INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) KEY (21/02/2025)

INTEGRATED MAINS AND PRELIMS MENTORSHIP (IMPM) 2025 Daily KEY

 
 
 
 
Exclusive for Subscribers Daily: National Capital Territory of Delhi and Ragging for the UPSC Exam? Why are topics like Article 101(4) and Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) , India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) important for both preliminary and main exams? Discover more insights in the UPSC Exam Notes for February 21, 2025

 

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Critical Topics and Their Significance for the UPSC CSE Examination on February 21, 2025

Daily Insights and Initiatives for UPSC Exam Notes: Comprehensive explanations and high-quality material provided regularly for students

 

A first-time MLA from Shalimar Bagh and an experienced municipal councillor, Gupta is set to become Delhi’s fourth woman CM

For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international importance

For Mains Examination: GS II - Indian Polity & Governance

Context:

A first-time MLA from Shalimar Bagh and an experienced municipal councillor, Gupta is set to become Delhi’s fourth woman CM after she was handed the top job following the BJP legislature party meeting. After the oath-taking ceremony on Thursday afternoon, she will become the only woman CM of a BJP-ruled state or Union Territory at present.

 

Read about:

What is the New Delhi Declaration?

National Capital Territory of Delhi (Amendment) Bill 2023

 

Key takeaways:

  • Article 239AA was incorporated into the Constitution through the 69th Amendment Act of 1991, granting Delhi a special status based on the recommendations of the S Balakrishnan Committee, which was formed in 1987 to examine the city's demand for statehood.
  • Under this provision, the National Capital Territory (NCT) of Delhi is governed by an administrator and a Legislative Assembly. The Assembly is empowered to legislate on matters listed in the State List and Concurrent List, as applicable to Union Territories. However, subjects such as police, public order, and land remain outside its jurisdiction.
  • The Supreme Court has interpreted Article 239AA in two landmark cases, in July 2018 and May 2023, which addressed the extent of the Delhi government's powers.
  • Alongside the constitutional amendment in 1991, Parliament also enacted the Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi Act to define the governance framework for Delhi’s Assembly and administration.
  • In its 2018 ruling, the Supreme Court highlighted that Article 239AA was intended to establish a representative government in Delhi, ensuring a directly elected Legislative Assembly with legislative authority over relevant matters, barring the three excluded subjects. The judgment also emphasized that the Lieutenant Governor must act based on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers unless he chooses to escalate a matter to the President for a final decision.
  • Furthermore, the court described Article 239AA as aligning the executive powers of the Delhi government with the legislative authority of its Assembly. It clarified that the Council of Ministers in Delhi holds authority over all subjects in the Concurrent List and all but three subjects in the State List.
  • However, if Parliament enacts a law on any subject from these lists, the Delhi government's actions must align with the parliamentary legislation

 

 Follow Up Question

1.In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy? (UPSC 2020)

A. An agency for widening the scope of parliamentary democracy

B. An agency for strengthening the structure of federalism

C. An agency for facilitating political stability and economic growth

D. An agency for the implementation of public policy

 

Answer (D)
 

Bureaucracy in India primarily functions as the executive arm of the government, responsible for implementing public policies, laws, and programs formulated by the legislature and the executive. It ensures the smooth administration of governance by executing policies at various levels, from the central to the local government.

While bureaucracy may indirectly contribute to democracy (Option A), federalism (Option B), and stability/economic growth (Option C), its primary role is to implement public policies, making Option D the most appropriate choice

 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international importance
 
For Mains Examination: GS II - Governance
 
Context:
 
Supreme Court guidelines to eradicate ragging from 15 years ago that haven’t gone much beyond tokenism on college campuses; government regulations that remain on paper; a regulatory system that, authorities say, is undermined by complaints that are either “frivolous” or difficult to track down — and the challenge of coming up with a widely accepted legal definition of ragging itself.
 
Read about:
 
What is ragging?
 
Why ragging is of serious concern in educational institutions?
 
Key takeaways:
 
  • Ragging involves any behavior by a student or group of students, whether through spoken or written words or actions, that results in teasing, rude treatment, or misconduct towards others.
  • It also includes engaging in disorderly or disruptive activities that cause distress, hardship, or psychological or physical harm, instilling fear or discomfort among fellow students.
  • Ragging can be broadly classified into three types. The first category includes common practices such as making newcomers introduce themselves, addressing seniors with formal titles like ‘Sir’ or ‘Ma’am,’ following prescribed dress codes, avoiding direct eye contact with seniors, and performing tasks like singing or dancing.
  • These activities are often not labeled as ragging but rather as a form of "interaction" or a harmless tradition meant to integrate new students into the institution’s culture while reinforcing seniority-based hierarchies.
  • The second type is explicitly recognized as ragging and includes forced consumption of alcohol or tobacco, coerced interactions with the opposite gender, use of abusive language, and ragging of a sexual nature.
  • Such actions often stem from a desire to break free from childhood restrictions, enact personal fantasies, or conform to gender stereotypes, particularly the notion of masculinity.
  • The third and most severe category involves physical abuse, coercion, and violent assaults. While sometimes used as a means of proving physical strength, it is more commonly intended to intimidate, humiliate, and assert dominance over newcomers.
  • In a 2001 ruling, the Supreme Court addressed the issue of ragging, describing it as a widespread problem in educational institutions. A public interest litigation on the matter was filed by Vishwa Jagriti Mission against the central government.
  • The Court broadly defined ragging as any disorderly conduct—whether verbal, written, or physical—that leads to teasing, rude behavior, or mistreatment of students. It also includes any action that causes distress, fear, embarrassment, or psychological harm to freshers or junior students, compelling them to act in ways they normally would not. The underlying motive behind ragging is often the pursuit of sadistic pleasure or the assertion of power and superiority by seniors over their juniors.
  • The Court issued several key anti-ragging directives, including the formation of proctorial committees to prevent and address ragging incidents internally. It also stated that cases involving serious misconduct or criminal offenses should be reported to the police.
  • In 2009, the Supreme Court revisited the issue, appointing a committee led by former CBI Director R.K. Raghavan to examine the problem further.
  • The committee’s recommendations were later formalized by the University Grants Commission (UGC).
  • An investigation by The Indian Express revealed that the establishment of a dedicated UGC helpline in 2009 contributed to a significant increase in reported ragging complaints.
  • Records obtained through the Right to Information (RTI) Act show that from January 2012 to October 2023, 78 students were listed under "suicide/death cases allegedly due to ragging." While this figure is small compared to the 4.14 crore students in higher education, it highlights the deeper issue of an unaccountable and opaque system for addressing ragging.
  • Over the past decade, the UGC helpline recorded more than 8,000 ragging complaints, with incidents surging by 208% between 2012 and 2022. Complaints rose from 358 in 2012 to a peak of 1,115 in 2019, followed by 1,103 cases in 2022 and 756 cases by October 2023.
  • Among the 78 ragging-related deaths reported during this period, Maharashtra accounted for the highest number (10), followed by Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu (7 each), Telangana (6), Andhra Pradesh (5), and Madhya Pradesh (4).
  • The highest number of ragging complaints came from Uttar Pradesh (1,202), followed by Madhya Pradesh (795), West Bengal (728), Odisha (517), Bihar (476), and Maharashtra (393).
  • The institutions with the most complaints included Banaras Hindu University (BHU) with 72 cases, Maulana Azad National Institute of Technology in Bhopal (53), and MKCG Medical College in Berhampur, Odisha (49)
 
Follow Up Question 
 
1.Which of the following bodies in India is responsible for monitoring and implementing anti-ragging measures in higher education institutions?

a) Bar Council of India
b) National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC)
c) University Grants Commission (UGC)
d) Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE)
 
Answer (c)
 

The University Grants Commission (UGC) is the primary regulatory body responsible for monitoring and implementing anti-ragging measures in higher education institutions across India. Following the Supreme Court’s directives, the UGC issued strict anti-ragging regulations in 2009, which include measures such as:

  • Setting up anti-ragging committees in institutions
  • Establishing a 24x7 anti-ragging helpline
  • Imposing penalties on institutions failing to curb ragging
  • Conducting awareness campaigns

The other options are incorrect because:

  • Bar Council of India (BCI) regulates legal education and the legal profession.
  • National Assessment and Accreditation Council (NAAC) focuses on accrediting and assessing educational institutions for quality standards.
  • Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) oversees school-level education and has no role in higher education institutions
 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination: Current events of national and international Importance
 
For Mains Examination: GS II - Indian Polity & Constitution
 
Context:
 
Incarcerated Khadoor Sahib MP Amritpal Singh on Wednesday moved the Punjab and Haryana High Court to attend the ongoing Parliament session, lest he lose his seat because of his prolonged absence from the House.
 
Read about:
 
What is Article 101(4)?
 
 
Key takeaways:
 

Legislative Research Data

According to Article 101(4) of the Constitution, if a Member of Parliament (MP) is absent from all sessions of either House for 60 days without permission, their seat may be declared vacant. However, this period excludes any time when the House is prorogued or adjourned for more than four consecutive days.

In practical terms, only the actual sitting days of Parliament count toward the absence period. For example, Amritpal has attended only one session of the Lok Sabha—his swearing-in last July. Since then, he has been in detention in Assam, leading to nearly 50 missed sessions.

Seeking Leave for Absence

The key phrase in Article 101(4) is “without permission of the House.” MPs who anticipate prolonged absences can formally request leave through the Committee on Absence of Members from the Sittings of the House, which evaluates such requests and makes recommendations. These recommendations must be approved by the House, though in most cases, such applications are rarely denied.

According to parliamentary expert Achary, Amritpal, as an MP, has the right to apply to the committee for permission to remain absent, citing his imprisonment and inability to secure bail as valid reasons.

Suspension of MPs

  • It is the role and duty of the Presiding officer- Speaker of Lok Sabha and Chairman of Rajya Sabha to maintain order so that the House can function smoothly.
  • In order to ensure that proceedings are conducted in the proper manner, the Speaker/Chairman is empowered to force a member to withdraw from the House.

 

Follow Up Question

1.Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha speaker, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2012)
1. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President.
2. He/She need not be a member of the House at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six months from the date of his/her election.
3. If he/she intends to resign, the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.  1 and 2 only                 
B.  3 only                 
C.  1, 2 and 3                 
D. None
 
Answer (B)
 
  • Incorrect: The Lok Sabha Speaker does not hold office at the pleasure of the President. Instead, the Speaker remains in office until the House dissolves or until they resign or are removed by a resolution passed by a majority of Lok Sabha members as per Article 94 of the Constitution.

  • Incorrect: The Speaker must be an elected member of the Lok Sabha at the time of election. There is no provision allowing a non-member to be elected as Speaker and then become a member within six months. This rule applies only to ministers, not the Speaker.

  • Correct: If the Speaker intends to resign, the resignation letter must be addressed to the Deputy Speaker, as per Article 94(b) of the Constitution

 

Are freebies and welfare schemes different?

For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international importance

For Mains Examination: GS II - GS II - Governance

Context:

All three major political parties in the Delhi Assembly elections, won by the Bharatiya Janata Party, unveiled a barrage of freebies or subsidies to woo voters. The Aam Aadmi Party (AAP) pledged a ₹2,100 monthly allowance for all women, an additional ₹21,000 for pregnant women, and subsidised LPG cylinders at ₹500 for those from impoverished backgrounds.

 

Read about:

Can schemes such as the midday meal, the public distribution system, and child development services be considered as welfare?

How do targeted cash transfer programmes impact lives?

 

Key takeaways:

 

Electoral Sops or Welfare Politics?

  • The debate over electoral freebies versus welfare measures remains unresolved due to the lack of a clear definition of what qualifies as a freebie. Some view freebies as a form of bribery, which they argue influences voter decisions and discourages informed choices.
  • Others, however, believe this perspective undermines voter agency and delegitimizes welfare politics. The perception of a policy as a freebie or a genuine welfare measure often depends on context.
  • For instance, while some may consider free public transport an unnecessary handout, others see it as an essential social support system. Ironically, critics of transport subsidies may indirectly benefit from the availability of cheap labor, which is facilitated by affordable transportation.
  • Dr. K.K. Kailash, a Political Science professor at the University of Hyderabad, highlights how such measures enable people to travel for work, thereby sustaining economic activity.

Welfare as a Legal Right

  • The National Food Security Act (2013), introduced by the Congress-led UPA government, transformed various welfare programs—such as the mid-day meal scheme, the Public Distribution System (PDS), and child development initiatives—into legal entitlements. According to government data, the law benefits 75% of the rural population and 50% of the urban population, covering nearly 800 million people.
  • A 2023 study by the Centre for Financial Inclusion (CFI) found that well-structured cash transfer programs, particularly those directing funds to women on behalf of their households, not only empower women but also help reduce the risks of domestic violence.

Where to Draw the Line?

  • According to Dr. Kailash, welfare programs enhance human capabilities and promote freedom, aligning with Amartya Sen’s “capability approach” to development. For example, mid-day meal programs provide access to nutritious food, which boosts immunity and allows individuals to live healthier, more dignified lives.
  • Poor health, on the other hand, increases healthcare costs and puts additional pressure on public resources. Investing in nutrition and education from an early age yields long-term societal benefits.
  • Cash transfer schemes have gained political traction in Maharashtra, Jharkhand, and Haryana, reinforcing their role in electoral strategies. However, Dr. Kailash warns that while these schemes increase consumer spending and stimulate market activity, they do not create sustainable economic opportunities.
  • Over-reliance on freebie-driven politics poses significant fiscal risks, particularly for states burdened with high debt.
  • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has highlighted a sharp rise in subsidy expenditure, urging states to rationalize subsidies to protect essential investments in infrastructure and public services.

The Judiciary’s Role

  • In August 2022, the Supreme Court referred multiple petitions challenging the constitutional validity of electoral freebies to a three-judge bench. The lead petition, filed by BJP leader Ashwini Upadhyay, argued that populist giveaways undermine free and fair elections, violating constitutional principles.
  • During the hearings, a bench led by former Chief Justice of India N.V. Ramana proposed forming an expert panel to gather recommendations from stakeholders—marking a shift from the Court’s previous stance.
  • In S. Subramaniam Balaji vs Government of Tamil Nadu (2013), the Supreme Court had ruled that such matters fall under legislative policy and are beyond judicial intervention.
  • The judgment also emphasized that state-funded welfare programs cannot be deemed illegal or considered “corrupt practices”, especially when they align with the Directive Principles of State Policy. However, no further hearings have taken place since November 23, 2023

 

Follow Up Question

 

1.Consider the following statements: (2017)

  1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body. 
  2. The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. 
  3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties. 

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only 
(b) 2 only 
(c) 2 and 3 only 
(d) 3 only 

 

Answer (d)
 
  1. "The Election Commission of India is a five-member body"
  • This is INCORRECT
  • The Election Commission of India consists of a Chief Election Commissioner and two Election Commissioners (three members total)
  • This structure was established through the Election Commissioner Amendment Act, 1993
  1. "The Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections"
  • This is INCORRECT
  • The Election Commission of India has the exclusive power to decide election schedules
  • This is part of its constitutional mandate under Article 324
  1. "Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognised political parties"
  • This is CORRECT
  • The EC has the power to decide matters related to recognition of political parties and disputes about splits/mergers
  • This power comes under the Election Symbols (Reservation and Allotment) Order, 1968

Therefore, only statement 3 is correct

 
 
 
For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international importance
 
For Mains Examination: GS-III: Food processing and related industries in India- scope’ and significance, location, upstream and downstream requirements, supply chain management.
 
Context:
The Uttar Pradesh government last week made it mandatory for food establishments to “prominently” display to customers the names of “the operator, proprietor, manager, and other relevant personnel”. A day later, Himachal Pradesh minister Vikramaditya Singh said that in his state too, “every eatery and fast food cart will have to display the owner’s ID”
 
Read about:
 
What is State Food Safety Index (SFSI)?
 
What is Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI)?
 
Key takeaways:
 
  • Individuals planning to start a food business must either register or obtain a license from the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI). This authority was established under the Food Safety and Standards Act (FSSA) to oversee and develop regulations for the processing, distribution, sale, and importation of food to guarantee that it is “safe and wholesome.”

  • According to the Food Safety and Standards (Licensing and Registration of Food Businesses) Rules, 2011 (established under the FSSA), “Petty Food Manufacturers” such as small-scale food enterprises, hawkers, vendors, and stall operators are mandated to register with the FSSAI.

  • Upon successful registration, the Petty Food Manufacturer is issued a registration certificate and a photo identity card, which must be displayed prominently at all times within their premises, vehicle, or cart.

  • Additionally, operators of larger food enterprises are required to obtain a license from the food authority. This license must also be displayed prominently at all times within the location where the Food Business Operator conducts their operations. In both instances, the identity of the owner and the establishment's location must be clearly shown (via photo ID and FSSAI license).

  • According to Section 63 of the FSSA, any operator running a food business without a license may face up to six months in prison and a fine of up to ₹5 lakh. Section 94(1) of the FSSA states: “Subject to the powers of the Central Government and the Food Authority to make rules and regulations respectively, the State Government may, after prior publication and with the approval of the Food Authority, create rules to fulfill the functions and duties assigned to the State Government and the State Commissioner of Food Safety under this Act and its associated rules and regulations.”

  • Section 94(2) outlines the areas on which state governments can establish rules. Under Section 94(2)(a), states can formulate regulations regarding the “other functions of the Commissioner of Food Safety under clause (f) of sub-section (2) of section 30.”

  • The Commissioner of Food Safety, appointed by the state government as per Section 30, is responsible for ensuring the “efficient implementation” of the FSSA along with its rules and regulations. Sections 30(2)(a) to (e) detail specific responsibilities of the Commissioner, such as conducting surveys, organizing training programs, and approving prosecutions for violations. Section 30(2)(f) grants the Commissioner a broader mandate for “such other functions as the State Government may, in consultation with the Food Authority, prescribe.”

  • Furthermore, Section 94(2)(c) permits the state government to formulate rules for “any other matter which is required to be, or may be prescribed or in respect of which provision is to be made by rules by the State Government.” Section 94(3) mandates that the rule be presented to the state legislature for approval “as soon as possible.”

 
Follow Up Question
 
With reference to 'Initiative for Nutritional Security through Intensive Millets Promotion, which of the following statements is/are correct? (UPSC 2016) 
1. This initiative aims to demonstrate the improved production and post-harvest technologies and to demonstrate value addition techniques, in an integrated manner, with a cluster approach.
2. Poor, small, marginal and tribal farmers have a larger stake in this scheme.
3. An important objective of the scheme is to encourage farmers of commercial crops to shift to millet cultivation by offering them free kits of critical inputs of nutrients and micro-irrigation equipment.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1 only     
B.  2 and 3 only   
C. 1 and 2 only         
D. 1, 2 and 3
 
Answer (C)
 
  • Statement 1: This statement is correct. The initiative aims to improve production and post-harvest technologies using a cluster approach, which is an essential aspect of the program.

  • Statement 2: This statement is also correct. The initiative focuses on empowering poor, small, marginal, and tribal farmers, who have a larger stake in the scheme.

  • Statement 3: This statement is incorrect. While the initiative promotes millet cultivation, it does not specifically aim to encourage farmers of commercial crops to shift to millet by providing free kits of critical inputs

 
 

 

IMEC project gains traction as PM holds talks with Macron

For Preliminary Examination:  Current events of national and international importance

For Mains Examination: GS II International relations

Context:

India and France on Wednesday announced that they would continue to work closely to implement the India-Middle East-Europe Corridor (IMEC) project

Read about:

India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC)

Significance of Red Sea route

 

Key takeaways:

  • The India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) is a major multinational initiative aimed at enhancing trade and connectivity between India, the Middle East, and Europe.
  • Announced during the G20 Summit in September 2023, this corridor is envisioned as a strategic alternative to China’s Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) and aims to strengthen economic integration across Asia, the Middle East, and Europe.
At its core, IMEC is designed to streamline trade and energy flows by creating a rail and maritime transport network that links key regions. The corridor will consist of two main parts:
  1. The Eastern Corridor, which will connect India to the Middle East through ports and rail infrastructure.
  2. The Northern Corridor, which will extend from the Middle East into Europe, ensuring smoother movement of goods, energy, and digital connectivity.
  • By linking India’s western coast to ports in the United Arab Emirates (UAE), Saudi Arabia, and other Gulf countries, the project aims to reduce travel time and transportation costs for goods bound for Europe.
  • From the Middle East, cargo will be further transported via rail networks into Turkey and onwards into European markets.
  • Additionally, the project includes energy infrastructure such as pipelines for hydrogen transport, which is expected to support the global shift towards clean energy.
  • One of the key motivations behind IMEC is to provide a more reliable and efficient trade route, reducing dependency on longer and costlier traditional routes such as those through the Suez Canal.
  • The corridor is expected to boost economic cooperation between participating countries, enhance supply chain resilience, and encourage regional development by creating new industrial and logistics hubs.
  • IMEC is backed by India, the United States, the European Union, Saudi Arabia, the UAE, France, Germany, and Italy, reflecting a strong geopolitical alignment among major global economies. The initiative is also expected to enhance digital connectivity by laying down fiber optic cables for secure and faster communication networks across the regions.
  • Despite its potential, the project faces challenges such as infrastructure development, political cooperation, and funding requirements. Additionally, geopolitical tensions in the Middle East and competition with China’s established Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) pose strategic hurdles.
  • If successfully implemented, the IMEC will redefine trade routes, position India as a key player in global supply chains, and strengthen economic ties between Asia, the Middle East, and Europe, fostering greater regional integration and long-term economic benefits

 

The Importance of Red Sea Route
 

The Red Sea route holds immense significance for global trade due to the strategic location of the Bab el-Mandab Strait. This narrow passage, nestled between Yemen and Djibouti, acts as a critical chokepoint, handling a staggering 12% of the world's international merchandise trade. It serves as a vital conduit for cargo ships and, crucially, almost half of all global oil shipments.

However, the ongoing Red Sea crisis has thrown a wrench into this well-oiled system. With the region in turmoil, major carriers have been forced to take a detour around Africa via the Cape of Good Hope. This significant rerouting has had several ripple effects:

  • Soaring ocean freight: The added distance translates to increased fuel consumption and operational costs for shipping companies, which are inevitably passed on to consumers in the form of higher freight charges.
  • Inflated insurance costs: The heightened security concerns due to the conflict have also led to increased insurance premiums for traversing the alternate route.
  • Longer voyage times: The detour translates to longer journeys for vessels, leading to delayed deliveries and potential product shortages.
  • Escalating transportation costs: All these factors culminate in increased transportation costs for goods, ultimately impacting businesses and consumers globally.
 
Follow Up Question
 
1.With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2022)
1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.
2. It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only           
(b) 2 only     
(c) Both 1 and 2         
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
 
Answer (c)
 
  • It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.

    • Correct. The G20 Common Framework for Debt Treatments was launched in November 2020 by the G20 and the Paris Club, a group of creditor nations that coordinate solutions for debtor countries facing payment difficulties. The framework aims to facilitate coordinated and timely debt restructuring for eligible countries.
  • It is an initiative to support Low-Income Countries with unsustainable debt.

    • Correct. The framework is specifically designed to assist Low-Income Countries (LICs) struggling with unsustainable debt burdens. It builds on the Debt Service Suspension Initiative (DSSI) and seeks to provide long-term solutions for debt restructuring
 
 
Subject and Subject Wise Notes for the Sunday Exam (Free)
 
Subject Topic Description
Polity Fundamental Duties Fundamental Duties
Environment & Ecology Biodiversity in India Biodiversity
History Modern Indian History Constitutional Development in India
History Modern Indian History Peasants, Tribal and other movements
 

 

UPSC EXAM NOTES will be conducting both Prelims and Mains exams every Sunday as part of the Integrated Mains and Prelims (IMPM) Program. This program provides a comprehensive approach to UPSC exam preparation, ensuring that candidates are well-prepared for both stages of the exam.

Program Highlights:

  • Daily Study Keys: Each day, we will provide keys that outline what to read, focusing on the most relevant topics and current affairs.
  • Subject Notes: In addition to daily keys, we will supply detailed subject notes to help you build a strong foundation in all necessary areas.
  • Sunday Exams: Every Sunday, a combined exam will be held, encompassing the daily keys' content and subject notes, along with a culmination of current affairs from various sources. These exams will cover both Prelims and Mains syllabi.
  • Format: Exams will be available in both online and offline formats to cater to different preferences and situations.

Duration: The IMPM plan is a one-year program, ensuring continuous and structured preparation over 12 months. With regular testing and consistent study guidance, this program is designed to maximize your chances of success in the UPSC exams

 
Previous IMPM Keys
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 
 

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