STUBBLE BURNING
1. Context
2. What is Stubble?
Stubble refers to the leftover plant material, mainly crop residues, that remains in the field after the primary crop has been harvested. This includes the stems, leaves, and other organic material that is left behind.
Stubble burning is a common agricultural practice where farmers set fire to crop residues, such as straw and stubble, that remain in the field after the main crop (usually paddy or wheat) has been harvested. This practice is typically used as a quick and cost-effective method to clear the field for the next planting season. Stubble burning is particularly prevalent in regions with mechanized farming, where machines like combine harvesters leave behind a significant amount of crop residues.
3. Stubble burning contributes to air pollution
When stubble is burned, it releases a variety of pollutants into the air, including particulate matter, carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxides, and sulfur dioxide. These pollutants can cause several health problems, including respiratory problems, heart disease, and cancer.
Stubble burning is a major contributor to air pollution in many parts of the world. In India, for example, stubble burning is responsible for up to 30% of the air pollution in Delhi during the winter months.
- Stubble burning generates fine particulate matter (PM2.5 and PM10) that can penetrate deep into the respiratory system, leading to respiratory problems and reduced air quality.
- The combustion of stubble releases carbon monoxide, which can have adverse health effects when inhaled, particularly in enclosed spaces.
- Stubble burning produces Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs), which can react with other pollutants in the atmosphere, contributing to the formation of ground-level ozone, a major air pollutant.
- Burning stubble emits greenhouse gases like carbon dioxide (CO2) and methane (CH4), contributing to climate change.
- The combustion of crop residues can release various hazardous chemicals and pollutants, further deteriorating air quality.
4. About the Central Scheme for the Promotion of Agricultural Mechanisation for In-Situ Management of Crop Residue
The Central Scheme on Promotion of Agricultural Mechanisation for In-Situ Management of Crop Residue (AMICMR) is a scheme launched by the Government of India to promote the use of in-situ techniques for managing crop residue. In-situ techniques are those that are used to manage crop residue on the field, rather than burning it. Examples of in-situ techniques include:
- Mulching is the practice of covering the soil with a layer of organic material, such as straw or leaves. This can help to suppress weeds, retain moisture, and improve soil health.
- Zero tillage is the practice of planting crops without tilling the soil. This can help to prevent soil erosion and retain moisture in the soil.
- Direct seeding is the practice of planting seeds directly into the soil, rather than transplanting seedlings. This can help to reduce soil disturbance and prevent the spread of weeds.
The AMICMR scheme provides financial assistance to farmers to purchase machinery that can be used for in-situ management of crop residue. The scheme also provides training and extension services to farmers on how to use these techniques.
The AMICMR scheme is a promising initiative that could help to reduce air pollution caused by stubble burning. However, the scheme needs to be scaled up and made more widely available to farmers to have a significant impact.
5. Conclusion
Stubble burning is a major contributor to air pollution in many parts of the world. However, there are several alternatives to stubble burning, such as in-situ management of crop residue. In-situ management of crop residue is a more sustainable way to manage stubble, as it does not release pollutants into the air and has several benefits for soil health and crop yields.
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For Prelims: Stubble burning, air pollution, particulate matter, carbon monoxide, nitrogen oxides, sulfur dioxide, PM2.5, PM10, Volatile Organic Compounds, ozone, carbon dioxide, methane, Climate Change, The Central Scheme on Promotion of Agricultural Mechanisation for In-Situ Management of Crop Residue,
For Mains:
1. Critically evaluate the effectiveness of the Central Scheme on Promotion of Agricultural Mechanisation for In-Situ Management of Crop Residue (AMICMR) in addressing the issue of stubble burning in India. (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions 1. In the cities of our country, which among the following atmospheric gases are normally considered in calculating the value of Air Quality Index? ( UPSC 2016)
Select the correct answer using the code given below: (a) 1, 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 3 and 4 only (c) 1, 4 and 5 only (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 Answer: B 2. Acid rain is caused by the pollution of the environment (UPSC 2013, 2022) (a) Carbon Dioxide and Nitrogen (b) Carbon Monoxide and Carbon Dioxide (c) Ozone and Carbon Dioxide (d) Nitrous Oxide and Sulphur Dioxide Answer:D 3. Biological Oxygen Demand (BOD) is a standard criterion for (UPSC 2017) (a) Measuring oxygen level in blood (b) Computing oxygen levels in forest ecosystems (c) Pollution assay in aquatic ecosystem (d) Assessing oxygen levels in high-altitude regions Answer: C 4. Consider the following: (UPSC 2019) 1. Carbon monooxide
2. Methane
3. Ozone
4. Sulphur dioxide
Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue? A. 1 and 2 only B. 2, 3 and 4 only C. 1 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Answer: D 5. What is Particulate matter? (BPSC 2016) A. Solid residue B. Air pollutant C. Water pollutant D. Soil pollutant E. None of the above/More than one of the above Answer: B 6. Carbon monoxide is a poisonous gas because it: (OPSC OAS 2021) A. Binds to digestive hormones
B. Damages lungs
C. Destroys RBCs
D. Binds to haemoglobin
Answer: D 7. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2019) 1. Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
2. Cattle release ammonia into environment.
3. Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 2 only D. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: D 8. In the context of WHO Air Quality Guidelines, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2022) 1. The 24-hour mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 15 μg/m³ and annual mean of PM2.5 should not exceed 5 μg/m³.
2. In a year, the highest levels of ozone pollution occur during the periods of inclement weather.
3. PM10 can penetrate the lung barrier and enter the bloodstream. 4. Excessive ozone in the air can trigger asthma.
Which of the statements given above are correct? A. 1, 3 and 4 B. 1 and 4 only C. 2, 3 and 4 D.1 and 2 only Answer: B 9. Which of the following is a VOC? (MP Vyapam Sub Engineer Mechanical 2022) A. Toulene B. Water C. Carbon dioxide D. Carbon monoxide Answer: A 10. Which of the following Volatile Organic Compounds (VOCs) are emitted from anthropogenic sources only? (UGC NET 2023) A. Isoprene
B. Benzene
C. Terpene
D. Methane
E. Toluene
1. A, B and C Only 2. B and E Only 3. A and C Only 4. C, D and E Only Answer: 2 11. Which one of the following is associated with the issue of control and phasing out of the use of ozone-depleting substance? (UPSC 2015) A. Bretton Woods Conference B. Montreal Protocol C. Kyoto Porotocol D. Nagoya Protocol Answer: B 12. The increasing amount of carbon dioxide in the air is slowly raising the temperature of the atmosphere, because it absorbs (UPSC 2012) A. the water vapour of the air and retains its heat
B. the ultraviolet part of the solar radiation
C. all the solar radiations
D. the infrared part of the solar radiation
Answer: D 13. Which of the following adds/add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on the planet Earth? (UPSC 2014) 1. Volcanic action
2. Respiration
3. Photosynthesis
4. The decay of organic matter
Select the correct answer using the code given below A. 1 and 3 only B. 2 only C. 1, 2 and 4 only D. 1, 2, 3 and 4 Answer: C 14. Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of 'methane hydrate'? (UPSC 2019) 1. Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
2. Large deposits of 'methane hydrate' are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.
3. Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.
Select the correct answer using the code given below: A. 1 and 2 only B. 2 and 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3 Answer: D 15. With reference to two non-conventional energy sources called 'coalbed methane' and 'shale gas' consider the following statements: (UPSC 2014) 1. Coalbed methane is the pure methane gas extracted from coal seams, while shale gas is a mixture of propane and butane only that can be extracted from fine-grained sedimentary rocks. 2. In India, abundant coalbed methane sources exist, but so far no shale gas sources have been found. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2 Answer: D Mains
1. Describe the key points of the revised Global Air Quality Guidelines (AQGs) recently released by the World Health Organisation (WHO). How are these different from its last update in 2005? What changes in India’s National Clean Air Programme are required to achieve revised standards? ( UPSC 2021)
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SUB QUOTAS OF SCHEDULED CASTE (SC)
- The Andhra Pradesh Scheduled Castes (Rationalisation of Reservation) Ordinance, 1999, and the subsequent Act created four groups—A, B, C, and D—within the Scheduled Castes, each allocated different reservation percentages.
- This sub-classification aimed to address the varying levels of advancement among the communities listed as Scheduled Castes and to ensure representation for the less advanced castes. The Andhra Pradesh High Court upheld the Act against legal challenges.
- However, the Supreme Court's Constitution Bench of five judges declared this sub-classification unconstitutional. In the November 2004 judgment in E.V. Chinnaiah vs State of Andhra Pradesh, the Court emphasized that under Article 341 of the Constitution, the President is responsible for notifying the Scheduled Castes list, which can only be altered by an act of Parliament, not by further notifications.
- The Bench ruled that once listed under Article 341, Scheduled Castes form a single homogeneous class, and state legislatures lack the authority to further classify them into separate groups
- Six of the seven judges have now determined that the 2004 ruling was incorrect. Chief Justice D.Y. Chandrachud, along with Justice Manoj Mishra, concluded that SC communities should not be considered a homogeneous class as previously judged.
- He contested the notion that listing SCs creates a presumption of uniform status among them. While SCs share a common constitutional identity due to their shared experiences of untouchability and discrimination, this does not negate the diversity within these communities.
- Citing both historical and empirical evidence, Chief Justice Chandrachud demonstrated that significant differences exist among SC communities, with instances where some SC groups have faced discrimination from others within the same category.
- Thus, sub-classification is permissible if it is based on a clear and rational distinction with a valid purpose. This sub-classification is subject to judicial review, and the State must justify it with empirical data.
- Chief Justice Chandrachud also clarified that sub-classification does not alter the Presidential list of SCs and does not breach Article 341, which gives the President exclusive authority to notify Scheduled Castes.
- Article 341 serves to define who falls under the SC category, but states have the autonomy to recognize varying degrees of backwardness and provide special provisions or extend reservation benefits accordingly.
- The new ruling is anticipated to encourage states to allocate sub-quotas for the most marginalized Dalit sections who have not benefited from reservations to date.
- In her dissent, Justice Bela Trivedi upheld the Chinnaiah doctrine, arguing that sub-classification of a homogeneous class is impermissible and constitutes an alteration of the President’s list under Article 341
- The creamy layer concept is currently applicable only to Other Backward Classes (OBCs) and has not been extended to Dalit communities. Justice B. R. Gavai, who concurs with the Chief Justice in a separate opinion, elaborated on the need to identify more advanced members within the Scheduled Castes and exclude them from affirmative action benefits.
- Justice Gavai argued that treating all members of a community equally may not be just, especially when considering differences in social and economic status.
- He questioned whether the children of IAS or IPS officers should be given the same benefits as children from remote villages within the same community, given their differing access to resources and opportunities.
- He emphasized that combining such disparate groups under the same category would undermine the principle of equality. However, he also noted that the criteria for excluding the creamy layer among SCs should differ from those used for OBCs. Three other judges supported his perspective. Despite this, their opinions do not mandate the government to apply the creamy layer concept to SCs, as this issue was not directly addressed in the case at hand
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For Prelims: Current events of national and international importance
For Mains: GS-II: Government policies and intervention
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Previous Year Questions
Prelims 1.Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: (UPSC CSE 2019) 1. PVTGs reside in 18 states and one Union Territory. 2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status. 3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far. 4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs. Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) 1, 2 and 3 (b) 2, 3 and 4 (c) 1, 2 and 4 (d) 1, 3 and 4 Answer (c)
Given this analysis, the correct statements are 1, 2, and 4 Mains 1.What are the two major legal initiatives by the state since independence addressing discrimination against Scheduled Tribes (STs)? (UPSC CSE 2017) |
ANTI-DEFECTION LAW
2. About anti-defection law
The anti-defection law in India refers to the provisions laid down in the Tenth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which was inserted by the 52nd Amendment Act of 1985. The primary purpose of the anti-defection law is to curb "political defections" by legislators for personal gains or due to extraneous considerations, thereby promoting stability and integrity in the political system.
Key features and purposes of the anti-defection law include
- The law provides for the disqualification of elected legislators if they voluntarily give up the membership of their political party or disobey the directives issued by their party leadership on voting in legislative matters.
- By penalizing defections, the law aims to preserve stability and discipline within political parties. It discourages legislators from switching parties solely for opportunistic reasons, thereby promoting a more principled approach to politics.
- Preventing defections helps in maintaining stable governments by reducing the likelihood of frequent changes in government formation due to opportunistic alliances or individual defections. This stability is essential for effective governance and policy implementation.
- The law seeks to protect the mandate given by voters to a particular political party during elections. Defections can undermine the trust placed by voters in a party's policies and candidates, and the anti-defection law aims to safeguard the integrity of the electoral process.
- By discouraging defections and ensuring that legislators adhere to the party's stance on legislative matters, the law contributes to the smooth functioning of legislatures. It reduces disruptions caused by political uncertainties and promotes a more focused approach to lawmaking and governance.
- The anti-defection law upholds democratic principles by emphasizing the importance of party discipline and accountability. It encourages elected representatives to remain committed to the party's ideology and manifesto, thereby fostering a more transparent and accountable political system.
3. Has the anti-defection law ensured the stability of governments?
The effectiveness of the anti-defection law in ensuring the stability of governments in India is a subject of debate. While the law has certainly had some impact on curbing defections and promoting party discipline, its efficacy in maintaining government stability is not absolute.
Several factors contribute to this nuanced perspective
- The anti-defection law has succeeded in reducing blatant opportunistic defections where legislators switch parties solely for personal gains or political expediency. This has helped in preventing frequent changes in government formation and instability arising from such defections.
- In a multi-party democracy like India, coalition governments are common, and the anti-defection law has played a role in preserving these coalitions by deterring individual legislators from defecting and causing the collapse of the government.
- By discouraging defections and ensuring party discipline, the law has contributed to the smooth functioning of legislatures, which is essential for passing legislation and conducting parliamentary business. This has indirectly supported government stability by facilitating the enactment of policies and laws.
- Despite its provisions, the anti-defection law has faced challenges and criticisms. Some critics argue that the law has not entirely prevented defections, as legislators often find loopholes or exploit exceptions in the law to switch parties without facing disqualification.
- Government stability is influenced by various factors beyond the anti-defection law, including political dynamics, coalition dynamics, public opinion, and socio-economic factors. The law alone cannot guarantee government stability in the face of broader political uncertainties and challenges.
- While promoting stability, the anti-defection law has also raised concerns about its impact on democratic values such as freedom of speech and dissent within political parties. Critics argue that the law may stifle legitimate dissent and independent decision-making among legislators.
4. What constitutes defection? Who is the deciding authority?
Defection refers to the act of an elected representative or member of a political party abandoning their original party affiliation and joining another political party or forming a separate group, either independently or in association with others, without following the procedures laid down by their party or the law.
In the context of the anti-defection law in India, defection is specifically defined as:
- If a member of a political party voluntarily gives up their membership of that party.
- If an elected member votes or abstains from voting against the directives issued by their party leadership (whip) on a particular legislative matter, without obtaining prior permission.
- If a member of a political party joins another political party after being elected as a representative.
- If a member of a political party forms or joins a new group or political party, and such group consists of at least one-third of the members of the original political party in the legislature.
The deciding authority regarding defection cases is typically the Speaker or Chairman of the concerned legislative body (e.g., Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, State Legislative Assembly, or State Legislative Council). Upon receiving a complaint or petition regarding a defection case, the Speaker or Chairman examines the matter and makes a decision based on the provisions of the anti-defection law.
The Speaker or Chairman is responsible for determining whether the actions of the member(s) constitute defection as per the law and, if so, for issuing appropriate orders, including disqualification of the defectors from membership of the legislature. The decision of the Speaker or Chairman can be challenged in the courts through legal recourse if it is perceived to be arbitrary or in violation of constitutional principles.
5. Kihoto Hollohan case (1993)
The Kihoto Hollohan vs. Zachillhu and Others case, decided by the Supreme Court of India in 1992, is a landmark case related to defection and the role of the Speaker in Indian politics.
- The Tenth Schedule of the Indian Constitution, introduced through the 52nd Amendment in 1985, laid down provisions to curb defection by elected representatives. This case challenged the constitutionality of the Tenth Schedule, particularly the broad powers it granted to the Speaker in deciding defection cases.
- The petitioners argued that giving the Speaker such extensive power violated the doctrine of basic structure and potentially infringed on the freedom of speech, dissent, and conscience of elected representatives.
- The Supreme Court, in a majority judgment, upheld the Tenth Schedule and the Speaker's broad powers. The court reasoned that:
- The Speaker occupies a crucial position in the parliamentary system and is expected to handle sensitive matters.
- Granting the Speaker broad discretion is necessary for the efficient and effective functioning of the anti-defection law.
- The court acknowledged the potential for bias but believed it was minimized by the Speaker's constitutional position and the requirement to act in good faith.
Significance: The Kihoto Hollohan case remains a pivotal judgment shaping Indian politics. It
- Established the Speaker's authority in deciding defection cases.
- affirmed the constitutionality of the anti-defection law.
- However, the case also sparked discussions about the balance between stability and individual rights in the context of defection. It continues to be debated whether the broad powers granted to the Speaker are truly necessary or pose a risk to democratic principles.
6. SR Bommai case (1994)
The SR Bommai case, officially known as S.R. Bommai vs. Union of India, is a landmark judgment delivered by the Supreme Court of India in 1994. This case dealt with issues related to the dismissal of state governments under Article 356 of the Constitution of India, popularly known as the President's Rule.
The case was prompted by the dismissal of the government in the state of Karnataka in 1989 under Article 356 by the then-central government led by Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi. This dismissal led to legal challenges, including petitions filed by S.R. Bommai, who was the Chief Minister of Karnataka at the time of dismissal.
Key Issues
- Whether the decision of the President to impose President's Rule in a state under Article 356 was immune from judicial review.
- Whether the power of the President to dismiss a state government was absolute or whether there were limitations on this power.
- Whether there were grounds for judicial intervention in cases of misuse or abuse of Article 356 by the Central government.
Key Judgments
- The Supreme Court held that the imposition of the President's Rule in a state is subject to judicial review. The Court ruled that the exercise of power under Article 356 is justiciable, and the President's satisfaction with imposing the President's Rule can be questioned in a court of law.
- The Court laid down guidelines and limitations on the exercise of power under Article 356. It held that the President's Rule can only be imposed in exceptional circumstances where the constitutional machinery in a state has completely broken down, and the Governor's report justifying the imposition of the President's Rule must be based on relevant material.
- The Court ruled that a floor test in the legislative assembly is the most effective way to determine the strength of the government and resolve political uncertainties. It held that the majority enjoyed by a government in the assembly should be tested on the floor of the House.
Significance: The SR Bommai case is significant as it established judicial guidelines and limitations on the use of Article 356 and provided clarity on the scope of judicial review in matters related to the dismissal of state governments. It reinforced the principles of federalism and democracy by limiting the Central government's power to dismiss state governments arbitrarily and ensuring accountability in the exercise of such powers.
7. The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 and the 10th Schedule of the Constitution
The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 was a significant amendment to the Constitution of India. It introduced the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution, commonly known as the anti-defection law. The primary objective of this amendment was to curb the practice of political defections by legislators, which often led to instability in governments and undermined the democratic process.
Key provisions of the 52nd Amendment Act and the Tenth Schedule include
- The Tenth Schedule defines defection and provides criteria for disqualification of legislators who defect from their political party.
- Legislators can be disqualified if they voluntarily give up their party membership or violate the directives issued by their party leadership on voting in legislative matters.
- The Tenth Schedule empowers the Speaker or Chairman of the legislative body to decide on defection cases. The decision of the Speaker or Chairman regarding disqualification is final and cannot be questioned in a court of law except on certain grounds such as mala fide or violation of principles of natural justice.
- The Tenth Schedule provides certain exceptions to disqualification, such as when a political party merges with another party, and two-thirds of its members agree to the merger.
- While the decision of the Speaker or Chairman is generally final, it is subject to judicial review on certain grounds, such as violation of constitutional provisions or principles of natural justice.
The 52nd Amendment Act and the Tenth Schedule were introduced to promote stability and integrity in the political system by discouraging defections and preserving party discipline. However, over the years, there have been debates and discussions about the effectiveness of the anti-defection law and its impact on democratic principles such as freedom of speech and dissent within political parties. Nevertheless, the introduction of the Tenth Schedule remains a significant milestone in the constitutional history of India aimed at strengthening the democratic framework of the country.
8. 91st Amendment Act of 2003
The 91st Amendment Act of 2003 is an important amendment to the Constitution of India. This amendment introduced changes to Article 75 and Article 164, which deal with the appointment of Ministers in the Union Council of Ministers and State Council of Ministers, respectively. The primary objective of the 91st Amendment Act was to prevent the practice of "office of profit" by Members of Parliament (MPs) and Members of the State Legislature (MLAs).
Key provisions of the 91st Amendment Act include
- The amendment clarified the definition of "office of profit" held by MPs and MLAs. An office of profit refers to any position held by a person which brings them some financial gain, advantage, or benefit.
- The amendment exempted certain offices from being considered as offices of profit. These include offices held by MPs or MLAs as Ministers, or positions that the Parliament or State Legislature has specifically declared as not being offices of profit.
- The amendment specified that a person shall be disqualified from being a member of Parliament or State Legislature if they hold any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any state, other than offices exempted by law.
- The amendment allowed for the Parliament or State Legislature to make laws specifying the offices that are exempted from disqualification. It also provided for the interpretation of the term "office of profit" by the Parliament or State Legislature.
The 91st Amendment Act aimed to ensure that legislators do not hold positions that could potentially compromise their independence and impartiality in discharging their duties as elected representatives. By preventing MPs and MLAs from holding offices of profit, the amendment sought to uphold the principles of transparency, accountability, and integrity in the functioning of the legislative bodies in India.
8.1. What is that ‘exception’?
- The exception mentioned in the context of the 91st Amendment Act of 2003 refers to certain offices that are exempted from being considered as "office of profit" and, therefore, do not lead to disqualification of MPs or MLAs holding such positions.
- The amendment provides that certain offices can be specifically exempted by law from being considered as offices of profit. This means that the Parliament or State Legislature can pass laws to declare certain positions or offices as not falling under the definition of office of profit, thereby allowing MPs or MLAs to hold these positions without facing disqualification.
- The purpose of this exception is to provide clarity and flexibility in determining which positions should be considered as offices of profit and which should be exempted. It allows for a case-by-case examination of positions held by legislators to ensure that they do not hold any office that could potentially compromise their independence or impartiality in discharging their duties as elected representatives.
- Examples of offices that may be exempted from being considered as offices of profit include positions held by legislators as Ministers or positions that are honorary or ceremonial, without any substantial remuneration or executive authority attached to them. However, the specific exemptions may vary depending on the laws passed by the Parliament or State Legislature.
9. The Way Forward
The anti-defection law remains a significant milestone in India's constitutional history, aimed at strengthening democratic principles and promoting a more transparent and accountable political system. There is a need to review and strengthen the implementation of the law, enhance transparency in defection cases, promote intra-party democracy, and encourage public awareness to uphold the integrity of the electoral process and ensure the stability of governments.
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For Prelims: Anti-Defection Law, 91st Amendment Act of 2003, 52nd Amendment Act of 1985, the 10th Schedule of the Constitution, Kihoto Hollohan case, SR Bommai case, Article 356 For Mains:
1. Discuss the significance of the anti-defection law in India's political landscape, highlighting its objectives and key features. Also, analyze the effectiveness of the law in curbing political defections and promoting stability within political parties. (250 Words)
2. Discuss the significance of intra-party democracy in strengthening the anti-defection law and promoting a more accountable political system in India. Highlight the importance of transparency and public awareness in upholding the integrity of the electoral process. (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions
1. Regarding anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2022)
1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
2. The law does not provide any time frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
2. Consider the following statements in respect of Anti-defection Law in India? (OPSC OAS 2022)
(i) Political Parties got Constitutional recognition by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment.
(ii) Anti-defection Law came into effect on March 18, 1985.
(iii) The decision of the Speaker in disqualifying an elected member is subject to judicial review.
(iv) Anti-defection law comes into action if there is a split in the Political Party.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
A. (ii), (iii) and (iv) B. (i), (iii) and (iv) C. (i), (ii) and (iii) D. (i), (ii) and (iv)
3. Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection? (UPSC 2014) (a) Second Schedule 4. The 91st Amendment Act (2003), was made so that the Council of Ministers shall not exceed ___ percent of total number of members of the House of the People (or Assembly, in the case of the States). (DSSSB JE CE 2019) (DSSSB Junior Steno 2021) A. 16 B. 20 C. 15 D. 18 5. Out of the following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government: (UPSC 2017) (a) An arrangement for minimizing the criticism against the Government whose responsibilities are complex and hard to carry out to the satisfaction of all.
(b) A mechanism for speeding up the activities of the Government whose responsibilities are increasing day by day.
(c) A mechanism of parliamentary democracy for ensuring collective responsibility of the Government to the people.
(d) A device for strengthening the hands of the head of the Government whose hold over the people is in a state of decline.
Answers: 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-C, 5-C Mains 1. The role of individual MPs (Members of Parliament) has diminished over the years and as a result healthy constructive debates on policy issues are not usually witnessed. How far can this be attributed to the anti-defection law which was legislated but with a different intention? (UPSC 2013)
2. ‘Once a Speaker, Always a Speaker’! Do you think this practice should be adopted to impart objectivity to the office of the Speaker of Lok Sabha? What could be its implications for the robust functioning of parliamentary business in India? (UPSC 2020)
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Source: The Indian Express
REMOVAL OF CHIEF ELECTION COMMISSIONER
- The Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) and other Election Commissioners are appointed by the President of India based on the recommendations of a three-member selection panel, which includes the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition (LoP), and a Union Cabinet Minister.
- As per the 2023 Act, the appointees must be former secretary-level officers in the Government and should be individuals of proven integrity, with adequate knowledge and experience in managing and conducting elections.
- Their tenure is fixed at six years or until they attain the age of 65, whichever is earlier. The CEC is entitled to the same privileges, service conditions, and salary as a judge of the Supreme Court
3. Process of removal
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- Article 324(5) of the Constitution provides that the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) can only be removed in the same manner and on the same grounds as a Supreme Court judge.
- This safeguard is reiterated in Section 11(2) of the 2023 Act. The provision also specifies that an Election Commissioner or Regional Commissioner may be removed only if the CEC recommends it.
- This high threshold was intentionally designed to insulate the Election Commission of India (ECI) from political influence.
- Under Article 124(4) of the Constitution, which outlines the removal procedure for Supreme Court judges, removal is permitted solely on grounds of “proved misbehaviour or incapacity.”
- Misbehaviour generally refers to corrupt acts, abuse of power, or conduct inconsistent with the role of the CEC, while incapacity denotes the inability to carry out official duties.
- The process begins with a notice of motion in either House of Parliament, explicitly alleging misbehaviour or incapacity.
- Once admitted, a committee of enquiry investigates the charges. For the motion to succeed, it must be passed by a two-thirds majority of members present and voting in both Houses of Parliament.
- If the motion passes, the President formally removes the CEC. In this matter, the President has no discretionary power, acting strictly in accordance with Parliament’s decision
The Constitution includes a series of articles (Articles 324–329) that grant powers to the Election Commission and outline its possible roles and responsibilities.
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Article 324: Grants the authority for overseeing, directing, and controlling the preparation of electoral rolls and the conduct of all elections to Parliament, state legislatures, and the offices of the President and Vice-President.
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Article 325: Prohibits exclusion from electoral rolls based on religion, race, caste, sex, or any of these factors.
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Article 326: Establishes adult suffrage as the foundation for elections to the House of the People and State Legislative Assemblies.
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Article 327: Allows Parliament to pass laws, in accordance with the Constitution, regarding all matters related to elections to Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies.
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Article 328: Empowers state legislatures to enact laws concerning all matters related to elections to the state's legislative bodies.
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Article 329: Prevents courts from interfering in electoral matters
The responsibilities and functions of the Election Commission of India (ECI) can be categorized into advisory, quasi-judicial, and administrative roles.
- Advisory: The Constitution grants the ECI the authority to advise on the post-election disqualification of sitting members of Parliament and State Legislatures. The ECI is also consulted in cases where individuals are found guilty of corrupt practices during elections, as brought before the Supreme Court and High Courts, to decide if they should be disqualified from contesting future elections and for how long. In such matters, the President or, where applicable, the Governor, is required to follow the ECI's advice.
- Quasi-Judicial: The ECI has the power to disqualify a candidate who fails to submit their election expense accounts within the legally required timeframe and format. It also has the authority to remove or reduce other legal disqualifications. Additionally, the ECI resolves disputes related to the recognition of political parties and the allocation of election symbols. The commission sets a model code of conduct and ensures compliance by all candidates and political parties during elections.
- Administrative: The ECI's administrative duties include delimiting electoral constituencies and managing the registration of eligible voters, as well as regularly updating electoral rolls. The commission is responsible for announcing election schedules and dates, reviewing nomination documents, recognizing political parties, and assigning them election symbols. The ECI can also nullify voting in cases of violence, booth capturing, tampering, or other irregularities. It oversees the financial expenditure of political parties on candidates' campaigns impartially.
The ECI also designates specific roles to register political parties for elections and grants them the status of national or state parties based on their performance in the polls. These roles include the person in charge of elections, the District Election Officer, and the Election Registration and Returning Officer
- Since its inception in 1950, the Chief Electoral Commissioner (CEC) was the sole member of the Election Commission of India (ECI). However, after the voting age was lowered from 21 to 18 in 1989, a large influx of new voters was added. To manage this increased workload, two additional commissioners were appointed, expanding the ECI to include three commissioners.
- In January 1990, some changes were made to the structure of the ECI, but it was soon reverted to its original form. Following discussions and debates in the political sphere, the President ultimately reconstituted the commission in 1993, adding two more commissioners, establishing the current structure of the ECI.
- The Chief Election Commissioner and the other election commissioners are appointed by the President, who also determines their terms of office and service conditions. All commissioners, including the CEC, receive the same salary, benefits, and powers as judges of the Supreme Court.
- If there is a disagreement among the three members, decisions are made by a majority vote. Commissioners serve a term of up to six years or until they reach the age of 65, whichever comes first. They hold a status equivalent to that of Supreme Court justices in India.
- The Chief Election Commissioner can only be removed from office through the same process used to remove a Supreme Court judge. This involves the President dismissing the CEC based on a resolution supported by a special majority in both Houses of Parliament, on grounds of proven misconduct or incapacity.
- In conclusion, as outlined by the Constitution, the ECI is responsible for supervising, directing, and conducting elections for the offices of President, Vice President, state legislatures, and Parliament.
- For elections to state-level urban bodies like municipalities and panchayats, a separate State Election Commission exists. The ECI plays a crucial role in upholding the democratic process by ensuring free and fair elections for key political positions in the country
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For Prelims: Election Commission of India, Chief Election Commissioner, Election Commission (Conditions of Service of Election Commissioners and Transaction of Business) Act, 1991, State Election Commission, Article 324, Electronic Voting Machines (EVMs) and Voter Verified Paper Audit Trails (VVPATs).
For Mains: 1. Discuss the powers and functions of the Election Commission of India. How does the Election Commission ensure the conduct of free and fair elections in the Country? (250 words).
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Previous year Question1. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2017)
1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 only
Answer: D
2. Consider the following statements : (UPSC 2021)
1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
2. In the 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
3. As per the- existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3
D. 2 and 3
Answer: B
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FOREIGN DIRECT INVESTMENT (FDI)
- India's net foreign direct investment (FDI) inflows experienced a decline, decreasing by nearly 31% to $25.5 billion during the first 10 months of the 2023-24 fiscal year. The Finance Ministry attributed this decline to a broader trend of slowing investments in developing countries, while expressing optimism for a potential increase in investments in the current calendar year.
- Although global FDI flows overall saw a 3% rise to approximately $1.4 trillion in 2023, economic uncertainty and elevated interest rates impacted global investment, resulting in a 9% decrease in FDI flows to developing nations, as outlined in the Ministry's February assessment of economic performance.
- Reflecting the global trend of reduced FDI flows to developing countries, gross FDI inflows to India also experienced a slight decline, from $61.7 billion to $59.5 billion during the period from April 2023 to January 2024. In terms of net inflows, the corresponding figures were $25.5 billion versus $36.8 billion. The decrease in net inflows was primarily attributed to an increase in repatriation, while the decline in gross inflows was minimal.
- While a modest uptick in global FDI flows is anticipated for the current calendar year, attributed to a decrease in inflation and borrowing costs in major markets that could stabilize financing conditions for international investment, significant risks persist, according to the Ministry. These risks include geopolitical tensions, elevated debt levels in numerous countries, and concerns regarding further fragmentation of the global economy
- FDI involves the transfer of funds and resources from one country to another. This capital inflow can help stimulate economic growth in the host country by providing funds for investment in infrastructure, technology, and other areas.
- FDI often leads to the creation of jobs in the host country. When foreign companies establish subsidiaries or invest in existing businesses, they typically hire local employees, which can help reduce unemployment and improve living standards
- Foreign investors often bring advanced technologies, processes, and management practices to the host country. This technology transfer can enhance the host country's productivity, competitiveness, and industrial capabilities
- FDI can provide access to new markets for both the host country and the investing company. Foreign investors can tap into the host country's consumer base, while the host country gains access to the investing company's global distribution networks.
- FDI can contribute to overall economic development in the host country by promoting industrialization, improving infrastructure, and fostering innovation and entrepreneurship.
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Automatic Route: Under the automatic route, FDI is allowed without the need for prior approval from the RBI or the government. Investors only need to notify the RBI within a specified time frame after the investment is made. This route is available for most sectors, except those that are prohibited or require government approval.
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Government Route: In sectors or activities that are not covered under the automatic route, FDI requires government approval. Investors must apply for approval through the Foreign Investment Facilitation Portal (FIFP) or the Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB), depending on the sector.
- Under the automatic route, FDI of up to 100% is allowed for manufacturing of automobiles and components.
- For the manufacturing of electric vehicles (EVs), 100% FDI is allowed under the automatic route.
- In single-brand retail trading, 100% FDI is allowed, with up to 49% allowed under the automatic route. Beyond 49%, government approval is required.
- Multi-brand retail trading (supermarkets and department stores) with FDI is permitted in some states, subject to certain conditions and restrictions. The FDI limit is typically capped at 51%.
- FDI in the insurance sector is allowed up to 74%, with up to 49% under the automatic route. Beyond 49%, government approval is needed
- In the telecom sector, 100% FDI is allowed, with up to 49% under the automatic route. Beyond 49%, government approval is required
- In the defense sector, FDI up to 74% is allowed under the automatic route, with government approval required for investments beyond 49%
- In most segments of the media and broadcasting sector, including print and digital media, 100% FDI is allowed, with up to 49% under the automatic route
- FDI is prohibited in the atomic energy sector, which includes activities related to the production of atomic energy and nuclear power generation.
- FDI is generally prohibited in the gambling and betting industry, which includes casinos and online betting platforms
- FDI is not allowed in the lottery business, except for state-run lotteries
- FDI is prohibited in chit funds, which are traditional Indian savings and credit schemes.
- Nidhi companies are non-banking finance companies (NBFCs) that facilitate mutual benefit funds. FDI is typically not permitted in these entities
- While FDI is allowed in single-brand retail trading, it is generally prohibited in multi-brand retail trading of agricultural products. Some states have allowed it under specific conditions, but this remains a highly regulated area.
- FDI is not allowed in the trading of transferable development rights (TDRs) pertaining to the construction of real estate
- FPIs invest in a country's financial markets, primarily by buying and selling securities traded on stock exchanges and fixed-income instruments like bonds and government securities
- FPIs often seek to diversify their investment portfolios by spreading their investments across different asset classes, sectors, and countries. This diversification helps manage risk and enhance returns
- FPIs have the flexibility to buy and sell securities in the secondary market, providing liquidity to the market and contributing to price discovery
- FPIs typically have a shorter investment horizon compared to Foreign Direct Investors (FDIs). They may engage in short-term trading or hold securities for a few months to a few years.
- FPIs are subject to regulatory frameworks and restrictions in the countries where they invest. These regulations are designed to ensure that foreign investments do not pose undue risks to the local financial markets and economy.
| FPI (Foreign Portfolio Investment) | FDI (Foreign Direct Investment) |
| FPI involves the purchase of financial assets such as stocks, bonds, mutual funds, and other securities in a foreign country. These investments are typically made with the intention of earning returns on capital and do not result in significant control or ownership of the underlying businesses | FDI entails making an investment in a foreign country with the primary objective of establishing a lasting interest and significant control or influence over a business enterprise or physical assets. FDI often involves the acquisition of a substantial ownership stake (typically at least 10%) in a company or the establishment of new business operations. |
| FPI is generally characterized by a shorter investment horizon. Investors in FPI may engage in trading and portfolio rebalancing activities, and their investments are often more liquid. The focus is on earning capital gains and income from investments. | FDI is characterized by a longer-term commitment. Investors in FDI intend to engage in the day-to-day management or decision-making of the business, contribute to its growth and development, and generate profits over an extended period. |
| FPI investors typically have little to no influence or control over the companies in which they invest. They are passive investors who participate in the financial markets and rely on market dynamics to drive returns. | FDI investors actively participate in the management and decision-making of the businesses they invest in. They often seek to exercise control over company operations and strategy, which may include appointing board members or key executives. |
| FPI investments are often made through financial instruments like stocks, bonds, and securities. Investors may use instruments like mutual funds or exchange-traded funds (ETFs) to gain exposure to foreign markets | FDI investments involve a direct equity stake in a company, either through share acquisition or the establishment of a subsidiary or branch in the host country. FDI can also involve the purchase of real assets such as land, factories, or infrastructure |
| FPI can provide short-term capital inflows, but it may be more susceptible to market volatility and sudden capital outflows. It may not have as direct an impact on job creation and economic development as FDI. | FDI often contributes to long-term economic development by creating jobs, stimulating infrastructure development, transferring technology and expertise, and enhancing the competitiveness of local industries |
| FPI investments are subject to regulations that vary by country and may include foreign ownership limits, reporting requirements, and tax considerations. | FDI is subject to regulations that can be more stringent and may involve government approval, sector-specific conditions, and investment protection measures |
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For Prelims: Economic and Social Development-Sustainable Development, Poverty, Inclusion, Demographics, Social Sector Initiatives, etc
For Mains: General Studies III: Indian Economy and issues relating to planning, mobilization, of resources, growth, development and employment
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Previous Year Questions
1. Both Foreign Direct Investments (FDI) and Foreign Institutional Investor (FII) are related to investment in a country. (UPSC CSE 2011)
Which one of the following statements best represents an important difference between the two?
A.FII helps bring better management skills and technology, while FDI only brings in capital
B.FII helps in increasing capital availability in general, while FDI only targets specific sectors C.FDI flows only into the secondary markets, while FII targets primary market
D.FII is considered to the more stable than FDI
Answer (B)
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