These are scaled-down versions of conventional reactors currently deployed in countries such as the United States and France, and they require enriched uranium-235—a resource that India does not possess in sufficient quantities. Like India’s first-stage reactors, SMRs generate various radioactive by-products, including plutonium and strontium.
• SMRs are expected to be manufactured in modular components across multiple locations and assembled at a central site, much like the global production processes used for aircraft or smartphones.
• However, due to their smaller size, they produce less electricity per unit compared to large reactors. They also do not offer a fundamentally superior solution to nuclear waste management, although some designs incorporate enhanced safety features that allow automatic shutdown during emergencies.
• While SMRs may contribute to electricity generation, they do little to advance India’s long-term objective of transitioning to thorium-based nuclear power

 

5. Way Forward

 

Under the previous legal framework, victims of a nuclear incident could seek compensation from the plant operator up to a ceiling of ₹1,500 crore. Any damage beyond this limit was to be covered by the Union government through an insurance mechanism, capped at ₹4,000 crore. The SHANTI legislation introduces a tiered liability structure instead. Operators of facilities with a capacity exceeding 3,600 MW would face a maximum liability of ₹3,000 crore. For plants in the 1,500–3,600 MW range, the liability limit is set at ₹1,500 crore; for capacities between 750 MW and 1,500 MW, it is ₹750 crore; for 150–750 MW plants, the cap is ₹300 crore; and facilities below 150 MW carry a liability limit of ₹100 crore. At present, all nuclear power plants in India have capacities of 3,000 MW or less.

Science Minister Jitendra Singh, who introduced the Bill in Parliament, explained that this differentiated structure was designed to avoid deterring private sector investment. However, during parliamentary discussions, concerns were raised that the actual costs of compensation in major nuclear accidents have historically run into several billions of dollars, far exceeding the proposed liability ceilings

 

 

For Prelims: Nuclear Waste Management, Prototype Fast Breeder Reactor, uranium, plutonium For mains:  1. Discuss the challenges associated with nuclear waste management in the context of India's nuclear energy program. How can these challenges be addressed effectively? (250 Words) 2. Ethical considerations play a crucial role in nuclear waste management. Discuss the ethical concerns surrounding the potential for environmental injustice and the responsibility of nations in dealing with nuclear waste.(250 Words)

 

Previous Year Questions 1. To meet its rapidly growing energy demand, some opine that India should pursue research and development on thorium as the future fuel of nuclear energy. In this on text, what advantage, does thorium hold over uranium? (UPSC 2012) Thorium is far more abundant in nature than uranium. On the basis of per unit mass of mined mineral, thorium can generate more energy compared to natural uranium. Thorium produces less harmful waste compared to uranium. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only         (b) 2 and 3 only            (c) 1 and 3 only              (d) 1, 2 and 3 2. Which among the following has the world’s largest reserves of Uranium? (UPSC 2009) (a) Australia (b) Canada (c) Russian Federation (d) USA Answers: 1-D, 2-A

Source: The Hindu

 

DIRECTORATE OF ENFORCEMENT (ED)

1. Context

The Enforcement Directorate (ED) has declared 21 people, including businessmen Nirav Modi and Vijay Mallya, UK-based arms consultant Sanjay Bhandari, and Hajra Iqbal Memon (wife of the late Iqbal Mirchi, gangster Dawood Ibrahim’s aide), as fugitive economic offenders (FEOs) over the past seven years, according to its annual report.

2. About the Directorate of Enforcement 

The Directorate of Enforcement (ED) is a law enforcement agency in India that operates under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. It is responsible for enforcing economic laws and fighting financial crimes in the country. The primary objective of the Directorate of Enforcement is to enforce the provisions of two major laws:

• Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA): This law deals with foreign exchange and foreign trade in India. The ED ensures compliance with FEMA regulations and investigates violations related to foreign exchange transactions.

• Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA): The ED is also responsible for implementing the provisions of the PMLA, which focuses on preventing money laundering and combating the financing of terrorism. It investigates cases related to money laundering and takes appropriate action against those involved.

The Directorate of Enforcement plays a crucial role in maintaining the economic stability of the country by addressing financial offenses and ensuring compliance with relevant laws. It conducts investigations, searches, and seizures, and has the authority to attach and confiscate properties acquired through illegal means

3. Establishment and History

• The Directorate of Enforcement was established on 1st May 1956, as the "Enforcement Unit" within the Department of Economic Affairs.
• Its primary focus was on preventing and detecting violations of the Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) of 1947.
• Over the years, the agency's role expanded, and in 1999, the Enforcement Directorate was established as a separate entity under the Ministry of Finance.
• The enactment of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) in 2002 further broadened its jurisdiction, giving it the power to investigate cases related to money laundering.
• Since its establishment, the ED has played a crucial role in combating economic offences and ensuring compliance with economic laws in India.
• It has been involved in several high-profile cases, including those related to financial scams, money laundering by influential individuals, and cross-border financial crimes.
• The ED collaborates with various domestic and international agencies, including financial intelligence units, law enforcement agencies, and Interpol, to gather information, share intelligence, and effectively coordinate efforts to combat economic offences.

4. Functions and Roles of ED

4.1. Enforcing Economic Laws

• The primary function of the ED is to enforce two key economic laws in India: the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) and the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA).
• It ensures compliance with these laws and investigates money laundering, foreign exchange violations, and economic fraud cases.

4.2. Money Laundering Investigations

• The ED investigates cases involving money laundering, which is the process of concealing the origins of illegally obtained money to make it appear legitimate.
• It identifies and seizes properties and assets derived from illicit activities and prevents their further use.

4.3. Foreign Exchange Violations

•  The ED is responsible for investigating cases related to violations of foreign exchange laws and regulations.
• It monitors and controls foreign exchange transactions to maintain the stability of the Indian rupee and prevent illegal activities such as smuggling and illegal money transfers.

4.4 Financial Frauds

• The ED also investigates and takes action against financial frauds, including bank frauds, Ponzi schemes, and other fraudulent activities affecting the Indian financial system.
• It works closely with other law enforcement agencies, such as the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI), to tackle complex financial crimes.

5.  Challenges

5.1. The complexity of economic crimes.

• Economic crimes are often complex and involve a variety of financial transactions.
• This can make it difficult for the ED to trace the proceeds of crime and to build a case against the perpetrators.

5.2. The difficulty of tracing the proceeds of crime

• The proceeds of crime are often hidden in complex financial structures, making it difficult for the ED to track them down.
• The ED also faces challenges in obtaining information from foreign jurisdictions, where the proceeds of crime may have been transferred.

5.3. The lack of international cooperation

• Economic crime is often transnational, making it difficult for the ED to cooperate with foreign law enforcement agencies.
• This is due to differences in legal systems, as well as political and economic considerations.

5.4. Political interference

• The ED has been accused of being used as a political tool by the ruling party to target its opponents and critics.
• This has raised questions about the independence and impartiality of the ED.

5.5. Lack of transparency

• The ED has been criticized for its lack of transparency.
• The agency does not publish its annual reports, and it is difficult to obtain information about its investigations.
• This has made it difficult for the public to hold the ED accountable.

5.6. Human rights violations

•  The ED has been accused of violating the human rights of those it investigates.
• The agency has been accused of using coercive tactics, such as prolonged detention and interrogation, to extract confessions from suspects.

5.7. The limited resources

• The ED is a relatively small agency with limited resources.
• This can make it difficult for the ED to investigate complex economic crimes and prosecute the perpetrators.

6. Conclusion

• The Directorate of Enforcement in India plays a crucial role in enforcing economic laws, preventing money laundering, and combating financial crimes.
• With its specialized expertise, investigative capabilities, and coordination with domestic and international partners, the ED contributes to the integrity of the financial system, national security, and the country's overall socio-economic development.

For Prelims: Directorate of Enforcement, Financial Action Task Force, Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), the Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEMA), Supreme Court, Foreign Exchange Regulation Act (FERA) of 1947, Central Bureau of Investigation,  For Mains:  1. Discuss the establishment and evolution of the Directorate of Enforcement in India. Explain its key functions and roles in combating economic offences. (250 Words)

 

 

Previous Year Questions 1. Which one of the following is not correct in respect of Directorate of Enforcement ? (CDS  2021) A. It is a specialized financial investigation agency under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance. B. It enforces the Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999. C. It enforces the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002. D. It enforces the Prohibition of Benami Property Transaction Act, 1988.   Answer: D   2. The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 become effective since which one of the following dates? (UKPSC RO/ARO 2012)   A. July 2002          B. August 2003        C. July 2004         D. July 2005   Answer: D   3. FEMA (Foreign Exchange Management Act) was finally implemented in the year (UPPSC  2013) A. 1991         B. 1997         C. 2000             D. 2007   Answer: C   4. The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act was replaced by the ______ in India. (SSC Steno 2020)  A. Foreign Exchange Currency Act B. Foreign Exchange Finances Act C. Foreign Exchange Funds Act D. Foreign Exchange Management Act   Answer: D   5. "Central Bureau of Intelligence and Investigation" is listed in the __________ list given in the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India. (SSC CGL 2017)  A. Union             B. State             C. Global          D. Concurrent   Answer: A

 

Source: The Indian Express