SPECIAL INTENSIVE REVISION (SIR)
- The Special Intensive Revision (SIR) of the Electoral Rolls is an important exercise undertaken by the Election Commission of India (ECI) to ensure that the voter lists (electoral rolls) are accurate, updated, and inclusive before any major election or as part of the annual revision cycle.
- In simpler terms, the SIR is a comprehensive verification and correction process of the electoral rolls — aimed at including eligible voters, removing ineligible ones, and rectifying errors in the existing list.
- It is called “special” because it involves an intensified, house-to-house verification and greater public participation compared to the routine annual summary revision
- The purpose of the Special Intensive Revision is to maintain the purity, accuracy, and inclusiveness of India’s democratic process. Clean and updated voter rolls are essential for free, fair, and credible elections, as they prevent issues like bogus voting, disenfranchisement, and duplication.
- In summary, the Special Intensive Revision (SIR) is a focused, large-scale voter verification campaign conducted by the Election Commission to ensure that the electoral rolls are error-free, inclusive, and reflective of the current eligible voting population. It plays a crucial role in strengthening the integrity and transparency of India’s electoral system
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During the Special Intensive Revision, Booth Level Officers (BLOs) visit households to verify voter details such as name, address, age, and photo identity. This exercise helps identify:
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- Article 324(1) of the Indian Constitution empowers the Election Commission of India (ECI) with the authority to oversee, guide, and manage the preparation of electoral rolls as well as the conduct of elections for both Parliament and the State Legislatures.
- As per Section 21(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, the ECI holds the right to order a special revision of the electoral roll for any constituency, or part of it, at any time and in a manner it considers appropriate.
- According to the Registration of Electors’ Rules, 1960, the revision of electoral rolls may be carried out intensively, summarily, or through a combination of both methods, as directed by the ECI.
- An intensive revision involves preparing an entirely new roll, while a summary revision deals with updating or modifying the existing one
| Aspect | Special Intensive Revision (SIR) | National Register of Citizens (NRC) |
| Purpose | To verify, update, and correct the electoral rolls so that all eligible voters are included and ineligible names are removed | To identify legal citizens of India and detect illegal immigrants |
| Authority / Governing Body | Conducted by the Election Commission of India (ECI) | Conducted under the Ministry of Home Affairs (MHA) |
| Legal Basis | Based on Article 324(1) of the Constitution, Section 21(3) of the Representation of the People Act, 1950, and the Registration of Electors' Rules, 1960. | Governed by the Citizenship Act, 1955 and the Citizenship (Registration of Citizens and Issue of National Identity Cards) Rules, 2003 |
| Scope | Focuses only on Indian citizens aged 18 years and above who are eligible to vote | Covers all residents of India (or a particular state) to determine their citizenship status |
| Nature of the Exercise | A regular, recurring administrative exercise carried out to maintain accurate voter lists | A special, large-scale verification exercise conducted under specific legal or political mandates. |
| Relation to Citizenship | Does not determine citizenship — only eligibility to vote | Directly determines citizenship status |
One of the major concerns is the erroneous deletion of eligible voters from the rolls.
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Mistakes during house-to-house verification or data entry may lead to legitimate voters—especially migrants, daily-wage workers, and marginalized communities—being left out.
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Such exclusions can directly affect voter participation and undermine the democratic process.
Despite the intensive verification, fake or duplicate names often remain due to poor coordination or outdated records.
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Deaths, migrations, or multiple registrations in different constituencies are not always updated accurately.
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This raises questions about the accuracy and credibility of the electoral rolls.
The SIR is a large-scale field operation requiring trained personnel, coordination among departments, and robust data systems.
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Booth Level Officers (BLOs) are often overburdened with multiple duties and may not have sufficient time or training for thorough verification.
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Limited digital infrastructure in rural areas can also hamper real-time data updates.
Electoral roll revisions, especially when conducted close to elections, can spark political allegations of bias or manipulation.
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Parties may accuse each other or the Election Commission of targeting specific communities or constituencies.
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Even unintentional errors can lead to trust deficits in the electoral process.
Addressing these concerns is vital to maintain trust in the Election Commission and uphold the credibility of India’s democratic system
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For Prelims: Special Intensive Revision (SIR), National Register of Citizens (NRC), Election Commission of India (ECI)
For Mains: GS II - Indian Polity
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Previous year Question1. Consider the following statements: (UPSC 2017)
1. The Election Commission of India is a five-member body.
2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections.
3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 3 only
Answer: D
2. Consider the following statements : (UPSC 2021)
1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
2. In the 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
3. As per the- existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 and 3
D. 2 and 3
Answer: B
Mains
1.To enhance the quality of democracy in India the Election Commission of India has proposed electoral reforms in 2016. What are the suggested reforms and how far are they significant to make democracy successful? (UPSC CSE 2017)
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EBOLA VIRUS
- A Public Health Emergency of International Concern (PHEIC) represents the highest level of global health alert issued by the World Health Organization under the International Health Regulations.
- It is declared when a health event is considered serious, unexpected, unusual, or sudden, and has the potential to spread internationally, thereby posing risks to public health in other countries.
- Such a declaration also emphasizes the need for a coordinated international response to contain and manage the outbreak.
- Recently, a fresh outbreak of Ebola was reported in eastern Democratic Republic of the Congo and Uganda, reportedly linked to the Bundibugyo ebolavirus strain.
- As per the WHO, by May 16, Ituri Province in the DRC had recorded eight laboratory-confirmed cases, 246 suspected cases, and 80 suspected deaths.
- Meanwhile, Uganda reported two laboratory-confirmed infections, including one fatality, in Kampala.
- The two cases, identified within 24 hours of each other, involved individuals who had recently travelled from the DRC and showed no apparent epidemiological connection
- Ebola Virus Disease is a zoonotic infection that can cause severe illness and has a high fatality rate among humans. The disease is caused by the Ebola virus and is believed to have originated in wild animals such as fruit bats and non-human primates before transmitting to humans.
- Human-to-human transmission occurs through direct contact with infected blood, bodily fluids, secretions, or contaminated objects and surfaces.
- According to the World Health Organization, three virus species are primarily responsible for major Ebola outbreaks: Ebola virus, Sudan virus, and Bundibugyo virus, with the ongoing outbreak linked to the Bundibugyo strain.
- Ebola was first identified in 1976, and initial outbreaks were largely confined to isolated villages in Central Africa.
- However, the disease gained worldwide attention during the devastating West African outbreak between 2014 and 2016, which affected Guinea, Liberia, and Sierra Leone.
- This epidemic resulted in more than 28,600 reported infections and over 11,300 deaths, making it the deadliest Ebola outbreak on record.
- The crisis marked a significant shift in the global response to Ebola by accelerating international investment in vaccine research and development.
- Consequently, two Ebola vaccines have since received approval and are available in both single-dose and two-dose regimens.
- These vaccines are mainly deployed through targeted “ring vaccination” strategies aimed at immunising close contacts of infected individuals and frontline healthcare workers as a form of post-exposure prevention.
- Additionally, monoclonal antibody therapies have been developed and are reported to significantly improve patient survival rates when administered at an early stage of infection
Ebola Virus Disease spreads through direct contact with infected body fluids, contaminated materials, or infected animals. The transmission process can be understood in the following ways:
Animal-to-Human Transmission
The virus is believed to originate in wild animals and can spread to humans through contact with:
- Fruit bats, considered the natural reservoir of the virus
- Infected non-human primates such as monkeys and chimpanzees
- Handling or consuming infected bushmeat
Human-to-Human Transmission
Once the virus infects a person, it can spread through:
- Direct contact with blood, saliva, sweat, vomit, urine, semen, breast milk, or other bodily fluids of an infected individual
- Contact with broken skin or mucous membranes exposed to infected fluids
- Handling contaminated objects such as needles, bedding, clothing, or medical equipment
- The response strategy led by the World Health Organization currently prioritises rapid identification and isolation of infected individuals, along with the prompt delivery of intensive supportive treatment such as rehydration and symptom management to lower fatality rates.
- However, effective containment of the outbreak will largely depend on swift case detection, comprehensive contact tracing, safe burial practices, and the implementation of stringent infection-prevention protocols across healthcare facilities treating patients.
- The WHO’s action plan also involves the deployment of approved vaccines and monoclonal antibody therapies to vulnerable and high-risk populations wherever possible.
- Another key component of the strategy is community engagement through social mobilisation campaigns aimed at fostering public trust, reducing stigma associated with the disease, and motivating people in affected regions to seek medical care at an early stage.
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For Prelims: Viruses, Bacteria, Immunity, Vaccine types
For Mains: 1.Discuss the challenges in controlling viral diseases and the strategies employed by governments and international organizations in addressing viral epidemics. Highlight the lessons learned from recent viral outbreaks
2.Analyze the global problem of antibiotic resistance and its implications for healthcare. Suggest policy measures and interventions to combat the growing threat of antibiotic-resistant bacteria
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Previous Year Questions
1.Viruses can affect (UPSC CSE 2016)
1.Bacteria
2. Fungi
3. Plants
Select the correct code with the following code
A.1 and 2 only
B. 3 Only
C. 1 and 3
D. 1, 2, 3
Answer (D)
2. Which of the following statements is/ are correct? (UPSC CSE 2013)
1. Viruses lack enzymes necessary for the generation of energy
2.Viruses can be cultured in any synthetic medium
3.Viruses are transmitted from one organism to another by biological vectors only
Select the correct answer using the code given below
A. 1 Only
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1, 2, 3
Answer (A)
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QUAD
1. Context
2. Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QUAD)
- The Quad, short for the Quadrilateral Security Dialogue, is a strategic forum comprising four major Indo-Pacific countries: the United States, Japan, India, and Australia.
- The Quad was initiated in 2007 but was relatively dormant for several years before experiencing a revival and increased prominence in recent times.
3. Objectives
- The Quad aims to promote a free, open, and inclusive Indo-Pacific region. Its core objectives include ensuring regional security, stability, and economic prosperity.
- It seeks to uphold the rules-based international order and address common challenges such as maritime security, infrastructure development, economic connectivity, and disaster response.
4. Member Countries
- United States: As a major Pacific power, the U.S. plays a central role in the Quad, emphasizing its commitment to the Indo-Pacific region's security and stability.
- Japan: Japan is a key member, contributing its economic and technological prowess, and advocating for a rules-based international order.
- India: India brings its strategic location and growing influence in the Indo-Pacific to the Quad, strengthening regional security cooperation.
- Australia: Australia is a significant player, contributing to maritime security efforts and championing economic development in the Indo-Pacific.
5. Meetings and Engagement
- The Quad holds regular meetings at various levels, including ministerial meetings and consultations among senior officials.
- It engages in dialogues on a wide range of regional and global issues, from security and defense to infrastructure development and technology cooperation.
Regional Implications:
- The Quad has been viewed as a response to China's rising influence in the Indo-Pacific. However, member countries emphasize that it is not an alliance against any specific country but rather a platform for cooperation on shared interests.
- Some view the Quad as a potential counterbalance to China's assertive behavior in the South China Sea and its Belt and Road Initiative (BRI) infrastructure projects.
Expanding Partnerships:
- The Quad has sought to expand its partnerships with other countries in the Indo-Pacific, including Southeast Asian nations. This approach reflects its commitment to inclusivity and regional engagement.
6. Significance of QUAD for India
The Quad holds significant importance for India due to several strategic, economic, and geopolitical reasons:
Countering Regional Challenges:
- The Quad provides India with a platform to collaborate with like-minded countries, such as the United States, Japan, and Australia, to address common regional challenges. These challenges include maritime security, territorial disputes, and economic concerns in the Indo-Pacific.
Strengthening Regional Security:
- As a member of the Quad, India gains access to enhanced security cooperation, intelligence sharing, and joint exercises. This bolsters its ability to protect its interests and contribute to regional stability in the face of security threats.
Balancing China's Influence:
- India views the Quad as a mechanism to balance China's growing influence in the Indo-Pacific. It helps deter aggressive actions and assertive behavior by China, particularly in areas like the South China Sea and the Indian Ocean region.
Economic Opportunities:
- The Quad promotes economic connectivity and infrastructure development in the Indo-Pacific. India can leverage these initiatives to enhance its trade, investment, and connectivity in the region, which is vital for its economic growth.
Strengthening Ties with Key Allies:
- The Quad allows India to deepen its strategic partnerships with key allies, such as the United States and Japan. These relationships have resulted in increased defense cooperation, technology sharing, and economic collaboration.
Regional Leadership Role:
- Participation in the Quad elevates India's status as a regional leader in the Indo-Pacific. It aligns with India's "Act East" policy, reinforcing its commitment to the stability and prosperity of the broader region.
7. Challenges
- China's Territorial Claims: China claims that it has historical ownership over nearly the entire region of the South China Sea, which gives it the right to manufacture islands. However, the International Court of Arbitration rejected the claim in 2016.
- China's Closeness to ASEAN: The ASEAN countries also have a well-knit relationship with China. The Regional Cooperation Economic Partnership (RCEP) is a recent example of China's increasing influence over ASEAN nations.
- Economic Power of China: Considering the economic might of China and the dependence of QUAD nations like Japan and Australia on China, the QUAD nations can not afford to have strained relations with it.
- Convergence among Quad Nations: The nations in the Quad grouping have different aspirations, and aims at balancing their own interest. Therefore, coherence in the vision of the Quad nation as a grouping is absent.
8. Way forward
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For Prelims: Quadrilateral Security Dialogue (QUAD), South China Sea, Belt and Road Initiative (BRI), Indo-Pacific region, ASEAN, and Regional Cooperation Economic Partnership (RCEP).
For Mains: 1. Discuss the evolution, objectives, and geopolitical significance of the Quad (Quadrilateral Security Dialogue) in the context of the Indo-Pacific region. Analyze the challenges and opportunities it presents for the member countries, particularly India. (250 words).
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HEAT WAVES
1. Context
2. About Heat Wave
- A heatwave is a period of abnormally high temperatures, a common phenomenon in India during the months of May-June and in some rare cases even extends till July.
- Indian Meteorological Department (IMD) classifies heat waves according to regions and temperature ranges. As per IMD, the number of heatwave days in India has increased from 413 over 1981-1990 to 600 over 2011-2020.
- This sharp rise in the number of heatwave days has resulted due to the increasing impact of climate change.
- The last three years have been La Niña years, which has served as a precursor to 2023 likely being an El Niño year. (The El Niño is a complementary phenomenon in which warmer water spreads westeast across the equatorial Pacific Ocean.)
- As we eagerly await the likely birth of an El Niño this year, we have already had a heat wave occur over northwest India.
- Heat waves tend to be confined to north and northwest India in El Niño years.
3. Understanding the Effects of Heat on the Body
4. Symptoms and Medical care
5. Preventive Measure to Avoid Heat Stroke
6. Role of Humidity and Night-time Temperatures
7. Linking Heatwaves to Climate Change and Global Implications
8. Criteria for Declaring Heat Waves in India
- In plains maximum temperature of at least 40 °C or more
- In Hilly regions maximum temperature of at least 30 °C or more
- Severe heat wave departure from normal temperature exceeds 6.40 °C
9. Impact of heat waves on Health
10. Conclusion
- Addressing heatwave deaths in India requires a multi-faceted approach involving government intervention, public awareness and preventive measures.
- By understanding the effects of heat on the body, recognizing critical symptoms and implementing preventive strategies, the risk of heat-related illnesses and fatalities can be reduced.
- Additionally, acknowledging the role of climate change and preparing for future heat waves is essential for safeguarding public health.
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For Prelims: Heatwave, India Meteorological Department, National Disaster Management Authority, the Health Ministry, ORS, Humidity, high temperatures
For Mains:
1. Climate change is considered a contributing factor to the increased frequency and intensity of heat waves. Discuss the measures that can be taken at national and international levels to address climate change and minimize its impact on public health. (250 Words)
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Previous Year Questions
1. Arrange the following India Meteorological Headquarters in Chronological order of their establishment and select your correct answer from the codes given below: (UPPSC Civil Service 2018)
A. New Delhi
B. Kolkata
C. Shimla
D. Pune
1. C D A B 2. B A D C 3. D B C A 4. B C D A
Answer: 4
2. Consider the following statements: (MPSC Forest Services 2019)
(a) The Disaster Management Act was passed by the Parliament in 2005.
(b) The Union Home Minister Acts as a Chairperson of the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA).
(c) The NDMA may have not more than nine members including Vice-Chairman.
(d) The tenure of the members of NDMA shall be five years.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
1. (a), (b) and (c) 2. (a), (c) and (d) 3. (b), (c) and (d) 4. All above
Answer: 2
3. National Disaster Management Authority is headed by (CDS 2021)
A. the Prime Minister. B. the Home Minister C. the President. D. the Health Minister.
Answer: A
4. With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: (UPSC 2022)
1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it.
2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately.
3. It has seamless portability across the country.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 3 only C. 1 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: B
5. Consider the following statement: (UPSC 2018)
1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954.
2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of the Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only B. 2 only C. Both 1 and 2 D. Neither 1 nor 2
Answer: A
6. What is the full form of ORS? (NHM UP CHO 2021)
A. Oral Recovered Solution
B. Oral Rehydration Salts
C. Oral Regenerate Salts
D. Oral Regenerate Solution
Answer: B
7. Consider the following statements with regard to atmospheric humidity: (UPSC ESE 2018)
1. Absolute humidity is the amount of water vapour per unit volume.
2. Hygrometer is used to measure relative humidity.
3. Dew point is the temperature at which the relative humidity is 75%.
Which of the above statements are correct?
A. 1 and 2 only B. 1 and 3 only C. 2 and 3 only D. 1, 2 and 3
Answer: A
8. Relative humidity is (ISRO Scientist Civil 2020)
A. Something concerned with air conditioning
B. The ratio of moisture present in air to the capability of air to hold maximum moisture
C. The ratio of actual humidity to absolute humidity
D. Representative of amount of moisture held in air
Answer: B
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COMMISSION FOR AIR QUALITY MANAGEMENT (CAQM)
Commission for Air Quality Management in NCR and Adjoining Areas CAQM Conducts Special Inspection Drive in Ghaziabad, Orders Stronger Dust Control Measures
- The Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) in the National Capital Region (NCR) and nearby areas was initially established through an ordinance in 2020, which was subsequently replaced by an Act of Parliament in 2021.
- Its primary mandate is to enhance coordination, conduct research, identify issues, and address challenges related to air quality and associated concerns.
- At its inception, the CAQM comprised 15 members, including current and former officials from the Ministry of Environment and other Union government departments, along with representatives from various State governments, NGOs, and other organizations. Currently, the commission, led by Rajesh Verma, has expanded to 27 members.
- The CAQM succeeded the Environmental Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA), which was created by the Supreme Court in 1998. Unlike the CAQM, the EPCA lacked statutory authority, which experts criticized as limiting its ability to enforce compliance among defiant agencies.
- Nevertheless, several initiatives now overseen by the CAQM, such as the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP)—a framework of temporary emergency measures to combat air pollution—were originally implemented under the EPCA's guidance
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Powers of CAQM
The Commission for Air Quality Management in the National Capital Region and Adjoining Areas Act, 2021, empowers the CAQM to undertake any necessary measures, issue directives, and address grievances aimed at safeguarding and enhancing air quality in the NCR and surrounding regions. According to Section 14 of the Act, the commission is authorized to take strict action against officials who fail to comply with its directives
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- The Supreme Court recently criticized the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM) for delays in enforcing stricter anti-pollution measures as Delhi's air quality worsened.
- Despite the Air Quality Index (AQI) reaching hazardous levels, the CAQM postponed the implementation of Stage 4 measures under the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP), prompting the Court to question the lack of urgency in addressing the crisis.
- The justices emphasized that such measures should be triggered as soon as AQI levels indicate severe pollution to prevent further deterioration.
- The Court also highlighted systemic failures, including inadequate action against stubble burning in Punjab and Haryana, and criticized the CAQM for focusing on meetings without concrete enforcement of rules.
- It warned against scaling down measures prematurely and stressed the need for stricter penalties and immediate action to curb pollution sources effectively
- Although the CAQM formulates strategies and coordinates with various agencies, the actual implementation of these measures rests with the respective agencies.
- A CAQM official noted that the commission has significantly improved coordination and planning efforts.
- For instance, while paddy stubble burning—a major contributor to severe air pollution—occurs primarily in October and November, discussions with State officials begin as early as February and continue throughout the season.
- In 2022, the CAQM collaborated with Punjab and Haryana to develop action plans for managing stubble burning, which are reviewed and updated annually.
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For Prelims: Graded Response Action Plan, National Capital Region (NCR),Environmental pollution(prevention control)Authority (EPCA).
For Mains:
1. What is GRAP? What is the Delhi-NCR action plan as air pollution increases? (250 words).
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INSOLVENCY AND BANKRUPTCY CODE (IBC)
1. Context
The Insolvency & Bankruptcy Code (IBC) changed the way India looks at debt and business failure
2. About Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (IBC)
2.1.Insolvency: Insolvency is a situation where individuals or companies cannot repay their debt.
2.2.Bankruptcy: It is a situation whereby a court of competent jurisdiction has declared a person or other entity insolvent, having passed appropriate orders to resolve it and protect the rights of the creditors.
IBC was introduced in 2016 to consolidate previously available laws to create a time-bound mechanism with a creditor-in-control model as opposed to the debtor-in-possession system. When insolvency is triggered under the IBC, there can be just two outcomes: Resolution or Liquidation, with the former being the preferred solution.
Companies have to complete the entire insolvency exercise within 180 days under IBC and the deadline may be extended if the creditors do not raise objections to the extension.
3. CHALLENGES FOR THE IBC:
- Insolvency Bankruptcy Board of India is the regulator of the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code in India. According to its regulator, IBBI the first objective of the IBC is a resolution-finding way to save a business through restructuring, change in ownership, mergers, etc.
- The second objective is to maximize the value of assets of the corporate debtor; the third objective is to promote entrepreneurship, availability of credit, and balancing of interests.
- According to Insolvency Bankruptcy Board of India data for the 3400 cases admitted under the IBC in the last six years, more than 50% of the cases ended in liquidation, and only 14% could find a proper resolution.
- The IBC was thus initially given a 180-day deadline to complete the resolution process, with a permitted 90-day extension. It was later amended to make the total timeline for completion 330 days which is almost a year.
- However, in the financial year 2022, it took 772 days to resolve cases involving companies that owed more than 1000 crores. The average number of days it took to resolve such cases increased rapidly over the past five years.
4. IBC 2016 Advantages
Strict timelines:
- Normal cases: 180 days
- Complex cases: 180 days +90 days
- Legal proceedings: 330 days
- In the case of tardy legal proceedings, it can go beyond 330 days.
- It promotes entrepreneurship, the release of capital that can be invested in other productive assets.
- It focuses more on resolution rather than liquidation.
- In only 15% of cases, the resolution is done, and the rest is liquidation.
5. Expert’s opinion on IBC:
- In order to address the delays, the parliamentary standing committee suggested that the time taken to admit the insolvency application and transfer control of the company to a resolution process, should not be more than 30 days after filing.
- The IBBI has also called for a new yardstick to measure haircuts. It suggested that haircuts cannot be looked at as the difference between the creditors’ claims and the actual almost realized but as the difference between what the companies bring along when it enters IBC and the value realized.
6. INSOLVENCY AND BANKRUPTCY CODE (AMENDMENT) BILL, 2021
- The insolvency and bankruptcy code (Amendment) Bill, 2021 was introduced in the Lok-Sabha to amend the insolvency law and provide for a pre-packaged resolution process for stressed Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises.
- Under this mechanism, main stakeholders such as creditors and shareholders come together to identify a prospective buyer and negotiate instead of a public bidding process.
- The insolvency and bankruptcy are applicable to defaults which is more than Rs.1crore. There has been a recent change in IBC, which is called the Pre-Pack mechanism for MSMEs.
6.1 Pre-Pack Mechanism:
- If an MSME takes a loan and the default is less than 1 crore, then this Pre-Pack mechanism will be applicable.
- Under this mechanism, the owner of the MSMEs will propose or submit a resolution plan to NCLT (National Company Law Tribunal). Outside bidders and open bidding will not be done.
- During this resolution, the management of MSMEs will remain with the previous owners. Under this mechanism, the process will be completed within 120 days.
7. Conclusion
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code has reformed the Indian Insolvency Law to a great extent. The government needs to provide appropriate budgetary allocations to up skilling insolvency professionals and digitization of insolvency resolution process.
There has been a marked improvement in the recovery process which is already leading to billions of dollars being invested in the country due to the protection of creditor rights.
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Prelims question: 1. According to the IBC, which of the following is not a financial service
A.Underwriting issuance of financial support
B.Accepting of deposits
C.Operating an investment scheme
D.Payment of wages to the Employees
Mains questions:
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Previous Year Questions
1.Which of the following statements best describes the term ‘Scheme for Sustainable Structuring of Stressed Assets (S4A)’, recently seen in the news? (2017)
(a) It is a procedure for considering ecological costs of developmental schemes formulated by the Government. (b) It is a scheme of RBI for reworking the financial structure of big corporate entities facing genuine difficulties. (c) It is a disinvestment plan of the Government regarding Central Public Sector Undertakings. (d) It is an important provision in ‘The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code’ recently implemented by the Government. Answer (b) |
Source: The Hindu
COMPETITION COMMISSION OF INDIA
- The Competition Commission of India (CCI) is a regulatory authority established in India to promote and protect fair competition in the marketplace.
- It was established under the Competition Act, 2002, and became fully functional in 2009.
- The primary objective of the CCI is to prevent anti-competitive practices, ensure a level playing field for businesses, and promote consumer welfare
- The Competition Commission of India (within the Ministry of Corporate Affairs) has been established to enforce the competition law under the Competition Act, 2002.
- It should be noted that on the recommendations of Raghavan committee, the Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act, 1969 (MRTP Act) was repealed and replaced by the Competition Act, 2002
- The Commission consists of a Chairperson and not more than 6 Members appointed by the Central Government
- It is the statutory duty of the Commission to eliminate practices having an adverse effect on competition, promote and sustain competition, protect the interests of consumers and ensure freedom of trade carried on by other participants, in markets in India as provided in the Preamble as well as Section 18 of the Act.
- The Commission is also mandated to give its opinion on competition issues to government or statutory authority and to undertake competition advocacy for creating awareness of competition law.
- Advocacy is at the core of effective competition regulation. Competition Commission of India (CCI), which has been entrusted with implementation of law, has always believed in complementing robust enforcement with facilitative advocacy. It is a quasi-judicial body.
Here are some key functions and responsibilities of the Competition Commission of India:
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Competition Advocacy: The CCI engages in advocacy and education activities to promote competition awareness among businesses, government agencies, and the public.
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Antitrust Enforcement: The CCI investigates and takes action against anti-competitive agreements, abuse of dominance by companies, and anti-competitive mergers and acquisitions. It can impose penalties and remedies on entities found to be in violation of competition laws.
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Merger Control: The CCI reviews and approves or disapproves mergers, acquisitions, and combinations that may have an adverse impact on competition in the Indian market. It assesses whether these transactions are likely to cause a substantial lessening of competition.
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Market Studies and Research: The CCI conducts studies and research to understand market dynamics, competition issues, and emerging trends. This information helps in formulating policies and recommendations to improve competition.
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Competition Advocacy: The commission engages in advocacy efforts to promote competition principles and practices among businesses, government agencies, and the public.
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Consumer Protection: While primarily focused on promoting competition, the CCI also indirectly promotes consumer welfare by ensuring that markets remain competitive and that consumers have choices and access to fair prices.
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Regulation of Anti-Competitive Practices: The CCI addresses practices such as price-fixing, bid rigging, and abuse of market power that can harm competition and consumers.
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Legal Proceedings: The CCI has the authority to conduct investigations, hold hearings, and pass orders. Its decisions can be appealed to higher courts in India.
- The Competition Act, 2002, as amended by the Competition (Amendment) Act, 2007, follows the philosophy of modern competition laws.
- The Act prohibits anti-competitive agreements, and abuse of dominant position by enterprises and regulates combinations (acquisition, acquiring of control and M&A), which causes or likely to cause an appreciable adverse effect on competition within India
- In accordance with the provisions of the Amendment Act, the Competition Commission of India and the Competition Appellate Tribunal have been established
- The government of India replaced Competition Appellate Tribunal (COMPAT) with the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT) in 2017
- The provisions of the Competition Act relating to anti-competitive agreements and abuse of dominant position were notified on May 20, 2009
| Competition is the best means of ensuring that the ‘Common Man’ or ‘Aam Aadmi’ has access to the broadest range of goods and services at the most competitive prices. With increased competition, producers will have maximum incentive to innovate and specialize. This would result in reduced costs and wider choice to consumers. A fair competition in market is essential to achieve this objective. Our goal is to create and sustain fair competition in the economy that will provide a ‘level playing field’ to the producers and make the markets work for the welfare of the consumers |
The International Competition Network, which is a global body dedicated to enforcing competition law, has a simpler definition. The three common components of a cartel are:
- an agreement;
- between competitors;
- to restrict competition.
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For Prelims: Statutory board, Constitutional body
For Mains: 1.Discuss the role and functions of the Competition Commission of India (CCI) in promoting and ensuring fair competition in the Indian market
2.Examine the challenges and limitations faced by the Competition Commission of India (CCI) in effectively regulating and promoting competition in the digital economy
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Previous year Questions
1. Competition Commission of India is which kind of body? (RSMSSB Sanganak 2018)
A. Statutory body
B. Constitutional.
C. Single Member
D. Private
Answer (A)
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HYPERSONIC MISSILE
- The missile is a hypersonic cruise weapon capable of travelling at speeds greater than Mach 5, or approximately 6,100 km per hour, for sustained durations.
- This capability has been made possible through an advanced supersonic air-breathing propulsion system that employs indigenously developed liquid hydrocarbon endothermic fuel, high-temperature Thermal Barrier Coating (TBC), and sophisticated manufacturing technologies.
- It is equipped with an advanced actively cooled scramjet combustor featuring a novel flame-stabilisation mechanism that enables a continuous combustion process even when air flows through the combustor at speeds exceeding 1.5 km per second.
- The Thermal Barrier Coating (TBC) has been jointly developed by the Defence Research and Development Laboratory and facilities under the Department of Science and Technology.
- This specialised coating is engineered to endure the extremely high temperatures generated during hypersonic flight. The newly developed ceramic-based TBC possesses superior thermal resistance and can function at temperatures exceeding the melting point of steel.
- Hypersonic missiles are advanced weapon systems capable of travelling at speeds greater than Mach 5, which means at least five times faster than the speed of sound.
- Depending on atmospheric conditions, this translates to speeds exceeding nearly 6,000 km per hour.
- Their combination of extremely high speed, manoeuvrability, and lower flight trajectory makes them difficult to detect, track, and intercept compared to conventional ballistic missiles.
- These weapons are considered a major advancement in modern military technology because they can rapidly strike targets while reducing the reaction time available to defence systems.
- Hypersonic Glide Vehicles are first launched into the atmosphere using a rocket booster. After reaching a certain altitude, the glide vehicle separates from the rocket and glides toward its target at hypersonic speeds
- Ballistic missiles operate on the principle of projectile motion to deliver warheads to designated targets. They remain powered only during the initial phase of flight, after which they travel largely under the influence of gravity and aerodynamic forces.
- These missiles are generally classified according to their operational range and may be equipped with either conventional or nuclear warheads.
- A major feature that distinguishes hypersonic cruise missiles from ballistic missiles is their manoeuvrability.
- Unlike ballistic missiles, which follow a predictable ballistic path, hypersonic missiles can alter their trajectory during flight and navigate dynamically toward their intended targets.
- Cruise missiles typically travel at relatively low altitudes close to the Earth’s surface, whereas ballistic missiles move along a high-altitude parabolic trajectory.
- Because ballistic missiles follow a more predictable flight path, they are comparatively easier to detect and track.
- In contrast, the high manoeuvrability and low-altitude flight profile of cruise missiles make them more challenging for air defence systems to intercept
- Air-breathing propulsion technology has the potential to revolutionise launch vehicle design.
- According to Indian Space Research Organisation, various global space agencies are actively developing three major categories of air-breathing engines: Ramjet, Scramjet, and Dual-Mode Ramjet (DMRJ).
- In ramjet propulsion systems, the engine relies on the vehicle’s forward speed to compress incoming air for combustion, eliminating the need for a rotating compressor.
- Fuel is injected into the combustion chamber, where it combines with the compressed hot air and ignites. Since ramjets cannot generate thrust at low speeds, they require external assistance, such as rocket boosters, to accelerate the vehicle to operational speed.
- ISRO notes that ramjet engines perform most effectively at supersonic velocities of around Mach 3 and can function up to approximately Mach 6.
- However, their efficiency declines once the vehicle enters the hypersonic speed regime.
- A Supersonic Combustion Ramjet, commonly known as a Scramjet, is a more advanced form of ramjet engine designed for efficient operation at hypersonic speeds.
- Unlike conventional ramjets, scramjets enable combustion while the airflow inside the engine remains supersonic.
- In this system, air enters through the front intake, fuel combusts in the central chamber, and high-speed exhaust gases exit from the rear to generate thrust.
- A Dual-Mode Ramjet (DMRJ) combines the operational features of both ramjet and scramjet technologies.
- Within the Mach 4 to Mach 8 speed range, the engine transitions from ramjet mode to scramjet mode, allowing it to function efficiently under both subsonic and supersonic combustion conditions
- On May 7, the Defence Research and Development Organisation in collaboration with the Indian Air Force successfully conducted the maiden flight test of the TARA system, a technology designed to convert unguided munitions into guided weapons.
- The TARA glide weapon system mainly functions as a modular attachment that can be integrated with a standard unguided warhead. Once fitted, it enables the weapon to glide across extended distances and engage targets with greater accuracy.
- The system is understood to employ a combination of inertial navigation technology and satellite-based guidance for directing the missile toward its designated target.
- Instead of depending on a rocket propulsion mechanism, the TARA system operates through a glide-based approach. This design makes the weapon comparatively lightweight and economical while also enhancing its operational range.
- Through this technology, conventional unguided or gravity bombs can be upgraded into precision-guided smart munitions with minimal modification. As a result, the need for developing completely new missile platforms can be significantly reduced
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For Prelims: Tactical Advanced Range Augmentation (TARA) system, Ballistic missiles, Hypersonic missiles
For Mains: GS III - Science and technology
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Previous Year Questions
1.Consider the following statements: (UPSC CSE, 2023)
1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight. 2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only (b) 2 only (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 |
INDIA'S ENERGY SECURITY
India’s energy security concerns are increasing focus on converting agricultural residue, food waste, sewage sludge, and organic municipal waste into reliable and commercially viable energy solutions; technologies such as gasification and anaerobic digestion are emerging as critical pathways
2. Global energy supply uncertainty
- Global energy supply networks continue to experience instability, while fuel prices remain highly sensitive to international geopolitical and economic disturbances. For countries such as India, enhancing domestic energy security has therefore become increasingly critical.
- At the same time, as India explores large-scale and sustainable energy alternatives, a significant but underutilised resource already exists in the form of waste generated across the country.
- Massive quantities of agricultural residues, food waste, sewage sludge, and organic municipal waste are produced annually, yet a substantial portion is either inefficiently managed or left unused.
- This situation highlights the close connection between two pressing national concerns: energy security and waste management. Materials commonly viewed only as waste-disposal challenges can, with suitable technologies and infrastructure, be transformed into valuable sources of energy.
- The central issue is not the availability of raw resources, but whether India can establish efficient and scalable systems capable of converting waste into dependable and commercially sustainable energy solutions.
3. Waste and Energy
- India generates close to 750 million tonnes of agricultural biomass annually, out of which nearly 230 million metric tonnes is considered surplus biomass.
- If this excess biomass is effectively collected and processed, it could substantially reduce the country’s reliance on fossil fuels, with some projections indicating the potential to substitute almost one-third of fuel imports. However, transforming biomass into usable energy remains a challenging process.
- Unlike traditional fossil fuels, biomass lacks uniformity in its characteristics. Variations in moisture content, density, and ash composition differ widely among feedstocks, influencing combustion performance, transportation costs, emission levels, and operational efficiency in industries.
- Since most energy systems depend on consistent and reliable fuel quality, untreated biomass often falls short of these requirements.
- Consequently, increasing attention is being directed toward technologies capable of converting waste into cleaner, more efficient, and easier-to-handle forms of energy. In this context, processes such as gasification and anaerobic digestion are gaining growing significance.
- These technologies effectively serve as a link between raw waste materials and practical energy infrastructure.
- Rather than viewing waste merely as a low-value residue, they enable its transformation into commercially useful fuels and energy carriers that can be integrated into existing industrial and energy networks
- Gasification is especially suitable for processing dry biomass materials such as crop residues, husk, woody biomass, and other solid organic waste.
- Within a gasifier, the feedstock undergoes multiple stages including drying, pyrolysis, partial oxidation, and reduction.
- During this process, heat breaks down the biomass into gases, biochar, and tar compounds.
- A controlled and limited supply of oxygen is introduced — insufficient for full combustion but adequate to maintain chemical reactions involving carbon, steam, and carbon dioxide at temperatures ranging between 800°C and 1,000°C.
- The resulting product is syngas, a fuel mixture primarily composed of carbon monoxide, hydrogen, and carbon dioxide, along with smaller quantities of methane and other gases.
- Syngas is considered highly valuable because of its adaptability. It can be directly utilised for producing heat and electricity or further refined into renewable fuels such as methane, methanol, ethanol, and even hydrogen depending on industrial requirements.
- This versatility positions gasification as one of the most promising technologies in advanced bioenergy systems and explains its growing importance in the development of future clean-fuel ecosystems.
- In addition to energy production, gasification also generates biochar, a carbon-rich byproduct that can enhance soil fertility while contributing to carbon sequestration. The process further creates potential opportunities within emerging carbon credit markets.
- Therefore, the benefits of gasification extend beyond energy generation alone, supporting wider environmental sustainability and agricultural improvement objectives
- While gasification is best suited for dry forms of biomass, wet organic waste requires an alternative processing method. In this context, anaerobic digestion emerges as an important solution, particularly for handling sewage, food waste, animal manure, and various industrial organic waste streams.
- Under this process, microorganisms decompose organic matter in an oxygen-free environment, resulting in the production of biogas that primarily contains methane and carbon dioxide. Alongside biogas, the process also generates a nutrient-rich digestate, which can serve as a soil conditioner when properly managed.
- This makes anaerobic digestion highly applicable in urban waste-management systems, sewage treatment facilities, dairy farms, food-processing industries, industrial campuses, and large institutional kitchens where wet waste is generated regularly. On a smaller scale, the technology can also benefit rural and semi-urban areas.
- However, unlike thermal conversion technologies, anaerobic digestion relies on a stable and continuous biological process.
- Therefore, maintaining operational efficiency and ensuring uninterrupted energy output require a consistent and adequate supply of feedstock over the long term
- For India, the greater potential may lie not in selecting one waste-to-energy technology over another, but in combining them strategically.
- Gasification is most effective for processing dry waste, whereas anaerobic digestion performs better with wet organic waste.
- When integrated thoughtfully, these technologies offer a more comprehensive solution suited to the varied nature of India’s waste streams.
- Ensuring that the appropriate type of waste is matched with the correct technology and intended energy outcome is equally important. Using wet waste in gasifiers or feeding dry biomass into digesters can lower efficiency and create additional operational difficulties.
- Such a combined approach also supports the development of decentralised energy systems.
- India’s energy transition cannot depend solely on large centralised facilities; it also requires smaller distributed systems capable of serving rural industries, agro-processing hubs, MSMEs, and regions with high waste generation where transporting biomass across long distances becomes economically unviable.
- Localised systems can transform locally available waste into usable energy, thereby reducing fuel expenses while simultaneously improving waste management and energy accessibility.
- For this ecosystem to expand successfully, strong policy backing will be essential.
- Measures such as waste segregation at the source, investment in decentralised infrastructure, development of robust carbon markets, and long-term regulatory certainty will significantly shape the speed of adoption.
- Without effective segregation practices, both gasification and anaerobic digestion will struggle to operate at their optimal capacity. Likewise, uncertainty in policy frameworks often discourages investors and operators from making large-scale financial commitments
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For Prelims: anaerobic digestion, microorganisms , Syngas , biochar, Sustainable Alternative Towards Affordable Transportation (SATAT)
For Mains: GS III - Science and Technology
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Previous Year Questions
1.Consider the following statements: (2016)
Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (a) 1 only Answer (a)
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