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DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS, 25 FEBRUARY 2026

SPECIAL INTENSIVE REVISION (SIR)

 
 
1. Context
 
The Supreme Court on Tuesday moved in quickly to swell the ranks of judicial officers deployed to aid the Election Commission (EC) in the completion of the special intensive revision (SIR) in West Bengal, even alerting neighbouring Odisha and Jharkhand to spare their judges.
 
2. What is the Special Intensive Revision?
 
 
  • The Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of the Electoral Rolls is an important exercise undertaken by the Election Commission of India (ECI) to ensure that the voter lists (electoral rolls) are accurate, updated, and inclusive before any major election or as part of the annual revision cycle.
  • In simpler terms, the SIR is a comprehensive verification and correction process of the electoral rolls — aimed at including eligible voters, removing ineligible ones, and rectifying errors in the existing list.
  • It is called “special” because it involves an intensified, house-to-house verification and greater public participation compared to the routine annual summary revision
  • The purpose of the Special Intensive Revision is to maintain the purity, accuracy, and inclusiveness of India’s democratic process. Clean and updated voter rolls are essential for free, fair, and credible elections, as they prevent issues like bogus voting, disenfranchisement, and duplication.
  • In summary, the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) is a focused, large-scale voter verification campaign conducted by the Election Commission to ensure that the electoral rolls are error-free, inclusive, and reflective of the current eligible voting population. It plays a crucial role in strengthening the integrity and transparency of India’s electoral system

During the Special Intensive Revision, Booth Level Officers (BLOs) visit households to verify voter details such as name, address, age, and photo identity. This exercise helps identify:

  • Citizens who have turned 18 years or older and are eligible to vote,

  • Entries that need to be corrected or deleted due to death, migration, or duplication, and

  • Any discrepancies in the voter’s details such as gender, address, or photo mismatch
 
 
3. Election Commission of India, its powers and functions
 
  • Article 324(1) of the Indian Constitution empowers the Election Commission of India (ECI) with the authority to oversee, guide, and manage the preparation of electoral rolls as well as the conduct of elections for both Parliament and the State Legislatures.
  • As per Section 21(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, the ECI holds the right to order a special revision of the electoral roll for any constituency, or part of it, at any time and in a manner it considers appropriate.
  • According to the Registration of Electors’ Rules, 1960, the revision of electoral rolls may be carried out intensively, summarily, or through a combination of both methods, as directed by the ECI.
  • An intensive revision involves preparing an entirely new roll, while a summary revision deals with updating or modifying the existing one
 
4. How is SIR different from the National Register of Citizens (NRC)?
 
 
 
 
Aspect  Special Intensive Revision (SIR) National Register of Citizens (NRC)
Purpose To verify, update, and correct the electoral rolls so that all eligible voters are included and ineligible names are removed To identify legal citizens of India and detect illegal immigrants
Authority / Governing Body Conducted by the Election Commission of India (ECI) Conducted under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA)
Legal Basis Based on Article 324(1) of the Constitution, Section 21(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, and the Registration of Electors' Rules, 1960. Governed by the Citizenship Act, 1955 and the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and Issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003
Scope Focuses only on Indian citizens aged 18 years and above who are eligible to vote Covers all residents of India (or a particular state) to determine their citizenship status
Nature of the Exercise A regular, recurring administrative exercise carried out to maintain accurate voter lists A special, large-scale verification exercise conducted under specific legal or political mandates.
Relation to Citizenship Does not determine citizenship — only eligibility to vote Directly determines citizenship status
 
 
5. What are the concerns related to SIR?
 

One of the major concerns is the erroneous deletion of eligible voters from the rolls.

  • Mistakes during house-to-house verification or data entry may lead to legitimate voters—especially migrants, daily-wage workers, and marginalized communities—being left out.

  • Such exclusions can directly affect voter participation and undermine the democratic process.

Despite the intensive verification, fake or duplicate names often remain due to poor coordination or outdated records.

  • Deaths, migrations, or multiple registrations in different constituencies are not always updated accurately.

  • This raises questions about the accuracy and credibility of the electoral rolls.

The SIR is a large-scale field operation requiring trained personnel, coordination among departments, and robust data systems.

  • Booth Level Officers (BLOs) are often overburdened with multiple duties and may not have sufficient time or training for thorough verification.

  • Limited digital infrastructure in rural areas can also hamper real-time data updates.

Electoral roll revisions, especially when conducted close to elections, can spark political allegations of bias or manipulation.

  • Parties may accuse each other or the Election Commission of targeting specific communities or constituencies.

  • Even unintentional errors can lead to trust deficits in the electoral process.

 
6. Way Forward
 
 
While the Special Intensive Revision is essential for ensuring clean and updated electoral rolls, its effectiveness depends on transparent procedures, proper training, digital accuracy, and public awareness.
Addressing these concerns is vital to maintain trust in the Election Commission and uphold the credibility of India’s democratic system
 
 
For Prelims: Special Intensive Revision (SIR), National Register of Citizens (NRC), Election Commission of India (ECI)
For Mains: GS II - Indian Polity
 
 

Previous year Question

1. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2017)
1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 only
Answer: D
 
2. Consider the following statements : (UPSC 2021)
1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
2. In the 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
3. As per the- existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3
D. 2 and 3
Answer: B
 
Mains
 
1.To enhance the quality of democracy in India the Election Commission of India has proposed electoral reforms in 2016. What are the suggested reforms and how far are they significant to make democracy successful? (UPSC CSE 2017)
Source: Indianexpress
 
 

PSLV

 

1. Context

A committee that includes K. Vijay Raghavan, former Principal Scientific Adviser, and S. Somanath, former Chairman, India Space Research Organisation (ISRO), will probe “systemic issues” underlying the successive failures of the ISRO’s Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV).

2. History of PSLV

  • The PSLV is one of ISRO’s most reliable vehicles, having launched hundreds of satellites with only three failures or partial failures since 1993.
  • Over the years, various improvements have been made to it, making it a stand-out satellite carrier.
    Launch vehicles are meant only to deposit satellites into space, after which they become useless.
  • They either burn up in space or add to the ever-increasing concern of space debris. The PSLV, however, is now technologically advanced enough to have one component that can stay on in space to research after it has delivered its satellite.
  • The current mission includes this component, POEM-2, which stands for PSLV Orbital Experimental Module. 

3. What is PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle)?

  • PSLV is the most reliable rocket used by ISRO to date. Its first launch was in 1994, and it has been ISRO’s main rocket ever since.
  • Apart from Indian satellites, it also carries satellites from other nations into space, like in the current mission, where it carried payloads from Singapore.
  • The reason for this is that apart from being reliable, the PSLV is also more affordable than the launch vehicles of many other countries.
  • After its first successful launch in October 1994, PSLV emerged as a reliable and versatile workhorse launch vehicle in India.
  • The vehicle has launched numerous Indian and foreign customer satellites.
  • Besides, the vehicle successfully launched two spacecraft, Chandrayaan-1 in 2008 and Mars Orbiter Spacecraft in 2013, that later traveled to Moon and Mars respectively.
  • Chandrayaan-1 and MOM were feathers in the hat of PSLV. PSLV earned its title ‘the workhorse of ISRO by consistently delivering various satellites into low earth orbits. 

4. Various Components of PSLV

  • Rockets have several detachable energy-providing parts. They burn different kinds of fuels to power the rocket.
  • Once their fuel is exhausted, they detach from the rocket and fall off, often burning off in the atmosphere due to air friction, and getting destroyed.
  • Only a small part of the original rocket goes to the intended destination of the satellite.
  • Once the satellite is finally ejected, this last part of the rocket either becomes part of space debris or once again burns off after falling into the atmosphere.
  • PSLV has four parts namely PS1, a solid rocket motor augmented by 6 solid strap-on boosters; PS2, a storable liquid rocket engine, known as the Vikas engine; PS3, a solid rocket motor that provides the upper stages high thrust after the atmospheric phase of the launch; and PS4, the uppermost stage consisting of two Earth storable liquid engines.
  • As technology evolves, the effort is to make the various parts of a rocket reusable. PSLV’s PS4 has been able to achieve this. 

5. PSLV's Most recent Missions

  • The rocket launched recently carried TeLEOS-2 as the primary satellite and Lumelite-4 as a co-passenger satellite.
  • While TeLEOS-2 will “be used to support the satellite imagery requirements of various agencies within the Government of Singapore”, Lumelite-4 “aims to augment Singapore’s navigation maritime safety and benefit the global shipping community.
  • POEM-2, meanwhile, will be utilized as an orbital platform to carry out scientific experiments through non-separating payloads.
  • The payloads belong to ISRO/Department of Space, Bellatrix, Dhruva Space, and the Indian Institute of Astrophysics.

6. Why do satellites need launch Vehicles?

  • The Launch vehicle rockets have powerful propulsion systems that generate the huge amount of energy required to lift heavy objects like satellites into space, overcoming the gravitational pull of the earth.
  • Satellites, or payloads as they are often called, sit inside the rocket and are ejected once they reach their intended orbit in space.
  • Most satellites have small propulsion systems and carry small amounts of fuel, because they encounter very little drag, or force, in outer space.
  • What they do carry are the instruments needed for the scientific work for which they are being sent into space. 
For Prelims: Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV), International Space Research Organisation (ISRO), PSLV Orbital Experimental Module, POEM-2, Chandrayaan-1, TeLEOS-2, Lumelite-4 and Indian Institute of Astrophysics.
For Mains: 1. ISRO’s role has been impeccable in making India a global space power, however, there are many challenges and opportunities in the new space age that ISRO needs to address. Discuss. (250 words).

Previous year Question

1. With reference to India's satellite launch vehicles, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2018)
1. PSLVs launch satellites useful for Earth resources monitoring whereas GSLVs are designed mainly to launch communication satellites.
2. Satellites launched by PSLV appear to remain permanently fixed in the same position in the sky, as viewed from a particular location on Earth.
3. GSLV Mk III is a four-stage launch vehicle with the first and third stages using solid rocket motors, and the second and fourth stages using liquid rocket engines.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 3 only
Answer: A
 
Source: The Indian Express
 
 
 

HUMAN AND ANIMAL CONFLICT

 
 
 
1. Context
 
The Supreme Court on Tuesday said a deeper understanding of reasons behind human-wildlife conflict in southern States cannot be gained by mere court orders passed from thousands of miles away, but by being on the ground, reaching out to the local people in their own language
 
 
2. What is a Human and Animal Conflict?
 

Human-animal conflict refers to the interactions and conflicts that arise between humans and wildlife when their interests and activities overlap. This conflict often occurs when human activities and development encroach upon natural habitats, leading to increased contact and competition for resources between humans and animals. The consequences of human-animal conflict can be detrimental to both parties and may include economic losses, damage to property, injury, and loss of life for both humans and animals.

Common scenarios of human-animal conflict include:

  • Crop Raiding: Wild animals may enter agricultural fields and damage crops, leading to economic losses for farmers.

  • Livestock Predation: Predatory animals may attack and kill domesticated animals, such as cattle, sheep, or poultry, causing financial losses for livestock farmers.

  • Urban Encroachment: As human populations expand and urban areas expand into natural habitats, animals may find themselves in close proximity to human settlements, leading to conflicts over space and resources.

  • Road Accidents: Animals crossing roads, especially in areas near forests or wildlife habitats, can lead to collisions with vehicles, resulting in injuries or fatalities for both humans and animals.

  • Attacks on Humans: In some cases, wild animals may perceive humans as a threat and may attack, leading to injuries or fatalities.

  • Conservation Challenges: Human-animal conflict can pose challenges for wildlife conservation efforts, as negative interactions with humans may lead to retaliation against wildlife, posing a threat to endangered species

3. What are the reasons for the increase in human-wildlife conflict?
 

Experts attribute the surge in incidents of human-wildlife conflict to various factors, including the expansion of cultivated areas around wildlife habitats, alterations in cropping patterns, a notable rise in the populations of animals like elephants and tigers resulting from conservation initiatives, and the movement of livestock and humans into wildlife habitats during unconventional hours. Additionally, there has been a significant upturn in the populations of prolific breeders such as wild boars and peacocks.

Notably, the increased frequency of conflicts involving elephants is primarily attributed to habitat depletion and fragmentation caused by human activities. Furthermore, the invasion of alien species has diminished the availability of food and water, while the cultivation of monoculture species like eucalyptus and acacia has adversely impacted plant biodiversity

4. Kerala State vs Human and Animal Conflict

  • Approximately 30% of Kerala's land area is covered by forests. Given the relatively small size of the state, with an average width of approximately 70 km and a population exceeding 3.46 crore, numerous densely populated human settlements are situated in close proximity to protected forest regions.
  • Additionally, many agricultural plantations are located near wildlife habitats, particularly in hilly areas, including the heavily forested eastern part of the state. While this geographical arrangement inevitably results in human-animal conflict, Kerala has experienced a notable surge in such incidents in recent years.
  • Residents living near the fringes of forests have suffered substantial financial losses to their livelihoods, primarily due to frequent raids by elephants and wild boars. Since 2015, over 600 people in Kerala have lost their lives in conflicts with animals.
  • This has triggered protests among affected villagers, some of which have escalated into open confrontations between protesters and officials from the State Forest department
  • According to a study conducted by the State Forest department, Kerala experienced human-wildlife conflicts in 1,004 areas.
  • The study documented more than 48,000 incidents of crop damage from 2013-14 to 2018-19. Among the 35 forest and wildlife divisions in the state, Nilambur north (94), Wayanad south (92), and Wayanad north (70) forest ranges reported the highest numbers of major conflict locations.
  • The State recorded the highest number of incidents involving wild elephants, accounting for 14,611 occurrences between 2013-14 and 2018-19. Other contributors to these incidents include wild boars (5,518), bonnet macaques (4,405), and snakes (2,531).
  • Elephants, bonnet macaques, and wild boars have caused significant damage to farmers living in forest fringe areas. Herbivores like sambar, spotted deer, and gaur have also played a considerable role in crop damage.
  • The study reported a total of 814 livestock animals, including cattle, buffalo, and goats, being killed or injured in such attacks, with tigers preying on 420 of these animals
5.What are the reasons for the increase in human-wildlife conflict?
 
  • Experts attribute the escalation in human-wildlife conflict incidents to several factors, including the expansion of cultivated areas surrounding wildlife habitats, alterations in cropping patterns, a notable rise in the populations of animals like elephants and tigers resulting from conservation efforts, and the movement of livestock and humans into wildlife habitats during unconventional hours.
  • Additionally, there has been a significant upturn in the populations of prolific breeders such as wild boars and peacocks.
  • However, the increased frequency of conflicts involving elephants can be traced to habitat depletion and fragmentation caused by human activities. Furthermore, the presence of invasive alien species has diminished the availability of food and water. The cultivation of monoculture species like eucalyptus and acacia has also had adverse effects on plant biodiversity
6.What are the proposed solutions and why are they not effective?
 
  • Elephant-resistant trenches and solar-powered fences are commonly employed in Kerala and are generally deemed effective, provided they receive proper maintenance. However, there are several areas where these protective measures have not been implemented.
  • Additionally, nearby residents often break these fences to allow their cattle to graze in the forests, and elephants themselves may damage the fences using their legs and tusks.
  • In a master plan costing ₹620 crores to address this issue, the Forest department proposes the installation of elevated power fences that are beyond the reach of elephants.
  • Furthermore, as part of the State government's new eco-restoration policy, the Forest department aims to plant suitable indigenous vegetation (wild mango, wild gooseberry, and wild jackfruit) in the forests to ensure food security for wild animals and discourage them from entering agricultural lands.
  • Complementary measures include establishing early warning systems that utilize drones and human observers to track the movement of elephants and other dangerous animals, allowing people to avoid areas where they have been spotted. However, the widespread implementation of such warning mechanisms is lacking in Kerala.
  • On the contrary, these measures are not effective against wild boars. Despite Kerala's request to declare wild boars as vermin still pending with the Centre, the State government has recently granted local bodies the authority to cull wild boars that pose threats to agricultural crops or human life.
  • Other alternatives include capturing and neutering the boars or relocating them to forests where predators like tigers and leopards are present
7.How is human-animal conflict connected to the ESZ norm?
 

Human-animal conflict is connected to the concept of Ecologically Sensitive Zones (ESZ) norms through the need to establish buffer areas around protected areas, wildlife habitats, and other ecologically sensitive zones. ESZ norms are guidelines and regulations aimed at minimizing human disturbances and activities that could negatively impact biodiversity and ecosystems in designated areas. These zones are established to create a buffer between human settlements and wildlife habitats, reducing the chances of conflict between humans and animals.

Here's how human-animal conflict is connected to ESZ norms:

  • Buffer Zones: ESZ norms often define buffer zones around national parks, wildlife sanctuaries, and other ecologically sensitive areas. These buffer zones act as a transitional space to mitigate the impacts of human activities on wildlife and vice versa.

  • Land Use Planning: ESZ norms include regulations related to land use planning around protected areas. By controlling and guiding developmental activities in these zones, there is an attempt to minimize disturbances to wildlife and their habitats, consequently reducing the likelihood of conflict.

  • Wildlife Corridors: ESZ norms may address the creation and preservation of wildlife corridors, which are crucial for the movement of animals between different habitats. Ensuring the connectivity of habitats helps in preventing isolated populations, which can lead to increased interactions and conflicts with humans.

  • Conservation Measures: ESZ norms may include measures to conserve and restore natural habitats. By maintaining the integrity of these habitats, the likelihood of wildlife straying into human-dominated landscapes in search of food or suitable habitat is reduced.

  • Community Engagement: Some ESZ norms encourage community engagement and participation in conservation efforts. Involving local communities in wildlife conservation can lead to better understanding and cooperation, reducing conflicts by promoting coexistence

 

Previous Year Questions
 

1.Consider the following statements in respect of Trade Related Analysis of Fauna and Flora in Commerce (TRAFFIC): (UPSC CSE 2017)

  1. TRAFFIC is a bureau under United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).
  2. The mission of TRAFFIC is to ensure that trade in wild plants and animals is not a threat to the conservation of nature.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (b)

2.With reference to Indian elephants, consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE 2020)
1. The leader of an elephant group is female.
2. The maximum gestation period can be 22 months.
3. An elephant can normally go on calving till the age of 40 years only.
4. Among the States in India, the highest elephant population is in Kerala.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.1 and 2 only

B.2 and 4 only

C.3 only

D.1, 3 and 4 only

Answer (A)

3.With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE 2021)
1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government.
2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled for equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.
3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A.1 and 2

B.2 only

C.1 and 3

D.3 only

Answer (B)
 
Source: The Hindu
 
 

NATIONAL GREEN TRIBUNAL

 

1. Context

The Supreme Court on Tuesday closed a suo motu case from 2021 on remediation of polluted rivers after five years of near inaction. It directed the National Green Tribunal (NGT) to reopen the case and ensure continued monitoring.

2. What is National Green Tribunal (NGT)?

  • The National Green Tribunal (NGT) is a specialized judicial body established in India to handle cases related to environmental protection and conservation.
  • It was established under the National Green Tribunal Act, of  2010, and its primary objective is to effectively and expeditiously address environmental disputes and promote sustainable development.
  • With the establishment of the NGT, India became the third country in the world to set up a specialized environmental tribunal, only after Australia and New Zealand, and the first developing country to do so.
     
  • NGT is mandated to make disposal of applications or appeals finally within 6 months of the filing of the same.
  • The NGT has five places of sittings, New Delhi is the Principal place of sitting, and Bhopal, Pune, Kolkata and Chennai are the other four.

3. Structure of the National Green Tribunal (NGT)

  • Chairperson: The NGT is headed by a full-time Chairperson who is a retired judge of the Supreme Court of India. The Chairperson is responsible for the overall administration and functioning of the tribunal.
  • Judicial Members: The NGT consists of judicial members who are retired judges of either the Supreme Court or a High Court. These members have extensive legal knowledge and experience in handling environmental matters.
  • Expert Members: The tribunal also includes expert members who possess expertise in areas such as environmental science, ecology, hydrology, and forestry. These members provide valuable technical insights and guidance in the resolution of environmental disputes.
  • The NGT is organized into multiple benches located across different regions of India. These benches are responsible for hearing cases specific to their respective jurisdictions. Each bench is headed by a judicial member and consists of one or more expert members, as required.

4. What are the Important Landmark Judgements of NGT?

The National Green Tribunal (NGT) has delivered several landmark judgments that have had a significant impact on environmental protection and conservation in India. Here are some of the important landmark judgments delivered by the NGT:

  • Vardhaman Kaushik v. Union of India (2013): This case dealt with the issue of groundwater depletion due to illegal extraction by industries in Uttar Pradesh. The NGT directed the closure of industries that were extracting groundwater without proper permissions and ordered the payment of compensation for environmental damage caused.
  • Alembic Pharmaceuticals Ltd. v. Rohit Prajapati & Ors. (2014): In this case, the NGT ordered the closure of an industrial unit in Gujarat for releasing untreated effluents into a water body, causing pollution and harm to the environment and public health.
  • M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (2014): The NGT issued a landmark judgment in this case regarding the pollution of the Yamuna River. It directed several measures to clean and rejuvenate the river, including the establishment of sewage treatment plants and the regulation of industries contributing to pollution.
  • Subhash Chandra Sharma v. Union of India (2015): This case focused on the issue of air pollution caused by solid waste burning in open areas. The NGT imposed a ban on burning waste in open spaces and directed municipal authorities to take measures to manage waste effectively.
  • Raghu Nath Sharma v. State of Himachal Pradesh (2016): The NGT ordered the closure of illegal hotels and structures in the eco-sensitive Rohtang Pass area of Himachal Pradesh to protect the fragile Himalayan ecosystem.
  • Yamuna Muktikaran Abhiyan v. Union of India (2017): This case dealt with the rejuvenation of the Yamuna River and led to the NGT issuing directions to clean and restore the river, including measures to prevent encroachments and pollution.
  • M.C. Mehta v. Union of India (2017): The NGT banned the use of disposable plastic in Delhi and the National Capital Region (NCR) and directed authorities to take steps to prevent the use and sale of such plastic.
  • Shailesh Singh v. Hotel Holiday Regency (2019): In this case, the NGT imposed heavy fines on a hotel in Shimla, Himachal Pradesh, for causing air pollution by running diesel generators without proper emission control measures.
  • Subhash Chandran vs. Tamil Nadu Pollution Control Board (2020): This judgment highlighted the importance of safeguarding coastal areas and wetlands from unauthorized construction and development activities, emphasizing the need for stringent environmental norms.
  • In Re: Report by Comptroller and Auditor General of India (2021): The NGT directed the formulation of guidelines for the regulation of groundwater extraction and management to prevent overexploitation and depletion.

5. What is a dissolved oxygen level?

  • Dissolved oxygen (DO) level refers to the concentration of oxygen gas (O2) that is dissolved in a liquid, typically water.
  • It is a crucial parameter in aquatic ecosystems as it directly affects the survival and well-being of aquatic organisms.
  • In natural water bodies like lakes, rivers, and oceans, oxygen dissolves from the atmosphere through processes such as diffusion and aeration.
  • Aquatic plants, algae, and phytoplankton also contribute to the production of oxygen through photosynthesis. However, the level of dissolved oxygen can fluctuate based on various factors, including temperature, altitude, water flow, pollution, and organic matter decomposition.
  • Dissolved oxygen is essential for aquatic organisms because they rely on it for their respiration process, similar to how animals breathe oxygen from the air.
  • Insufficient levels of dissolved oxygen can lead to hypoxia, a condition where organisms are deprived of the oxygen they need to survive. This can result in stress, reduced growth, reproductive issues, and even mortality in aquatic species.

Different species of aquatic organisms have varying tolerance levels for dissolved oxygen. For example:

  • Fish and other aquatic animals often require dissolved oxygen levels between 4 to 6 milligrams per liter (mg/L) to thrive.
  • Some species of fish, insects, and other aquatic organisms can tolerate lower levels of dissolved oxygen, even below 2 mg/L, while others require higher concentrations.

6. What are chemical oxygen demand and biological oxygen demand?

Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD):

  • COD is a measure of the amount of oxygen required to chemically oxidize and break down organic and inorganic substances present in water.
  • It provides an indication of the total amount of pollutants that can be chemically oxidized by a strong oxidizing agent. COD is expressed in milligrams per liter (mg/L) of oxygen consumed.
  • COD is useful in assessing the overall pollution load in a water sample, including both biodegradable and non-biodegradable substances.
  • It is commonly used for industrial wastewater monitoring, as it provides a rapid estimation of the organic content and potential pollution levels. However, COD does not differentiate between different types of pollutants or indicate the potential impact on aquatic life.

Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD):

  • BOD measures the amount of dissolved oxygen consumed by microorganisms (bacteria) during the biological degradation of organic matter in water.
  • It is a key indicator of the level of biodegradable organic pollutants present in water. BOD is expressed in milligrams per liter (mg/L) of oxygen consumed over a specific time period, usually 5 days (BODâ‚…).
  • BOD is particularly important in assessing the impact of organic pollution on aquatic ecosystems.
  • High BOD levels indicate that a water body may have a significant amount of organic pollutants, which can lead to oxygen depletion as microorganisms break down the organic matter. This oxygen depletion, known as hypoxia, can harm aquatic organisms and disrupt the ecological balance of the water body.

Comparing BOD and COD:

  • BOD primarily measures the biologically degradable organic matter and provides information about the potential impact on aquatic life.
  • COD measures both biologically and chemically degradable pollutants, giving an indication of the overall pollution load and oxygen demand.
  • BOD is a more specific and ecologically relevant parameter, but it takes longer to determine (5 days), while COD can be measured more quickly.
For Prelims: National Green Tribunal (NGT), National Green Tribunal Act, of  2010, Dissolved oxygen (DO), Chemical Oxygen demand (COD), and Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD).
For Mains: 1. Discuss the significance of Chemical Oxygen Demand (COD) and Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) as critical indicators for assessing water pollution and quality. (250 Words)
 

Previous year Question

1. How is the National Green Tribunal (NGT) different from the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)? (UPSC 2018)
1. The NGT has been established by an Act whereas the CPCB has been created by the executive order of the Government.
2. The NGT provides environmental justice and helps reduce the burden of litigation in the higher courts whereas the CPCB promotes cleanliness of streams and wells, and aims to improve the quality of air in the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: B
 
2. The National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 was enacted in consonance with which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India? (UPSC 2012)
1. Right of a healthy environment, construed as a part of the Right to life under Article 21
2. Provision of grants for raising the level of administration in the Scheduled Areas for the welfare of Scheduled Tribes under Article 275(1)
3. Powers and functions of Gram Sabha as mentioned under Article 243(A)
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
A. 1 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
Source: The Indian Express
 
 

FREE TRADE AGREEMENT 

1. Context

The U.S. refers to agreements signed by Mr. Trump as Agreements on Reciprocal Trade (ART), as opposed to Free Trade Agreements (FTAs). This creates a new category in international trade deals, which now consists of three typologies.
 

2. About the Free Trade Agreement

  • A Free Trade Agreement (FTA) is an agreement between two or more countries to reduce or eliminate barriers to trade, such as tariffs, quotas, and subsidies.
  • FTAs can also include provisions on other issues, such as investment, intellectual property, and labour standards.
  • The goal of an FTA is to promote trade and economic growth between the signatory countries.
  • By reducing or eliminating trade barriers, FTAs can make it easier for businesses to export their goods and services to other countries, which can lead to increased production, employment, and innovation.

3. Types of Free Trade Agreement

  • Bilateral Free Trade Agreement (BFTA) involves two countries, aiming to promote trade and eliminate tariffs on goods and services between them.  It establishes a direct trade relationship, allowing for a more focused and tailored agreement between the two nations.
  • Multilateral Free Trade Agreement (MFTA) Involving three or more countries, an MFTA seeks to create a comprehensive trade bloc, promoting economic integration on a larger scale. It requires coordination among multiple parties, addressing diverse economic interests and fostering a broader regional economic landscape.
  • Regional Free Trade Agreement (RFTA) involves countries within a specific geographic region, aiming to enhance economic cooperation and integration within that particular area. It focuses on addressing regional economic challenges and fostering collaboration among neighbouring nations.
  • Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA) involves a reciprocal reduction of tariffs and trade barriers between participating countries, granting preferential treatment to each other's goods and services. It allows countries to enjoy trading advantages with specific partners while maintaining autonomy in their trade policies with non-participating nations.
  • Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) is a broad and advanced form of FTA that goes beyond traditional trade barriers, encompassing various economic aspects such as investment, intellectual property, and services. It aims for a more comprehensive economic partnership, encouraging deeper integration and collaboration between participating countries.
  • Customs Union While not strictly an FTA, a Customs Union involves the elimination of tariffs among member countries and the establishment of a common external tariff against non-member nations. It goes beyond standard FTAs by harmonizing external trade policies, creating a unified approach to trade with the rest of the world.
  • Free Trade Area (FTA) with Trade in Goods (TIG) and Trade in Services (TIS): Some FTAs specifically emphasize either trade in goods or trade in services, tailoring the agreement to the specific economic strengths and priorities of the participating countries. This approach allows nations to focus on areas where they have a comparative advantage, fostering specialization and efficiency.

4. India's Free Trade Agreements

India is a member of several free trade agreements (FTAs) and is currently negotiating others.  India's FTAs have helped to reduce trade barriers and promote trade and economic growth. They have also helped to attract foreign investment and create jobs. 

  • The South Asian Free Trade Agreement (SAFTA) was signed in 1995 by the seven countries of the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC). SAFTA aims to reduce or eliminate tariffs on trade between the member countries.
  • The India-Bangladesh FTA was signed in 2010 and came into force in 2011. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-Sri Lanka FTA was signed in 1999 and came into force in 2000. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-ASEAN Free Trade Agreement was signed in 2002 and came into force in 2010. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-Korea Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) was signed in 2010 and came into force in 2011. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-Japan Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement(CEPA) was signed in 2022 and came into effect in 2023. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-UAE Comprehensive Partnership Agreement (CEPA) was signed in 2022 and came into effect in 2022. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA) was signed in 2022 and came into effect in 2022. It is a comprehensive FTA that covers goods, services, and investments.
  • The India-Malaysia Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) was signed in 2010 and aims to enhance economic ties by addressing trade in goods and services, as well as investment and other areas of economic cooperation.
  • The India-Thailand Free Trade Agreement was signed in 2003 and focuses on reducing tariffs and promoting trade in goods and services between India and Thailand.
  • The India-Singapore Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement (CECA) has been operational since 2005, this agreement covers trade in goods and services, as well as investment and intellectual property.
  • The India-Nepal Trade Treaty While not a comprehensive FTA, India and Nepal have a trade treaty that facilitates the exchange of goods between the two countries.
  • The India-Chile Preferential Trade Agreement was signed in 2006 and aims to enhance economic cooperation and reduce tariffs on certain products traded between India and Chile.

5.  India - UK Free Trade Agreement

5.1. Background

  • Both countries have agreed to avoid sensitive issues in the negotiations.
  • The interim (early harvest agreement) aims to achieve up to 65 per cent coverage for goods and up to 40 per cent coverage for services.
  • By the time the final agreement is inked, the coverage for goods is expected to go up to "90 plus a percentage" of goods.
  • India is also negotiating a similar early harvest agreement with Australia, which is supposed to set the stage for a long-pending Comprehensive Economic Cooperation Agreement that both countries have been pursuing for nearly a decade.
  • While the commencement of negotiations does mark a step forward in the otherwise rigid stance adopted and when it comes to trade liberalisation, experts point to impediments and the potential for legal challenges going ahead.

5.2. GATT (General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs)

  • The exception to the rule is full-scale FTAs, subject to some conditions.
  • One rider, incorporated in Article XXIV.8 (b) of GATT, stipulates that a deal should aim to eliminate customs duties and other trade barriers on "Substantially all the trade" between the WTO member countries that are signatories to an FTA.
  • For this Agreement, a free-trade area shall be understood to mean a group of two or more customs territories in which the duties and other restrictive regulations of commerce are eliminated on substantially all the trade between the constituent territories in products originating in such territories.
  • It is often beneficial to negotiate the entire deal together, as an early harvest deal may reduce the incentive for one side to work towards a full FTA.
  • These agreements are not just about goods and services but also issues like investment.
  • If you are trying to weigh the costs and benefits, it is always better to have the larger picture in front of you.
  • In the case of the early harvest agreement inked with Thailand, automobile industry associations had complained that relaxations extended to Bangkok in the early harvest had reduced the incentive for Thailand to work towards a full FTA.
  • Early harvest agreements may serve the function of keeping trading partners interested as they promise some benefits without long delays, as India becomes known for long-drawn negotiations for FTAs.
  • Government emphasis on interim agreements may be tactical so that a deal may be achieved with minimum commitments and would allow for contentious issues to be resolved later.
 
For Prelims: Free Trade Agreement, India-U.K, Bilateral Free Trade Agreement, G-20 Summit, Agenda 2030, Covid-19 Pandemic, SAARC, General Agreement on Trade and Tariffs, Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement, Multilateral Free Trade Agreement, Regional Free Trade Agreement, Preferential Trade Agreement, Customs Union, 
For Mains: 
1. Evaluate the potential impact of the India-UK FTA on the Indian economy, considering both positive and negative aspects (250 Words)
2. Critically evaluate the significance of Free Trade Agreements (FTAs) in promoting trade and economic growth, considering their potential benefits and drawbacks. (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. Consider the following countries:
1. Australia
2. Canada
3. China
4. India
5. Japan
6. USA
Which of the above are among the free-trade partners' of ASEAN? (UPSC 2018)
A. 1, 2, 4 and 5          B.  3, 4, 5 and 6      C.  1, 3, 4 and 5       D.  2, 3, 4 and 6
 
Answer: C
 

2. Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP do not connote a higher level of economic development, if (UPSC 2018)

(a) Industrial output fails to keep pace with agricultural output.
(b) Agricultural output fails to keep pace with industrial output.
(c) Poverty and unemployment increase.
(d) Imports grow faster than exports.

Answer: C

3. The SEZ Act, 2005 which came into effect in February 2006 has certain objectives. In this context, consider the following: (2010)

  1. Development of infrastructure facilities.
  2. Promotion of investment from foreign sources.
  3. Promotion of exports of services only.

Which of the above are the objectives of this Act?

(a) 1 and 2 only     (b) 3 only         (c) 2 and 3 only           (d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: A

4. A “closed economy” is an economy in which (UPSC 2011)

(a) the money supply is fully controlled
(b) deficit financing takes place
(c) only exports take place
(d) neither exports nor imports take place

Answer: D

5. With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2022)
1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.
2. It is an initiative to support Low Income Countries with unsustainable debt.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only         (b) 2 only            (c) Both 1 and 2          (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: C
 
 Source: The Hindu
 
 

DIGITAL PERSONAL DATA PROTECTION RULES

 
 
 
1. Context
 
The petitions challenging the amendment to the Right to Information (RTI) Act that provides blanket exemption for personal information, through a section in the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Act, has been referred to a Constitution Bench of the Supreme Court.
 
Article image
2. What do the DPDP Act and Rules do?
 
  • The Government of India issued the Digital Personal Data Protection (DPDP) Rules, 2025 on 14 November 2025, completing the implementation of the Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023.
  • With both the Act and Rules now in place, India has a comprehensive, citizen-oriented framework that balances personal data rights with legitimate data processing requirements.
  • Before finalising the Rules, the Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology sought inputs from the public. Consultations were organised across several major cities—Delhi, Mumbai, Guwahati, Kolkata, Hyderabad, Bengaluru and Chennai—drawing participation from startups, MSMEs, industry associations, civil society organisations, and government bodies.
  • Citizens also contributed actively. Altogether, 6,915 suggestions and comments were submitted, significantly influencing the final version of the Rules.
  • The notification of these Rules establishes a practical, innovation-supportive data protection regime for the country. It promotes clarity, encourages adherence to the law, and enhances public confidence in India’s expanding digital landscape.
 
 
3. Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023
 
 
  • The Digital Personal Data Protection Act was passed by Parliament on 11 August 2023, establishing a comprehensive legal structure for safeguarding digital personal information in India.
  • It outlines the responsibilities of organisations when they gather or process such data. The Act is built on the SARAL philosophy—Simple, Accessible, Rational and Actionable—using straightforward language and clear examples so that individuals and businesses can easily understand the requirements.
  • The Act is anchored in seven foundational principles: consent and transparency, limitation of purpose, minimal collection of data, accuracy, restricted data retention, strong security measures and accountability. These principles shape each step of data handling and ensure that personal information is processed only for legitimate and defined purposes.
  • A key highlight of the law is the establishment of the Data Protection Board of India, an autonomous authority responsible for monitoring compliance, investigating violations and ensuring that necessary corrective actions are taken.
  • The Board is central to protecting user rights and fostering confidence in the data protection framework
 

Key Terms under the DPDP Act, 2023

  • Data Fiduciary: An organisation that determines the purpose and means of processing personal data, either independently or jointly with others.

  • Data Principal: The person to whom the personal data belongs. For children, this includes a parent or authorised guardian. For individuals with disabilities who cannot act on their own, this extends to their lawful guardian.

  • Data Processor: Any entity that processes personal information on behalf of a Data Fiduciary.

  • Consent Manager: A platform that provides a unified, transparent interface through which Data Principals can grant, monitor, modify or withdraw consent.

  • Appellate Tribunal: The Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT), which reviews appeals against decisions made by the Data Protection Board
 
 
 
4. Overview of the Digital Personal Data Protection Rules, 2025
 

The Digital Personal Data Protection Rules, 2025 operationalise the DPDP Act, 2023, creating a practical and transparent system for safeguarding personal data in India’s rapidly growing digital landscape. These Rules place strong emphasis on citizen rights and responsible data handling by organisations. Their objective is to prevent misuse of personal information, minimise digital risks, and foster an environment that supports safe innovation—thereby strengthening trust in India’s digital economy.

To achieve these goals, the Rules lay down several key provisions:

  • A phased compliance period of 18 months has been introduced so organisations have adequate time to upgrade systems and adopt sound data-protection practices.
  • All Data Fiduciaries must issue a separate, easy-to-read consent notice clearly stating the specific purpose for which personal data is collected and processed.
  • Consent Managers—entities that help people manage their permissions—must operate as companies incorporated in India.
  • The Rules also define a clear and prompt procedure for reporting data breaches. In the event of a breach, the Data Fiduciary must immediately notify every affected person in simple language, outlining what occurred, potential consequences and the corrective measures taken. The communication must also include relevant contact details for assistance.
  • Each Data Fiduciary is required to provide accessible contact information for queries related to personal data—whether that is a designated officer or a Data Protection Officer. Significant Data Fiduciaries have additional responsibilities: they must conduct external audits, undertake impact assessments and implement stricter controls when using emerging or sensitive technologies.
  • They may also be required to comply with government directions regarding restricted data categories, including localisation requirements when necessary.
  • The Rules strengthen the rights granted under the Act. Individuals can request access to their personal information, corrections or updates, and deletion in permitted situations.
  • They may also authorize another person to exercise these rights on their behalf. Data Fiduciaries must respond to such requests within 90 days.
  • Additionally, the Rules provide for a fully digital Data Protection Board of India with four members. Citizens will be able to submit complaints online and track them through a dedicated website and mobile app, making grievance resolution faster and more efficient.
  • Appeals against the Board’s orders will be handled by the Telecom Disputes Settlement and Appellate Tribunal (TDSAT)
 
5. How the DPDP Rules Empower Individuals?
 
 

The DPDP framework puts citizens at the heart of India’s data protection regime. Its core purpose is to ensure that individuals have clear authority over their personal information and can trust that it is handled responsibly. The rules are drafted in simple, user-friendly language so people can easily understand their rights, while also ensuring that organisations remain accountable for how they manage personal data.

Key Rights and Safeguards Provided to Citizens:

  • Right to Give or Withhold Consent
    Individuals have the freedom to agree or refuse the use of their personal data. Consent must be informed, specific, and easy to comprehend, and it can be withdrawn at any point.
  • Right to Know How Data is Used
    People are entitled to know what information has been collected about them, the purpose of its collection, and the ways it is being processed. Organisations must share this information in a clear and straightforward format.
  • Right to Access Personal Data
    Any individual may request a copy of the personal data that a Data Fiduciary holds about them.
  • Right to Correct Personal Data
    Citizens can ask for corrections if their personal information is wrong, inaccurate, or incomplete.
  • Right to Update Personal Data
    Individuals may request updates when their details change—such as a new phone number or address.
  • Right to Delete Personal Data
    People have the option to seek erasure of their personal data under specific circumstances. The Data Fiduciary must review and act on such requests within the stipulated timeframe.
  • Right to Appoint a Representative
    Every person may nominate someone else to exercise their data rights on their behalf—useful during illness or other situations where they cannot act themselves.
  • Mandatory Response Within 90 Days
    Data Fiduciaries must respond to requests for access, correction, updating, or deletion within a maximum of ninety days, promoting timely redressal and accountability.
  • Protection in Case of Data Breaches
    If a data breach occurs, affected individuals must be informed promptly. The notification must explain the incident and outline the steps they can take to reduce any potential harm.
  • Clear Contact Point for Help
    Organisations must provide easily accessible contact details—either of a designated official or a Data Protection Officer—for queries or complaints related to personal data.
  • Extra Safeguards for Children
    Processing children’s personal data requires verifiable consent from a parent or guardian, except when the data is used for essential services like medical care, education or immediate safety.
 
6. How the DPDP Framework Works in Harmony with the RTI Act?
 
  • As the DPDP Act and its Rules strengthen citizens’ privacy protections, they also clarify how these enhanced rights coexist with the Right to Information (RTI) Act, which ensures public access to information.
  • The amendments made through the DPDP Act modify Section 8(1)(j) of the RTI Act in a manner that upholds both privacy and transparency without undermining either.
  • This change is consistent with the Supreme Court’s recognition of privacy as a fundamental right in the Puttaswamy judgment.
  • It aligns the RTI law with judicial reasoning that has, for years, applied reasonable limits to protect personal information.
  • By formally incorporating this approach into the statute, the amendment removes ambiguity and avoids any clash between the RTI Act’s transparency mandate and the privacy protections embedded in the DPDP framework.
  • Importantly, the updated provision does not prohibit the release of personal data. Instead, it requires authorities to make a careful, case-specific assessment before sharing such information, keeping the individual’s privacy interests in mind.
  • Meanwhile, Section 8(2) of the RTI Act remains unchanged. It empowers public authorities to disclose information whenever the public interest is compelling enough to outweigh potential harm to protected interests.
  • This ensures that the core purpose of the RTI Act—promoting openness, accountability and informed citizen participation—continues to shape how information requests are handled
 

 

For Prelims: Personality rights, Delhi High Court, Madras High Court, Right to property, trademark, right to privacy, Article 21, Copyright Act, 1957
For Mains:
1. Explain how can the legal framework for protecting personality rights in India be strengthened to better address the challenges of the digital age. (250 Words)
 
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. What is the position of the Right to Property in India? (UPSC 2021) 
A. Legal right available to citizens only
B. Legal right available to any person
C. Fundamental Right available, to citizens only
D. Neither Fundamental Right nor legal right
Answer: B
 
2. In order to comply with TRIPS Agreement, India enacted the Geographical Indications of Goods (Registration & Protection) Act, 1999. The difference/differences between a "Trade Mark" and a Geographical Indication is/are (UPSC 2010)
1. A Trade Mark is an individual or a company's right whereas a Geographical Indication is a community's right.
2. A Trade Mark can be licensed whereas a Geographical Indication cannot be licensed.
3. A Trade Mark is assigned to the manufactured goods whereas the Geographical Indication is assigned to the agricultural goods/products and handicrafts only.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
A. 1 only          B. 1 and 2 only        C. 2 and 3 only         D. 1, 2 and 3
 
Answer: B
 
3. Which of the following statements regarding Article 21 of the Constitution of India is/ is correct?  (CDS GK 2017)
1. Article 21 is violated when under-trial prisoners are detained under judicial custody for an indefinite period.
2. Right to life is one of the basic human rights and not even the state has the authority to violate that right.
3. Under Article 21, the right of a woman to make reproductive choices is not a dimension of personal liberty.
Select the correct answer using the code given below.
A. 1, 2 and 3     B. 1 and 2 only     C. 1 and 3 only        D. 2 only
 
Answer: B
 
4. Article 21 of Indian Constitution secures: (OPSC OAS 2018)
A. Right to life only
B. Right to personal liberty only
C. Right to liberty and privacy
D. Right to life, personal liberty and right to privacy
 
Answer: D

5. ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India? (UPSC 2021)

(a) Article 15
(b) Article 19
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 29

Answer: C

6. Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement? (2018)

(a) Article 14 and the provisions under the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution.

(b) Article 17 and the Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV.

(c) Article 21 and the freedoms guaranteed in Part III.

(d) Article 24 and the provisions under the 44th Amendment to the Constitution.

Answer: C
 
Source: The Hindu
 

INDIAN JUDICIARY 

 
 
 
 
1. Context
 
 

The new Social Science textbook for Class 8, released by the National Council of Educational Research and Training (NCERT) , includes a section on “corruption in the judiciary” as part of a chapter on “The role of the judiciary in our society”.

 
 
2. The History of the Supreme Court of India
 
  • On January 28, 1950, two days after India became a sovereign democratic republic, the Supreme Court of India came into being.
  • The inauguration took place in the Chamber of Princes in the Parliament building which was the home to the Federal Court of India for 12 years preceding the Supreme Court's establishment.
  • The Parliament House was to be the home of the Supreme Court for years that were to follow until the court acquired its present building with lofty domes and its signature spacious collonaded verandas in 1958.
  • The inaugural proceedings on the 28th began at 9.45 a.m. when the Judges of the Federal Court Chief Justice Harilal J.Kania and Justices Saiyid Fazl Ali, M. Patanjali Sastri, Mehr Chand Mahajan, Bijan Kumar Mukherjea and S.R. Das took their seats.
  • The inaugural proceedings ensured that the rules of the court were published and the names of all the advocates and agents of the Federal Court were brought on the rolls of the Supreme Court.

 Evolution of the Supreme Court

  • In 1958, when the court shifted its premises, the building was shaped to project the image of scales of justice, in the central wing.
  • In 1979, two new wings the East wing and the West wing were added to the complex.
  • In all, there are 19 Courtrooms in the various wings of the building.
  • The Chief Justice's Court is the largest of the Courts at the Central Wing's Centre.
  • The original Constitution of 1950 envisaged a Supreme Court with a Chief Justice and 7 puisne judges leaving it to Parliament to increase this number.
  • In the early years, all the judges of the Supreme Court sat together to hear the cases presented before them.
  • As the work of the Court increased and arrears of cases began to accumulate, Parliament increased the number of Judges from 8 in 1950 to 11 in 1956, 14 in 1960, 18 in 1978, 26 in 1986, 31 in 2009 and 34 in 2019 (Current Strength).
  • As the number of Judges has increased, they sit in smaller benches of two and three coming together in larger benches of 5 and more only when required to do so or to settle a difference of opinion or controversy.
 
3. Articles 124 to 147 in Part V of the Constitution 
 
  • Article 124 establishes the Supreme Court of India, consisting of a Chief Justice and other judges. It outlines the composition and jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
  • Article 125 empowers Parliament to determine the salaries, allowances, and other conditions of service for the judges of the Supreme Court.
  • Article 126 allows the President to appoint an acting Chief Justice when the office of the Chief Justice is vacant or when the Chief Justice is unable to perform duties.
  • Article 127 The President has the authority to appoint a person who has been a judge of the Supreme Court or High Court as an ad hoc judge for a temporary period.
  • Article 128 Retired judges may be requested by the Chief Justice of India to sit and act as judges of the Supreme Court, emphasizing the importance of their experience.
  • Article 129 Declares the Supreme Court as a court of record with the power to punish for contempt of itself, highlighting its authority.
  • Article 130 The Supreme Court shall sit in Delhi, or in such other place or places as the Chief Justice of India may, with the approval of the President, appoint.
  • Article 131 Grants the Supreme Court original jurisdiction in disputes between the Government of India and States or between different States.
  • Article 131A Originally provided exclusive jurisdiction to the Supreme Court in constitutional matters related to Central laws; however, it has been repealed.
  • Article 132 Details the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in certain cases coming from High Courts.
  • Article 133 Specifies the appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in civil matters.
  • Article 134 Outlines the Supreme Court's appellate jurisdiction in criminal matters.
  • Article 134A Deals with the certification required for an appeal to the Supreme Court in certain cases.
  • Article 135 Confers the jurisdiction and powers of the former Federal Court on the Supreme Court.
  • Article 136 Grants the Supreme Court the discretionary power to grant special leave to appeal from any judgment or order.
  • Article 137 Empowers the Supreme Court to review its own judgments or orders.
  • Article 138 Allows Parliament to extend the jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
  • Article 139 Grants the Supreme Court the power to issue writs for the enforcement of fundamental rights.
  • Article 139A Provides for the transfer of certain cases from one High Court to another or from a High Court to the Supreme Court.
  • Article 140 Empowers the Supreme Court to exercise ancillary powers necessary for the effective discharge of its jurisdiction.
  • Article 141 Declares that the law declared by the Supreme Court is binding on all courts within the territory of India.
  • Article 142 Grants the Supreme Court the power to pass decrees and orders necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter.
  • Article 143 Allows the President to refer questions of law or fact to the Supreme Court for its opinion.
  • Article 144 Requires all authorities to act in aid of the Supreme Court.
  • Article 144A Originally provided special provisions for the disposal of questions regarding the constitutional validity of laws but has been repealed.
  • Article 145 Grants the Supreme Court the authority to make rules regulating the practice and procedure of the court.
  • Article 146 Deals with the appointment of officers and servants of the Supreme Court and the expenses associated with it.
  • Article 147 Provides for the interpretation of the expression "existing law" about the jurisdiction, powers, and authority of the Supreme Court under this chapter.
 
 
4. The organisational structure of the Supreme Court of India
 

The Supreme Court of India has a well-defined organizational structure, which includes the Chief Justice of India, other judges, and various administrative and supporting staff. 

Chief Justice of India (CJI)

  • The Chief Justice of India is the head of the Supreme Court.
  • The CJI is appointed by the President of India and is responsible for the overall functioning of the court.
  • The CJI presides over important matters, assigns cases to other judges, and represents the judiciary in various capacities.

Judges

  • The Supreme Court can have a maximum strength of 34 judges, including the Chief Justice.
  • Judges are appointed by the President of India based on recommendations from the collegium (a group of top judges).
  • Judges of the Supreme Court hear and decide cases, contribute to the formulation of legal principles, and may also be involved in administrative responsibilities.
  • Registry: The Registry is the administrative wing of the Supreme Court responsible for handling administrative and procedural aspects. It is headed by the Secretary-General, who is an officer appointed by the Chief Justice of India.
  • Court Officers and Staff: Various court officers and staff assist in the day-to-day functioning of the Supreme Court. This includes Registrars, Deputy Registrars, Assistant Registrars, and other administrative staff who manage the filing of cases, scheduling, and other administrative tasks.
  • Advocates and Legal Professionals: Advocates and legal professionals, including Senior Advocates and Advocates-on-Record, play a crucial role in presenting cases before the Supreme Court. Advocates-on-Record are registered practitioners who are eligible to file cases and plead on behalf of litigants.
  • Library and Research Staff: The Supreme Court library is an integral part of the institution, providing extensive legal resources to judges and legal professionals. Research staff may assist judges in legal research and analysis.
  • Security and Support Staff: The Supreme Court has security personnel to ensure the safety of the premises and those present. Support staff includes personnel responsible for maintenance, cleaning, and other logistical aspects.
  • Committees and Commissions: Various committees and commissions may be constituted by the Chief Justice or the Supreme Court for specific purposes, such as judicial reforms, ethics, or other administrative matters.
  • Supreme Court Bar Association (SCBA) is an association of lawyers who are authorized to practice in the Supreme Court. It plays a role in addressing the concerns of lawyers practising in the Supreme Court.
  • Legal Aid and Pro Bono Services: The Supreme Court may have mechanisms in place to provide legal aid to those who cannot afford legal representation.
  • Judicial Committees and Panels: Special committees or panels may be formed for specific tasks, inquiries, or recommendations related to the functioning of the judiciary.

 

5. The Process of appointment of Judges of the Supreme Court of India
 
According to Article 124(2) of the Constitution, Every Judge of the Supreme Court shall be appointed by the President by warrant under his hand and seal after consultation with such of the Judges of the Supreme Court and the High Courts in the States as the President may deem necessary for the purpose and shall hold office until he attains the age of sixty-five years.

Collegium System

  • The Collegium system is not rooted in the Constitution. Instead, it has evolved through judgments of the Supreme Court.
  • Under the system, the Chief Justice of India along with four senior-most Supreme Court judges recommend appointments and transfers of judges.
  • A High Court Collegium, meanwhile, is led by the incumbent Chief Justice and the two senior-most judges of that court.
  • In this system, the government’s role is limited to getting an inquiry conducted by the Intelligence Bureau (IB) if a lawyer is to be elevated as a judge in a High Court or the Supreme Court.
  • The government can also raise objections and seek clarifications regarding the Collegium’s choices, but, if the Collegium reiterates the same names, the government is bound, under Constitution Bench judgments, to appoint them to the post. 

 Evolution of Collegium System

The system evolved in the three Judge's cases:
  • In the First Judges case, the court held that the consultation with the CJI should be "full and effective".
  • The Second Judges Case introduced the collegium system in 1993, as they ordered the CJI to consult a collegium of his two senior judges in the apex court on judicial appointments, such a "collective opinion" of the collegium would have primacy over the government.
  • The Third Judges case in 1998, expanded the judicial collegium to its present composition of the CJI and four of its senior-most judges.

Procedure for replacement of Collegium System

  • Replacing the Collegium system calls for a Constitutional Amendment Bill.
  • It requires a majority of not less than two-thirds of MPs (Members of Parliament) present and voting in Lok Sabha as well as Rajya Sabha.
  • It also needs the ratification of legislatures of not less than one-half of the states.

The concerns associated with the Collegium system

  • Constitutional Status: The Collegium is not prescribed in the Constitution. Article 124 mentions consultation, which the SC interpreted as ‘concurrence’ in the Second Judges Case (1993). During the hearing against the NJAC, the then SC Bar President had argued that the Constituent Assembly had considered a proposal for making Judges’ appointment ‘in concurrence’ with the CJI but had eventually rejected it. 
  • Transparency: There is no official procedure for selection or any written manual for the functioning of the Collegium. The parameters considered for selection (or rejection) are not available in the public domain.
  • Accountability: The selection of Judges by the Judges is considered undemocratic. Judges are not accountable to the people or any other organ of the State (Legislature or Executive). It can add an element of arbitrariness in functioning.
  • Criticism by Judges: Many retired Judges have criticized the working of the Collegium, especially the lack of transparency. Several controversial appointments have been made despite objections by the members of the Collegium.
  • No Checks: There are no checks on the process. Nor has there been any review regarding the effectiveness of the process. Critics of the system argue the phenomena of ‘Uncle Judges’ wherein near relatives, kith, and kin of sitting Judges are appointed to the higher judiciary leading to nepotism. Law Commission in its 230th Report (2012) recommended that the Judges, whose kith and kin are practising in a High Court, should not be appointed in the same High Court. The absence of transparency, accountability, and external checks creates space for subjectivity and individual bias in appointments. In some cases, the principle of seniority has been ignored.
  • No Reforms: The Supreme Court did not amend the contentious provisions of the NJAC Act or add safeguards to the Act. Instead, it struck down the whole Act. The Supreme Court reverted to the old Collegium System. However, the Court did not take any steps to address the concerns associated with the Collegium System.
 
 

6. About the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC)

  • The Constitution (99th Amendment) Act, which established the NJAC and the NJAC Act, was passed by Parliament in 2014 to set up a commission for appointing judges,
    replacing the Collegium system.
  • This would essentially increase the government’s role in the appointment of judges. 
  • The laws were repealed in October 2015 after the Supreme Court struck them down.

Composition of NJAC

  • The Chief Justice of India as the ex officio Chairperson.
  • Two senior-most Supreme Court Judges as ex officio members.
  • The Union Minister of Law and Justice as ex officio members. 
  • Two eminent persons from civil society (one of whom would be nominated by a committee consisting of the CJI, Prime Minster, and the Leader of Opposition in the Lok Sabha, and the other would be nominated from the SC/ST/OBC/minority communities or women.
 
Article 124A created the NJAC, a constitutional body to replace the collegium system, Article 124B conferred the NJAC with the power to make appointments to Courts and Article 124C accorded express authority to Parliament to make laws regulating the manner of the NJAC's functioning.

 Recommendations 

  • Under the NJAC Act, the Chief Justice of India and Chief Justices of the HCs were recommended by the NJAC on seniority while SC and HC judges were recommended based on ability, merit and "other criteria specified in the regulations".
  • Notably, the Act empowered any two members of the NJAC to veto a recommendation if they did not agree with it.
  • In the collegium system, senior judges make appointments to the higher judiciary.

NJAC challenged

  • In early 2015, the Supreme Court Advocates-on-Record Association (SCAORA) fled a plea challenging the provisions which had by then become laws.
  • The SCAORA Contended in its petition that both the Acts were "Unconstitutional" and "invalid".
It argued that the 99th Amendment which provided for the creation of the NJAC took away the "Primacy of the collective opinion of the Chief Justice of India and the two Senior-most Judges of the Supreme Court of India" as their collective recommendation could be vetoed or "suspended by a majority of three non-Judge members".
 
  • It invoked the Second Judge Case to say that CJI primacy had to be protected.
  • It also stated that the amendment "severely" damaged the basic structure of the Constitution, of which the independence of the judiciary in appointing judges was an integral part.
 
7. The Way Forward
 
The Indian judiciary's journey from its inception to the current scenario reflects a dynamic evolution. The debate between the Collegium system and the proposed NJAC underscores the ongoing quest for a balanced, transparent, and accountable judicial appointment process in India. The complexities of this system highlight the need for continuous dialogue and potential reforms to uphold the judiciary's integrity and independence.
 
 
For Prelims: Collegium system, National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC), Supreme court, Article 124, 99th Constitutional Amendment Act
For Mains: 
1. Discuss the evolution of the Supreme Court of India from its inauguration in 1950 to the present day. How has its structure and capacity evolved to meet the changing demands of the legal landscape? (250 Words)
2. Examine the constitutional provisions that govern the Supreme Court of India. How do these provisions delineate the powers, jurisdiction, and composition of the Supreme Court? (250 Words)
3. What are the key features of the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC) Act, and how did it differ from the Collegium system? (250 Words)
4. How does the appointment process of judges in the Supreme Court of India, emphasise the role of the Collegium system? What are the concerns associated with this system, and do you believe reforms are necessary? (250 Words)
 
Previous Year Questions
 
1. With reference to the Indian judiciary, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2021)
1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with the prior permission of the President of India.
2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgment as the Supreme Court does.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A.  1 only      B. 2 only            C. Both 1 and 2                   D. Neither 1 nor 2
 
 
2. In India, Judicial Review implies (UPSC 2017)
A. the power of the Judiciary to pronounce upon the constitutionality of laws and executive orders
B. the power of the Judiciary to question the wisdom of the laws enacted by the Legislatures
C. the power of the Judiciary to review all the legislative enactments before they are assented to by the President
D. the power of the Judiciary to review its own judgments given earlier in similar or different cases
 
 
3. Consider the following statements:
1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes 'incapacity and proved misbehaviour' of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India
3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, of 1968.
4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of the total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? 
A. 1 and 2           B. 3 only               C. 3 and 4 only                         D. 1, 3 and 4
4.The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in (UPSC  2014)
A. the President of India
B. the Parliament
C. the Chief Justice of India
D. the Law Commission
5.The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its (UPSC P 2014)
A. advisory jurisdiction
B. appellate jurisdiction.
C. original jurisdiction
D. writ jurisdiction
Answers: 1-A, 2-A, 3-C, 4-B, 5-C
 
 Source: The Indian Express
 
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